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APM APM-PFQ Dumps

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Total 409 questions

APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

Question 2

To develop and establish a proper communication plan within a project, the project manager needsto consider which type of analysis?

Options:

A.

Budget.

B.

Stakeholder.

C.

Resource.

D.

Schedule

Question 3

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

Question 4

One benefit of stakeholder analysis is that:

Options:

A.

the communication plan becomes unnecessary.

B.

the stakeholders who oppose the project the most can be "cut off' to reduce their negative influence.

C.

the communication requirements for each stakeholder Can be established.

D.

the stakeholders can be removed from any of the decisions that are bang planned.

Question 5

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

Question 6

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

Question 7

What is defined as "the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose"?

Options:

A.

Teamwork.

B.

Motivation.

C.

Management.

D.

Leadership

Question 8

Portfolio management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities.

B.

the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced.

C.

the identification of the benefits (of A. project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits.

D.

the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

Question 9

Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Monitoring progress and use of the project resources.

B.

Analysing the project team's productivity

C.

Ensuring the benefits of the project are realised.

D Planning project evaluation reviews for lessons learned.

Question 10

Which of the following is a definition of project management?

Options:

A.

A complex process of supervising and managing the delivery of any time-bound deliverable.

B.

Any change in management techniques in a company that achieves strategic objectives.

C.

The application of processes, methods, knowledge, skills and experience to achieve specificobjectives for change.

D.

The coordination of several projects alongside business as usual.

Question 11

Which activity is not utilised by scope management?

Options:

A.

Defining.

B.

Identifying.

C.

Delivering.

D.

Controlling.

Question 12

Which project management process is NOT likely to be used when resolving an issue?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Change control

C.

Scope management

D.

Team building

Question 13

What is the agreed reference point that is communicated to stakeholders prior to any work being started?

Options:

A.

Verified work breakdown structure.

B.

Deployment baseline.

C.

Configuration record.

D.

Business case.

Question 14

Which one of the following is a generic project management process?

Options:

A.

Risk management.

B.

Learning and closing.

C.

Staff appraisal.

D.

Quality management.

Question 15

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

Options:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

Question 16

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

Question 17

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

Question 18

The project you are working on has chosen to produce an estimate using a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS). What estimating method is this approach commonly known as?

Options:

A.

Comparative estimating.

B.

Bottom-up/analytical estimating.

C.

Strategic estimating.

D.

Parametric estimating.

Question 19

Which one of the following would be expected to form the main part of a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Deciding on the approach to project risk management.

B.

Evaluating the risk in terms of severity and relative importance.

C.

Deciding on how to respond to the risk and who should implement the response.

D.

Deciding if the risk is a threat or opportunity.

Question 20

What is meant by the term programme management?

Options:

A.

The management of A. group of projects or activities that have a common business aim.

B.

The line management of A. team of programme managers.

C.

The management of A. functional are aused by a number of different projects.

D.

The management of the programme of activities identified in the project plan

Question 21

From the project sponsor's viewpoint, which of the following is not an important aspect of the project communication plan?

Options:

A.

How issues are to be escalated from project manager to project sponsor.

B.

Understanding stakeholders' power and influence.

C.

When project workshops are to be held.

D.

Reference to higher level corporate policies.

Question 22

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

Question 23

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

Options:

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

Question 24

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Quality management plan.

B.

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.

Risk management plan.

D.

Details of scope.

Question 25

What is the estimating method that uses data from a similar project as the basis for the estimate?

Options:

A.

Evaluative estimating.

B.

Risk based estimating.

C.

Analogous estimating.

D.

Analytical estimating.

Question 26

When managing the internal context, the project manager should especially be aware of:

Options:

A.

organisational strategy, policies and frameworks.

B.

competitive positioning.

C.

new legislation.

D business continuity.

Question 27

Throughout the life of the project. issues that are raised are in the:

Options:

A.

quality register.

B.

issue register.

C.

change register.

D.

risk register.

Question 28

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Options:

A.

Cost breakdown structure

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Business case

D.

Project management plan

Question 29

The primary purpose of a milestone in a project is to show:

Options:

A.

significant events.

B.

resource constraints.

C.

task dependencies.

D.

critical path highlights.

Question 30

Which of the following would be a benefit to an organization of effective project management?

Options:

A.

Significant cost savings in the organization’s business as usual activities.

B.

Guaranteed increased profitability and market share from successful projects.

C.

