Abdomen Sonography Examination Questions and Answers
Which structure is located between the fundus of the stomach and the diaphragm?
Options:
Caudate lobe of the liver
Left lobe of the liver
Right kidney
Spleen
Answer:
DExplanation:
The spleen lies in the left hypochondrium, superior and lateral to the fundus of the stomach, and directly contacts the diaphragm. It occupies the space between the stomach and diaphragm. The liver and kidneys are located more medially or inferiorly.
According to Gray’s Anatomy for Students:
“The spleen lies posterolateral to the fundus of the stomach, separated from the diaphragm by its fibrous capsule.”
Which condition is demonstrated in this image?
Options:
Cavernous transformation
Portal vein thrombosis
Portal hypertension
Tumor extension
Answer:
AExplanation:
The image shows a color Doppler ultrasound of the main portal vein (MPV), which appears irregular and replaced by multiple small, serpiginous vascular channels — a hallmark of cavernous transformation. Cavernous transformation of the portal vein is a late complication of chronic portal vein thrombosis, in which collateral vessels develop around the thrombosed portal vein to bypass the obstruction.
Key Doppler ultrasound features of cavernous transformation:
Absence of a normal portal vein
Multiple tortuous vessels in the porta hepatis
Color Doppler shows hepatopetal flow in these channels
Low velocity, continuous waveform flow in collateral vessels
Differentiation from other options:
B. Portal vein thrombosis: Would show an absence of color flow within the portal vein lumen and possibly echogenic material within the vessel. There would be no serpiginous collateral vessels yet if it's an acute process.
C. Portal hypertension: Often diagnosed with other sonographic findings (e.g., splenomegaly, reversed portal flow, varices) but not characterized by the replacement of the portal vein by collateral vessels.
D. Tumor extension: Typically appears as echogenic intraluminal material within the portal vein with arterial waveforms on Doppler due to neovascularity. Tumor thrombus can be seen in hepatocellular carcinoma or pancreatic cancer, not multiple small collateral vessels.
Which condition results in the vascular abnormality shown in this image of a renal transplant?
Options:
Iliac arteritis
Renal artery stenosis
Renal vein thrombosis
Arteriovenous malformation
Answer:
BExplanation:
The Doppler ultrasound image shows an elevated peak systolic velocity (PSV) of 637 cm/s, an elevated end-diastolic velocity (EDV) of 312 cm/s, and a low resistive index (RI) of 0.51 at the arterial anastomosis of a renal transplant. These findings are characteristic of significant renal artery stenosis (RAS) at the transplant vascular anastomosis.
Key sonographic features of renal artery stenosis:
Peak systolic velocity (PSV) > 250–300 cm/s at the stenotic segment (this case: 637 cm/s)
Post-stenotic turbulence with spectral broadening
Low resistive index (RI < 0.56 suggests downstream vasodilation)
Elevated acceleration time (AT > 0.07 sec), and reduced acceleration slope
Aliasing on color Doppler due to high velocity
In this image, the marked increase in velocity with spectral aliasing and low RI is diagnostic of transplant renal artery stenosis — the most common vascular complication post-transplant, typically occurring at the site of surgical anastomosis.
Differentiation from other options:
A. Iliac arteritis: A rare condition, not typically presenting with these Doppler changes.
C. Renal vein thrombosis: Would show reversed or absent diastolic flow, not elevated systolic velocities.
D. Arteriovenous malformation (AVM): Produces a high-velocity, low-resistance waveform but is associated with color bruit, aliasing, and pulsatile venous waveforms — not evident here.
The absence of which sonographic finding indicates the acute process depicted in these images?
Options:
Free fluid
Ductal dilatation
Hepatic vein thrombosis
Cavernous transformation
Answer:
DExplanation:
The sonographic images depict an acute thrombotic process involving the portal venous system. The absence of cavernous transformation in the setting of portal vein thrombus indicates that the process is acute. In chronic portal vein thrombosis, collateral vessels form in the porta hepatis to bypass the obstruction, a process known as cavernous transformation.
Sonographic features suggesting acute portal vein thrombosis:
Echogenic thrombus within the portal vein lumen
Absence of flow on color Doppler
Enlarged portal vein diameter early in the process
No evidence of cavernous transformation (i.e., no serpiginous collateral vessels at porta hepatis)
Cavernous transformation is a hallmark of chronic portal vein thrombosis and takes weeks to months to develop. Therefore, its absence on ultrasound supports an acute diagnosis.
Differentiation from other options:
A. Free fluid: Non-specific and may or may not be present in hepatic vascular thrombosis.
B. Ductal dilatation: Related to biliary obstruction, not portal or hepatic venous thrombosis.
C. Hepatic vein thrombosis: Seen in Budd-Chiari syndrome, which affects hepatic outflow, not portal inflow.
Which sonographic finding distinguishes focal nodular hyperplasia from hepatic adenoma?
Options:
Stellate area within the central portion of the mass
Thin peripheral hypoechoic halo
Central calcifications
Target pattern
Answer:
AExplanation:
The hallmark feature of focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH) is a central stellate scar seen on imaging. This fibrous scar may not always be seen on ultrasound but is a classic distinguishing feature from hepatic adenomas, which usually lack a central scar.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Focal nodular hyperplasia often demonstrates a central stellate scar, which may be echogenic or isoechoic.”
Which patient maneuver would best aid in identifying the pathology demonstrated in this image?
Options:
Drink water
Stand upright
Breathe quietly
Turn from side to side
Answer:
DExplanation:
The ultrasound image demonstrates a classic example of ascites, shown by the anechoic (dark) fluid located between bowel loops or surrounding abdominal organs. In this case, there appears to be a small fluid collection in the peritoneal cavity.
One of the key maneuvers used to differentiate free fluid (such as ascites) from loculated fluid or other structures is to reposition the patient. Asking the patient to “turn from side to side” (Option D) can help in assessing whether the fluid shifts position — a hallmark feature of free intraperitoneal fluid. This positional change is highly useful in confirming the diagnosis and distinguishing ascites from other potential mimics (e.g., cystic masses, lymphoceles, or bowel wall thickening).
In contrast:
Drinking water (A) is often used in imaging the urinary bladder or gastrointestinal tract but not for fluid characterization.
Standing upright (B) may shift fluid but is less practical during real-time ultrasound.
Breathing quietly (C) doesn’t significantly aid in visualizing peritoneal fluid mobility.
Which hernia characteristic is demonstrated in these images?
Options:
Fat only
Reducible
Incarcerated
Strangulated
Answer:
BExplanation:
The ultrasound images show two views of the same groin region — one without compression (left image labeled “W/O COMPRESSION”) and one with graded probe compression (right image labeled “W/ COMPRESSION”).
In the non-compression image, a hypoechoic mass-like structure is visible protruding through the abdominal wall, consistent with a hernia sac. On the compression image, the herniated content is no longer visible, indicating that the contents have been pushed back into the abdominal cavity. This is the hallmark feature of a reducible hernia.
Key characteristics of a reducible hernia on ultrasound:
Herniated contents are visible without pressure.
Contents disappear or reduce back into the abdomen with graded probe compression or Valsalva release.
Typically includes omental fat or bowel, but reduction confirms lack of incarceration or strangulation.
Comparison of answer choices:
A. Fat only refers to the hernia content type, not the behavior or reducibility shown here.
B. Reducible — Correct. The change in hernia appearance between images demonstrates successful reduction with compression.
C. Incarcerated hernia would remain visible and not compressible or reducible.
D. Strangulated hernia would show signs of ischemia (bowel wall thickening, absent perfusion, hyperechoic mesentery), and would also not reduce with compression.
Which arteries are the immediate branches of the celiac trunk?
Options:
Proper hepatic, splenic, and supraduodenal
Common hepatic, splenic, and left gastric
Common hepatic, splenic, and right gastric
Proper hepatic, splenic, and gastroduodenal
Answer:
BExplanation:
The celiac trunk arises from the abdominal aorta and immediately divides into three primary branches:
Left gastric artery
Common hepatic artery
Splenic artery
The proper hepatic and gastroduodenal arteries are secondary branches of the common hepatic artery.
According to Moore’s Clinically Oriented Anatomy:
“The celiac trunk trifurcates into the left gastric, common hepatic, and splenic arteries.”
Which is the most common pancreatic cancer?