Use of resources and greater likelihood of achieving a successful project.

D.

Having qualified and trained project managers in the organization.

Question 31

What estimating method is most commonly used in the definition phase Of the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Analogous.

B.

Analytical

C.

Parametric.

D.

Statistical

Question 32

During the consideration of when and how the development of the project management plan should take place, the objectives of carrying out such an exercise can often appear to be uncertain. As a recommendation, the project management plan should be:

Options:

A.

assembled when all information is available.

B.

developed iteratively throughout the early stages of the project.

C.

completed in detail before the project is authorised.

D.

free from detailed schedule information.

Question 33

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?

Options:

A.

Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

B.

An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use

C.

If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.

D.

The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism

Question 34

The business case is owned by the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

sponsor.

C.

steering group (board).

D.

senior user.

Question 35

Which of the following statements about scheduling is false?

Options:

A.

Defines the sequence of activities.

B.

Considers work calendars and time contingency.

C.

Provides a baseline for safety considerations.

D.

Quantifies the required resources.

Question 36

Which of the following is a difference between deployment baselines in linear life cycles anditerative life cycles?

Options:

A.

Linear project life cycles set the deployment baseline for the whole project.

B.

In an iterative project life cycle the scope and quality are fixed in the deployment baseline.

C.

Only deployment baselines in iterative life cycles have an integrated baseline review.

D.

Only deployment baselines in linear life cycles have an integrated baseline review

Question 37

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

Question 38

Successful project communications will most likely occur when:

Options:

A.

the project sponsor takes responsibility for planning all stakeholder communication from the outset.

B.

email is the primary method used in order to get information to stakeholders in a speedy and efficient manner.

C.

A. standard project communication format for reports is used to provide feedback to stakeholders.

D.

the different communication needs of each stakeholder group are fully understood.

Question 39

The prime purpose of configuration management is to:

Options:

A.

ensure the traceability and integrity of the delivered product or products

B.

minimise the impact of changes on the scope of the project

C.

ensure that the final product meets the needs of the business as defined by key stakeholders.

D.

maximise the impact of agreed enhancements to the project deliverables

Question 40

One advantage of virtual communications is:

Options:

A.

that nonverbal signals can have an impact on discussions.

B.

it's easy to detect signs of conflict within the project team.

C.

access to a wider resource pool for the project.

D.

that the project team will always be co-located.

Question 41

A typical issue management process could follow the steps:

Options:

A.

identification, escalation. action, resolution.

B.

assessment, escalation, closure, resolution.

C.

assessment, planning, action, response.

D.

identification, planning, response, resolution.

Question 42

A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should be communicated to:

Options:

A.

the project team.

B.

the project stakeholders.

C.

the project board.

D.

the project sponsor

Question 43

At which stage, in the Tuckman team development model, are team members clear and comfortable with their roles and responsibilities, and the project manager starts to see signs of the team working together?

Options:

A.

Storming.

B.

Forming.

C.

Norming.

D.

Performing

Question 44

Which one of the following statements best describes resource scheduling?

Options:

A.

A. process which identifies activities that will need project resources.

B.

A. process to assign roles to project resources.

C.

A. process that identifies when resources are needed.

D.

A. process to estimate the project resources.

Question 45

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

Question 46

Comparative estimating uses:

Options:

A.

current data from similar projects.

B.

historic data from all projects.

C.

historic data from similar projects.

D.

current data from all projects.

Question 47

Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

Options:

A.

A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.

B.

A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.

C.

A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.

D.

A project is a method of planning work.

Question 48

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

Question 49

What must happen when an issue is likely to result in a change of scope?

Options:

A.

The issue owner is consulted,

B.

A decision regarding the issue is deferred.

C.

The issue is rejected and the owner is informed.

D.

The issue needs to be progressed through change control.

Question 50

The risk management process is concerned with managing which of the following?

Options:

A.

Threats and opportunities.

B.

Risks and issues.

C.

Issues that have arisen.

D.

Risk events with negative impact.

Question 51

In order to be defined as an issue, which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

Options:

A.

It must result in a set tolerance being exceeded.

B.

The project manager must be able to resolve it.

C.

It must have happened because of an identified risk.

D.

The project team must be able to deal with it internally.

Question 52

The implementation of risk management on A. project requires a cost allocation from the project budget. Which statement describes the most representative return from such an investment?

Options:

A.

A benefit to the project if potential opportunities are realised

B.