Options:
Mucinous cystadenocarcinoma
Islet cell carcinoma
Adenocarcinoma
Metastasis
Answer:
CExplanation:
Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma is by far the most common pancreatic malignancy, accounting for approximately 85–90% of pancreatic cancers. It typically arises from the exocrine portion of the pancreas, most frequently in the pancreatic head. Islet cell (neuroendocrine) tumors and cystic neoplasms (e.g., mucinous cystadenocarcinoma) are far less common.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Adenocarcinoma is the most common malignant neoplasm of the pancreas, representing the vast majority of pancreatic cancers.”
Which mechanism is used for a fine needle aspiration?
Options:
Automated spring loaded device
Cutting needle obtains core tissue
Packing of cells in the needle
Injection of saline and suction
Answer:
CExplanation:
Fine needle aspiration (FNA) uses a thin needle to aspirate cells, which are then packed into the lumen of the needle for cytological evaluation. It is distinct from core biopsy, which uses cutting needles to obtain tissue cores.
According to AIUM Practice Parameters:
“Fine needle aspiration involves insertion of a thin needle into a lesion to aspirate cells for cytologic analysis. The cells are collected inside the needle lumen.”
Which vessel is typically seen with an echogenic ring of fat when imaging the upper abdominal mesenteric circulation?
Options:
Splenic artery
Gastroduodenal artery
Common hepatic artery
Superior mesenteric artery
Answer:
DExplanation:
The superior mesenteric artery (SMA) is typically visualized surrounded by an echogenic fat pad in the mesentery, producing a characteristic "echogenic ring" appearance on ultrasound. This is a helpful landmark for identifying the SMA in the transverse abdominal aortic plane.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“The superior mesenteric artery is often seen as a round anechoic structure surrounded by echogenic fat at its origin from the anterior aorta.”
When measuring the abdominal aorta, where should the calipers be placed?
Options:
Outer wall to outer wall
Outer wall to inner wall
Inner wall to outer wall
Inner wall to inner wall
Answer:
AExplanation:
When measuring the abdominal aorta (or any vessel diameter for aneurysm evaluation), calipers should be placed from outer wall to outer wall to ensure inclusion of the full vessel diameter, including any mural thrombus. This is the standard method accepted by professional societies.
According to AIUM and SRU Guidelines:
“Vessel diameter measurements should be performed from outer wall to outer wall to avoid underestimation of aneurysm size.”
Which sonographic finding is commonly associated with transitional cell cancer of urinary bladder?
Options:
Polypoidal non-mobile focal mass
Ulcerated solid infiltrative lesion
Diffuse wall thickening
Flat sessile lesion
Answer:
AExplanation:
Transitional cell carcinoma (TCC) typically presents as a non-mobile, polypoidal, focal intraluminal mass projecting from the bladder wall. Mobility of the lesion helps differentiate TCC from blood clots or debris.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Bladder TCC most often appears as a non-mobile, polypoid mass attached to the bladder wall.”
Which renal finding is often present in patients with tuberous sclerosis?
Options:
Renal cell carcinoma
Angiomyolipoma
Sinus lipomatosis
Multilocular cystic nephroma
Answer:
BExplanation:
Angiomyolipomas are benign renal tumors composed of fat, smooth muscle, and blood vessels. They are strongly associated with tuberous sclerosis and may be multiple and bilateral in these patients. While RCC may occur, angiomyolipomas are much more characteristic.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Angiomyolipomas are frequently multiple and bilateral in patients with tuberous sclerosis.”
Which condition is most consistent with thinning of the renal cortex, reduction in renal length, and prominence of the renal sinus fat in a patient presenting four months after renal transplant with slightly reduced renal function?
Options:
Acute rejection
Chronic rejection
Normal findings
Arterial stricture
Answer:
BExplanation:
Chronic rejection presents sonographically as cortical thinning, decreased renal size, and increased echogenicity of the renal sinus fat. Acute rejection typically causes an enlarged, edematous kidney with increased parenchymal echogenicity but preserved size early on.
According to Zwiebel’s Introduction to Vascular Ultrasound:
“In chronic rejection, the allograft becomes smaller with cortical thinning, increased echogenicity, and prominence of the central sinus fat.”
Which condition is demonstrated in this image of the groin?
Options:
Hematocele
Testicular rupture
Orchiectomy
Indirect hernia
Answer:
DExplanation:
The ultrasound image demonstrates bowel loops with peristalsis visualized within the inguinal canal, which is diagnostic of an inguinal hernia—more specifically, an indirect inguinal hernia. Indirect hernias pass through the deep inguinal ring and may extend into the scrotum, appearing sonographically as bowel-containing masses adjacent to or within the scrotal sac. Peristaltic motion confirms the presence of viable bowel content.
This finding is typical in indirect inguinal hernias, which are more common in males and often congenital due to a patent processus vaginalis. The herniated bowel can be traced through the inguinal canal, as seen in this image.
Comparison of answer choices:
A. Hematocele presents as a complex fluid collection surrounding the testis, often due to trauma—no complex fluid or trauma is apparent here.
B. Testicular rupture shows discontinuity of the tunica albuginea and irregular testicular contour—none of which is seen.
C. Orchiectomy would show an absent testis—this is not the case here.
D. Indirect hernia is correct. The presence of bowel with peristalsis in the inguinal canal is diagnostic.
Which condition puts the patient at greatest risk for a hematoma as a result of biopsy?
Options:
Infection
Hypertension
Liver disease
Acute renal failure
Answer:
CExplanation:
Patients with liver disease often have coagulopathy due to impaired synthesis of clotting factors. This places them at greater risk for bleeding or hematoma formation after biopsy. While hypertension may increase bleeding risk slightly, liver disease presents a significantly higher risk due to impaired coagulation.
According to the Society of Interventional Radiology (SIR) guidelines:
“Liver dysfunction is a significant risk factor for post-biopsy hemorrhage due to associated coagulopathy.”
Which renal condition is commonly associated with pyuria and leukocytosis?
Options:
Nephrocalcinosis
Staghorn calculus
Renal cell carcinoma
Acute pyelonephritis
Answer:
DExplanation:
Acute pyelonephritis is a bacterial infection of the renal parenchyma and collecting system. Classic clinical findings include fever, flank pain, leukocytosis (elevated white blood cells), and pyuria (white blood cells in urine). Ultrasound may demonstrate renal enlargement, decreased echogenicity, and loss of corticomedullary differentiation.
Nephrocalcinosis (A) involves calcium deposition without infection.
Staghorn calculus (B) may lead to infection but is primarily characterized by obstructive uropathy.
Renal cell carcinoma (C) presents with hematuria and mass formation rather than infection symptoms.
Reference Extracts:
Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier, 2017. Chapter: Kidneys.
Middleton WD, Kurtz AB, Hertzberg BS.Ultrasound: The Requisites. 3rd ed. Elsevier, 2015.
—
Which pancreatic condition is commonly associated with complete or partial atresia of the duodenum?
Options:
Pancreatic cysts
Pancreas divisum
Pancreatic agenesis
Annular pancreas
Answer:
DExplanation:
Annular pancreas is a congenital anomaly in which pancreatic tissue encircles the second part of the duodenum, potentially causing partial or complete duodenal obstruction (atresia). It is due to abnormal migration of the ventral pancreatic bud.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Annular pancreas results from failure of the ventral pancreatic bud to rotate properly, leading to encirclement of the duodenum.”
Which complication would be associated with retroperitoneal fibrosis?
Options:
Aortic stenosis
Portal hypertension
Venous thrombosis
Hydronephrosis
Answer:
DExplanation:
Retroperitoneal fibrosis can encase and compress the ureters, leading to obstructive uropathy and hydronephrosis. It may also involve other retroperitoneal structures but hydronephrosis is the most common significant complication.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Retroperitoneal fibrosis frequently results in ureteral obstruction, leading to hydronephrosis.”
Which scanning technique would best reduce reverberation artifact when assessing the gallbladder?
Options:
Decrease the sector width
Decrease the overall gain
Turn on penetration
Turn on harmonics
Answer:
DExplanation:
Tissue harmonic imaging significantly reduces reverberation and side-lobe artifacts by utilizing nonlinear propagation of ultrasound waves. This produces clearer images of fluid-filled structures like the gallbladder, improving visualization of wall thickness and intraluminal contents.
According to Zwiebel’s Introduction to Vascular Ultrasound:
“Harmonic imaging effectively reduces reverberation artifact, improving image quality in gallbladder and cystic structure evaluation.”