The cost of dealing with a risk should it occur is usually greater than the cost of managing that risk.

C.

Risk management in the project facilitates team building.

D.

It allows the organisation to assure stakeholders of project compliance with regard to risk management.

Question 53

When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:

Options:

A.

the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.

B.

the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.

C.

the project documentation must be disposed of.

D.

the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised

Question 54

Which one of the following is NOT part of the handover process during the final phase of a project lifecycle:

Options:

A.

the acceptance of pertinent documentation relative to project deliverables.

B.

the definition of acceptance criteria for project deliverables.

C.

the transfer of responsibility for project deliverables.

D.

the testing of project deliverables to demonstrate they work in their final operational mode.

Question 55

Which of these is likely to occur if the scope is poorly defined?

1. Additional time spent in the concept phase

2. Scope creep

3. Budget over/under runs

4. Scheduling problems

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 56

Who is best placed in the project to manage sponsor and user expectations?

Options:

A.

The senior management team.

B.

The project manager.

C.

The project management office.

D The project team.

Question 57

Which of the following is the purpose of an estimating funnel?

Options:

A.

Keeping resource usage to a minimum to help reduce costs.

B.

Supporting the production of comparative estimates.

C.

Identifying where costs can be minimised when preparing a budget.

D.

Representing increasing levels of estimating accuracy achieved through the life cycle

Question 58

Quality control consists of:

1) improvement

2) inspection

3) measurement

4) testing

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2, 3 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

Question 59

Which of the following are phases in an iterative project life cycle? 1) Concept 2) Feasibility 3) Deployment 4) Development

Options:

A.

3 and 4 only

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1 and 2 only

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 60

Which of the following is a purpose of issue management?

Options:

A.

To stop issues occurring within the project.

B.

To address and resolve the issues that occur.

C.

To address and resolve uncertainty.

D.

To reschedule activities to reduce costs

Question 61

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.

B.

A. draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.

C.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

D.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

Question 62

When managing risks, reducing the probability of a threat is considered to be am:

Options:

A.

proactive response.

B.

reactive response.

C.

proactive fallback.

D.

reactive fallback.

Question 63

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

Options:

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

Question 64

Success criteria can be defined as:

Options:

A.

measures of success that can be used throughout the project to ensure that it is progressing towards a successful conclusion.

B.

management practices that will increase the likelihood of success of a project.

C.

the satisfaction needs for the deployment of the project.

D.

the value of benefits that are realised when the project delivers its output into business-as-usual.

Question 65

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

Question 66

Following the approval of the deployment baseline, which of the following can be altered during an iterative project life cycle but not a linear project life cycle?

1) Scope

2) Resource

3) Time

4) Cost

Options:

A.

1 and 4

B.

1 and 3

C.

1 and 2

D.

2 and 4

Question 67

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

Question 68

Which one of the following best describes project sponsorship?

Options:

A.

Project sponsorship is the customer's role responsible for identifying the business need.

B.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role responsible for identifying the business need, problem or opportunity.

C.

Project sponsorship is an active, senior management role managing the customer's needs subject to an agreed cost.

D.

Project sponsorship is the project manager's role responsible for delivering the business need and addressing any problems or opportunities.

Question 69

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

Question 70

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

Question 71

Which of these is not part of the linear project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Operations

D.

Transition

Question 72

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

Options:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

Question 73

Project risk management is best described as:

Options:

A.

managing responses to threats.

B.

identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.

C.

planning responses to threats.

D.

minimising threats and maximising opportunities.

Question 74

Governance could best be defined as:

Options:

A.

the framework of authority and accountability that defines and controls the outputs, outcomes and benefits from projects, programmes and portfolios.

B.

the framework that structures a review of the project, programme or portfolio and aids a decision to be made about whether to continue with the next phase or stage of progress.

C.

the framework that is used for selection, prioritisation and control of an organisation's projects and programmes in line with its strategic objectives and capacity to deliver

D the framework used by the organisation and approved by the project board at project initiation that allows the definition of the terms of reference for the project.

Question 75

While carrying out quality management for the project, you have been assigned the task of determining the quality standards that are applicable and how they should apply. Which part of quality management would best describe this activity?

Options:

A.

Quality planning.

B.

Quality assurance.

C.

Total quality.

D.

Quality control.

Question 76

Which of the following can be adjusted during a time box? 1) Scope 2) Resource 3) Time 4) Quality

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

3 and 4 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 77

Which of the following is most true of the business case?

Options:

A.

It provides details of the overarching approach to be taken to move the current to a future desirable state using a coordinated and structured approach.

B.

It evaluates the benefit, cost and risk of alternative project options and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It demonstrates the relationship between the costs of undertaking a project, initial and recurrent, and the benefits likely to arise from the changed situation, initially and recurrently.

D.

It describes each major element in the work breakdown structure (WBS) describing the work content, resources required, the time frame of the work element and a cost estimate.

Question 78

Which one of the following statements BEST defines procurement?

Options:

A.

A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project

B.

A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs

C.

The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product

D.

The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired

Question 79

What is a visual representation of a project's planned activities against a calendar called?

Options:

A.

a Gantt chart.

B.

a critical path network.

C.

a product flow diagram.

D.

a Pareto chart.

Question 80

When should test plans for quality control be agreed?

Options:

A.

During quality planning.

B.

When the live product is available for test.

C.

At the end of the project.

D.

Prior to handover of the output

Question 81

When no other changes are being considered to the project, this is usually termed as a:

Options:

A.

scope verification.

B.

change freeze.

C.

consolidated baseline.

D.

configuration control.

Question 82

Which key questions should be asked before a decision gate occurs?

1) Is the business case viable?

2) What has been achieved?

3) What is required for the next stage?

4) Are stakeholders properly engaged?

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 3

B.

1, 2 and 4

C.

2, 3 and 4

D.

1, 3 and 4

Question 83

Which one of the following is NOT typically associated with a project's context?

Options:

A.

The issues and areas that matter to stakeholders.

B.

Technical, social or political considerations.

C.

The environment in which the project is being carried out.

D.

The sequence and dependencies of activities.

Question 84

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Options:

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

Question 85

Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits?

Options:

A.

Adoption.

B.

Transition.

C.

Deployment.

D.

Implementation.

Question 86

What is the main objective of an audit?

Options:

A.

Provide assurance to the project sponsor that the project is going to finish

on time and within budget.

B.

Provide feedback to the project manager with regard to their performance in managing the project.

C.

Provide assurance to the sponsor that the project is being managed using the agreed governance and process.

D.

Provide a report of the current status of the project regarding cost and schedule performance.

Question 87

Establishing success criteria is important at the start of the project, as they:

Options:

A.

indicate how the stakeholder needs will be met.

B.

ensure adequate resource allocation.

C.

indicate what is important in supplier selection.

D.

ensure comprehensive risk analysis.

Question 88

The project management plan is best described as a reference document that confirms:

Options:

A.

the project completion date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

B.

the agreement between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

C.

the key project milestones as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager.

D.

the project start date as agreed between the project sponsor, other stakeholders and the project manager

Question 89

Good teamwork helps to deliver a successful project because:

Options:

A.

team members have similar skill sets.

B.

project work can be distributed equally around the team.

C.

all team members have the same access to project information.

D.

people work collaboratively towards a common goal.

Question 90

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost estimating.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

Question 91

One disadvantage of physical communication is:

Options:

A.

its significant environmental impact when compared to other forms of communication.

B.

that no audit trail is available for review at a later date by project team members.

C.

it is reliant on technology being available to all relevant members of the project.

D.

that your body language may not reflect what you're saying when passing on information

Question 92

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

Question 93

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

Question 94

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

Question 95

Which of the following are the major stakeholders of the project management plan?

1) Project sponsor

2) General public

3) Project team

4) Project manager

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

1, 2 and 3

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

2, 3 and 4

Question 96

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

Question 97

Stakeholder analysis supports effective stakeholder engagement by:

Options:

A.

identifying stakeholders with high levels of power and interest.

B.

ensuring stakeholder acceptance of project deliverables.

C.

justifying the preferred project option to stakeholders.

D.

providing information to all stakeholders.

Question 98

What benefit justifies expending resources to achieve stakeholder

engagement?

Options:

A.

Optimised resource management opportunities.

B.

Reduced overall costs Of project delivery.

C.

Decreased duration of the project schedule.

D.

Increased likelihood Of the project being accepted.

Question 99

What would be a most likely result for an organisation following a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The organisation would know what political change is most likely and therefore the impacts on objectives considered.

B.

The organisation would most likely have a number of options available as to how the desired objectives could be achieved.

C.

The organisation would have an understanding of the necessary skills required to deliver the objectives required.