A patient with hepatocellular carcinoma presents for a paracentesis. Which lab value is the most pertinent to the procedure?
Options:
International normalized ratio
Alanine aminotransferase
Alpha fetoprotein
Total bilirubin
Answer:
AExplanation:
Before performing a paracentesis, assessment of the patient's coagulation status is crucial to minimize bleeding risk. The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is the standard lab value used to assess coagulation. Elevated INR may increase the risk of bleeding complications during the procedure. ALT, AFP, and bilirubin levels evaluate liver function or cancer progression but are not directly relevant to bleeding risk for this procedure.
As per AASLD and SIR guidelines:
“An INR and platelet count should be evaluated before paracentesis to assess bleeding risk. Minor elevations in INR (<1.5) may not contraindicate the procedure.” (AASLD Practice Guidance, 2021; SIR Consensus Guidelines, 2019).
What is the normal Doppler waveform signature of the hepatic veins?
Options:
Low resistant
Monophasic
Triphasic
Turbulent
Answer:
CExplanation:
The normal hepatic vein Doppler waveform is triphasic, reflecting cardiac cycle variations in central venous pressure transmitted from the right atrium through the IVC. Loss of triphasicity may suggest elevated right atrial pressures or hepatic venous obstruction.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“The normal hepatic vein waveform is triphasic due to transmitted right atrial pressure variations.”
Which abnormality is the most common adult adrenal tumor?
Options:
Neuroblastoma
Adrenal cortical carcinoma
Pheochromocytoma
Adenoma
Answer:
DExplanation:
Adrenal adenomas are the most common adrenal tumors in adults. They are often discovered incidentally (adrenal incidentalomas) and are usually nonfunctioning, though some may secrete cortisol or aldosterone. Neuroblastoma is common in children, pheochromocytomas are rarer catecholamine-producing tumors, and adrenal cortical carcinoma is malignant but much less common than adenomas.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Adrenal adenomas are the most common adrenal masses in adults, frequently identified incidentally on imaging studies.”
Which liver neoplasm is associated with use of oral contraceptives and is most often seen in women under the age of 40?
Options:
Adenoma
Cavernous hemangioma
Hepatoblastoma
Hepatoma
Answer:
AExplanation:
Hepatic adenomas are benign liver tumors strongly associated with long-term use of oral contraceptives and are most frequently found in women under 40. Hepatoblastoma is seen in children; hepatoma (HCC) is a malignant tumor typically found in cirrhotic livers. Cavernous hemangioma is unrelated to oral contraceptives.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Hepatic adenomas occur predominantly in young women with a history of oral contraceptive use.”
Which retroperitoneal finding is most likely associated with trauma?
Options:
Neuroblastoma
Fibrosis
Urinoma
Adenoma
Answer:
CExplanation:
Urinomas are collections of urine in the retroperitoneum that result from trauma, surgery, or obstruction causing urine leakage. Trauma is a frequent cause of urinoma formation due to disruption of the urinary tract.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Urinomas may develop as a complication of trauma, surgery, or obstructive uropathy with urinary extravasation into the retroperitoneum.”
Which vascular condition is most commonly associated with a wandering spleen?
Options:
Infarction
Torsion
Rupture
Portal hypertension
Answer:
BExplanation:
A wandering spleen occurs when the spleen is not adequately anchored by its supporting ligaments, allowing it to move freely within the abdomen. This increases the risk of splenic torsion, which compromises vascular supply and may result in infarction if not corrected.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“The most serious complication of a wandering spleen is torsion, which may result in splenic infarction.”
Which condition is demonstrated in this image?
Options:
Intussusception
Pyloric stenosis
Hydronephrosis
Gastritis
Answer:
BExplanation:
The ultrasound image clearly demonstrates a thickened and elongated pyloric muscle with a visible channel, which is characteristic of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS). This condition is most commonly seen in male infants between 2 and 8 weeks of age who present with non-bilious projectile vomiting, dehydration, and a palpable “olive-like” mass in the right upper quadrant.
Ultrasound is the imaging modality of choice and is highly sensitive and specific for diagnosing pyloric stenosis.
Key sonographic criteria for HPS:
Muscle thickness >3 mm
Pyloric channel length >15–17 mm
“Target sign” or “doughnut sign” on transverse imaging (concentric rings)
“Cervix” or “railroad track sign” on longitudinal imaging (elongated canal with echogenic center)
Differentiation from other options:
A. Intussusception: Also shows a target sign, but it occurs in the right lower quadrant or periumbilical region, not in the gastric antrum.
C. Hydronephrosis: Refers to dilation of the renal pelvis and calyces — not gastrointestinal.
D. Gastritis: May show gastric wall thickening but lacks the distinct elongated, thickened pyloric muscle seen here.
Which abnormality is depicted in this image of a patient who presents with a fever following a liver biopsy?
Options:
Cyst
Biloma
Abscess
Hematoma
Answer:
CExplanation:
The sonographic image shows a complex fluid collection within the liver parenchyma, with internal echoes and possibly septations, consistent with an abscess. In the clinical context of post-procedural fever following a liver biopsy, a liver abscess is the most likely diagnosis.
A liver abscess appears on ultrasound as a hypoechoic or complex fluid collection that may contain internal debris, septations, or gas (which may produce reverberation artifacts). These features distinguish it from other post-procedural complications.
A cyst (Option A) typically appears as an anechoic, well-defined lesion with posterior acoustic enhancement and no internal debris—this does not match the image or clinical setting.
A biloma (Option B) is a bile collection that can appear similar to a cyst or fluid collection but typically occurs due to bile leak; however, fever and internal complexity on ultrasound more strongly suggest abscess.
A hematoma (Option D) may also appear complex but usually presents with pain and not fever unless secondarily infected. Over time, hematomas evolve in appearance but lack septations and gas unless superinfected.
Which structure is most likely shown in this image of the right lower quadrant?
Options:
Fallopian tube
Ureter
Appendix
Jejunum
Answer:
CExplanation:
The ultrasound image shows a blind-ending, non-compressible, tubular structure in the right lower quadrant with a target or bullseye appearance in transverse section — highly suggestive of the appendix.
Sonographic features of the appendix (especially in suspected appendicitis):
Blind-ending tubular structure arising from the cecum
Non-compressible on graded compression
Diameter >6 mm is suggestive of appendicitis
May demonstrate a “target sign” in transverse view (concentric ring-like appearance)
Increased echogenicity of surrounding fat in cases of inflammation
May contain an appendicolith or show hyperemia on color Doppler if inflamed
The location (right lower quadrant) and appearance in this case are classic for the normal or potentially inflamed appendix.
Differentiation from other options:
A. Fallopian tube: Located more in the adnexal regions and usually not visible unless distended (e.g., hydrosalpinx).
B. Ureter: Usually not visualized on ultrasound unless dilated due to obstruction.
D. Jejunum: Has valvulae conniventes ("keyboard sign") and peristalsis; does not present with a blind-ending tubular appearance from the cecum.
Which diagnosis is most accurate based on the findings in this image from an adult patient?
Options:
Nephroblastoma
Clear cell carcinoma
Renal cell carcinoma
Transitional cell carcinoma
Answer:
CExplanation:
The ultrasound images (sagittal and transverse views of the left kidney) demonstrate a large, well-defined, heterogeneous mass within the renal parenchyma. This is highly characteristic of renal cell carcinoma (RCC), the most common primary renal malignancy in adults.
Renal cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 85% of all malignant renal tumors in adults. RCC often appears as:
A solid, heterogeneous, hypoechoic to isoechoic mass within the kidney
May contain areas of necrosis or hemorrhage (seen as mixed echogenicity)
Distortion of the normal renal contour
May have internal vascularity on Doppler imaging
Clear cell carcinoma (choice B) is the most common histological subtype of RCC but is not a separate diagnosis from RCC in imaging terms. Therefore, the most accurate answer is choice C: Renal cell carcinoma.
Differentiation from other options:
A. Nephroblastoma (Wilms tumor): A pediatric renal tumor, typically seen in children under 5 years of age—not applicable in adults.
B. Clear cell carcinoma: Histological subtype of RCC, not a distinct radiologic diagnosis.
D. Transitional cell carcinoma: Arises from the renal pelvis or ureter, typically appears as a central or collecting system mass rather than a cortical/parenchymal one.
Which term refers to the testicular capsule?