D The organisation would be able to develop an accurate estimate of the costs and time frame forthe objectives to be achieved.

Question 100

For successful risk identification to take place what must the project team know as a minimum?

Options:

A.

Skills of the team delivering the project.

B.

Project objectives.

C.

Amount of time allowed for risk identification to take place.

D.

Location of the venue Where risk identification Will take place

Question 101

Which one of the following is an example of a project issue?

Options:

A.

There are no suppliers that can meet our specification.

B.

We may not be able to finish on time.

C.

The project is going to be late.

D.

A key phase of the project is taking longer than expected

Question 102

Which of the following best describes a project's context?

Options:

A.

The environment in which the business operates.

B.

The geographic location in which the project is undertaken.

C.

The external and internal business environments including stakeholder's interests and influences.

D Industry and business sector practices.

Question 103

Which one of the following takes place during closeout?

Options:

A.

Benefits realisation review.

B.

Final project review.

C.

Deliverables accepted by sponsor.

D.

Handover of relevant documentation

Question 104

A project stakeholder could best be described as:

Options:

A.

A member of the sponsoring organisation's board of directors.

B.

A key player who is seeking to maximize control over the project

C.

A person or group who has an interest in or is impacted by the project.

D.

A project team member who has the skills necessary to deliver the project

Question 105

Which of the following best describes a project environment?

Options:

A.

The type of organisation concerned with implementation.

B.

The structured method used to control the project.

C.

The context within which a project is undertaken.

D.

An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

Question 106

What is a likely benefit of re-estimating throughout the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

The project will be much more economically viable.

B.

The business case is justified to a greater degree.

C.

Overall project duration is reduced.

D.

Reduction in contingency reserves are achieved.

Question 107

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

Options:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

Question 108

When an item goes through change control, which of the following must happen as part of a robust configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Costs associated with the change are evaluated and documented.

B.

Risks associated with the change are monitored to avoid delays to the project.

C.

The item is approved or declined in line with stakeholder expectations.

D.

Documents are updated to include any approved changes.

Question 109

Which one of the following statements best describes communication?

Options:

A.

The giving, receiving, processing and interpretation of information.

B.

The explanation, understanding, managing and sorting of information.

C.

The giving, explaining, understanding and interpretation of information.

D.

The managing, receiving, processing and sorting of information.

Question 110

Which of the following best describes a project's business case?

Options:

A.

The definition of why the project is required and the desired benefits.

B.

A. statement of what the project will deliver in terms of products/ deliverables

C.

The reason why the project wants the project to proceed.

D A. statement as to how the project fits into the long-term aims of the project sponsor

Question 111

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

Options:

A.

Actively seeking some senior management support.

B.

Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

C.

Achievement of milestones.

D.

A motivated project team.

Question 112

When using a PESTLE analysis, a potential change in national government would be an example of a:

Options:

A.

political factor.

B.

economic factor.

C.

sociological factor.

D A. potential change of government would not be considered in such an analysis.

Question 113

Which of the following statements explain the importance of clearly defined success criteria at handover?

1) Deliverables are more likely to satisfy the client

2) The project can be effectively evaluated

3) Work can be effectively planned

4) Change can generally be avoided

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 114

Resource levelling seeks:

Options:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

Question 115

Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

Options:

A.

A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.

B.

Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.

C.

It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.

D.

Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

Question 116

The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:

Options:

A.

identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.

B.

identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.

C.

identify and determine the responses to the project risks.

D.

identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects

Question 117

The purpose of project management is to:

Options:

A.

organise management plans.

B.

keep all stakeholders happy.

C.

control change initiatives.

D.

effect beneficial change.

Question 118

Which of the following aspects would best describe part of the project environment?

Options:

A.

The influence and interests of the key stakeholders of the project.

B.

The technical difficulties that are anticipated when undertaking the project.

C.

The circumstances within which the project is being undertaken.

D The relationship between the project manager and the project team.

Question 119

In which phase of the project should the Procurement Strategy be written?

Options:

A.

Concept

B.

Definition

C.

Deployment

D.

Transition

Question 120

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

Question 121

Which of the following is the responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a project is aligned to the organisation's strategy.

B.

Focusing on project benefits and aligning priorities.

C.

Achieving the project's success criteria.

D.

Improving process, tools and techniques used in a project

Question 122

Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to an organisation?

Options:

A.

It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.

B.

It advocates employing A. consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.

C.

It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.

D.

It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

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Total 409 questions