Options:
Tunica albuginea
Tunica vaginalis
Dartos fascia
Pampiniform plexus
Answer:
AExplanation:
The tunica albuginea is the dense fibrous capsule that directly surrounds the testicular parenchyma. The tunica vaginalis is a serous covering surrounding the testis externally, and the dartos fascia and pampiniform plexus are part of the scrotal wall and spermatic cord, respectively.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“The tunica albuginea is the fibrous capsule surrounding the testis and forming septa within the gland.”
Which description best characterizes a normal systolic spectral waveform of the renal artery?
Options:
Slow acceleration
Blunt peak
Early reversal
Rapid acceleration
Answer:
DExplanation:
A normal renal artery waveform demonstrates rapid systolic upstroke (acceleration) with continuous forward flow in diastole due to the kidney's low-resistance vascular bed. Slow acceleration or blunted peaks may indicate significant renal artery stenosis.
According to Zwiebel’s Introduction to Vascular Ultrasound:
“Normal renal artery waveforms demonstrate a rapid systolic acceleration with a sharp systolic peak.”
Which vascular condition is most likely associated with the sonographic findings demonstrated in this image?
Options:
Budd-Chiari syndrome
Splenic artery aneurysm
Recanalized umbilical vein
Median arcuate ligament syndrome
Answer:
CExplanation:
The ultrasound image demonstrates a tubular, anechoic structure coursing anterior to the left portal vein and heading toward the anterior abdominal wall. This is consistent with a recanalized umbilical vein, which is an important collateral pathway that reopens in cases of portal hypertension.
Normally, the umbilical vein becomes obliterated after birth and forms the ligamentum teres. However, in the setting of significant portal hypertension, the umbilical vein may recanalize and serve as a collateral route to decompress the portal system.
Sonographic features of a recanalized umbilical vein:
Anechoic, tubular structure in the ligamentum teres fissure
Seen anterior to the left portal vein
Color Doppler confirms hepatofugal venous flow
Associated with signs of portal hypertension (e.g., splenomegaly, varices)
Differentiation from other options:
A. Budd-Chiari syndrome: Involves hepatic vein outflow obstruction; ultrasound shows absent or narrowed hepatic veins and may have caudate lobe hypertrophy.
B. Splenic artery aneurysm: Typically visualized near the splenic hilum as a pulsatile cystic mass; Doppler shows arterial flow.
D. Median arcuate ligament syndrome: Involves compression of the celiac axis; best assessed with Doppler showing elevated velocities on expiration.
Which finding is most likely demonstrated in this abdominal wall image of a patient with a history of atrial fibrillation?
Options:
Hernia
Lipoma
Abscess
Hematoma
Answer:
DExplanation:
The ultrasound image demonstrates a complex, heterogeneous hypoechoic collection within the abdominal wall, with mixed echogenicity and ill-defined margins. The lesion appears to contain internal debris but lacks definitive signs of vascularity or air (which would be seen in an abscess). There is no peristalsis, herniated bowel, or fat to suggest hernia.
Given the history of atrial fibrillation — a condition commonly treated with anticoagulation therapy (e.g., warfarin, apixaban) — this clinical background raises high suspicion for a rectus sheath or abdominal wall hematoma.
Key ultrasound features of hematomas:
Early (acute): hyperechoic or heterogeneous
Chronic/resolving: complex or cystic with fluid-debris levels
No internal vascularity on Doppler
May be confined to muscle or fascial planes
This is consistent with a hematoma, particularly in patients on anticoagulation therapy.
Comparison of answer choices:
A. Hernia — typically shows bowel or fat with movement/peristalsis passing through a fascial defect.
B. Lipoma — usually homogeneous and echogenic, not complex or fluid-filled.
C. Abscess — often presents as a complex fluid collection with peripheral hyperemia and possibly air, plus systemic signs of infection.
D. Hematoma — Correct. The image and clinical history (anticoagulation due to atrial fibrillation) strongly support this diagnosis.
Which technique may provide better visualization of the common bile duct in a patient with hepatic steatosis?
Options:
Decrease overall gain
Increase dynamic range
Scan patient after a fatty meal
Decrease transducer frequency
Answer:
DExplanation:
In hepatic steatosis (fatty liver), increased echogenicity can obscure visualization of deeper structures like the common bile duct. Lowering the transducer frequency increases sound wave penetration, allowing better visualization of deep structures despite increased liver echogenicity. Decreasing gain or increasing dynamic range primarily adjusts image brightness and contrast but does not improve penetration.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Lower frequency transducers are used to improve penetration and visualization of deeper structures in patients with fatty liver.”
Which condition is characterized by abnormal dilatation of veins of the pampiniform plexus and most commonly affects the left testicle?
Options:
Hydrocele
Varicocele
Hematocele
Spermatocele
Answer:
BExplanation:
A varicocele is an abnormal dilatation of the pampiniform plexus veins, usually seen on the left side due to the perpendicular insertion of the left testicular vein into the left renal vein, making it more susceptible to elevated venous pressure. Sonographically, varicoceles appear as multiple serpiginous anechoic tubular structures that show venous flow on color Doppler, often accentuated with Valsalva maneuver.
Hydrocele (A) is a fluid collection surrounding the testis.
Hematocele (C) is blood within the tunica vaginalis.
Spermatocele (D) is a cystic lesion arising from the epididymis.
Reference Extracts:
Dogra VS, Bhatt S. "Sonographic evaluation of testicular varicoceles." Journal of Ultrasound in Medicine. 2004;23(6): 829-838.
Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier, 2017.
—
What is the most common location of a pancreatic pseudocyst?
Options:
Lesser sac
Left anterior pararenal space
Right subdiaphragmatic space
Left pericolic gutter
Answer:
AExplanation:
Pancreatic pseudocysts most commonly develop in the lesser sac, which lies between the posterior wall of the stomach and the anterior surface of the pancreas. This space allows for the accumulation of pancreatic fluid collections following pancreatitis or pancreatic ductal disruption.
The left anterior pararenal space (B) is a secondary location.
The right subdiaphragmatic space (C) and left pericolic gutter (D) are less common sites.
Reference Extracts:
Mortele KJ, Wiesner W, et al."Pancreatic pseudocysts: imaging features and diagnostic difficulties." Radiographics. 2004;24(4):1005-1020.
Rumack CM, Wilson SR, Charboneau JW, Levine D. Diagnostic Ultrasound. 5th ed. Elsevier, 2017.
—
What is the adrenal disorder that produces excessive secretion of aldosterone?
Options:
Cushing disease
Addison disease
Conn syndrome
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome
Answer:
CExplanation:
Conn syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism) results from excessive aldosterone secretion, often due to an adrenal adenoma, leading to hypertension, hypokalemia, and metabolic alkalosis. Cushing disease involves cortisol, Addison disease involves adrenal insufficiency, and Waterhouse-Friderichsen is associated with adrenal hemorrhage.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Conn syndrome is due to excessive secretion of aldosterone, often secondary to adrenal cortical adenoma.”
Which adjustment would most likely improve visualization of a small superficial tubular structure such as a peripheral artery?
Options:
Decreasing frame rate
Decreasing transducer wavelength
Decreasing slice width
Decreasing power output
Answer:
CExplanation:
Reducing slice (section) width improves spatial resolution, particularly elevational resolution, which enhances visualization of small, superficial structures. Lower slice width reduces off-axis beam artifacts and blurring. Wavelength depends on transducer frequency, not adjustable directly during scanning.
According to Zwiebel’s Introduction to Vascular Ultrasound:
“Reduction in slice thickness improves imaging of small superficial structures by minimizing volume averaging and improving elevational resolution.”
A patient presents with ampulla of Vater obstruction, distention of the gallbladder, and painless jaundice. Which condition is most likely associated with these findings?
Options:
Porcelain gallbladder
Mirizzi syndrome
Courvoisier sign
Choledochal cyst
Answer:
CExplanation:
Courvoisier sign describes the clinical finding of painless jaundice combined with a palpable, distended gallbladder. This typically results from obstruction at the distal common bile duct, often due to pancreatic head carcinoma or cholangiocarcinoma, leading to bile accumulation and gallbladder distention. In contrast, Mirizzi syndrome involves compression of the common hepatic duct by an impacted stone in the cystic duct.
According to Rumack's Diagnostic Ultrasound and standard clinical references:
“Courvoisier sign refers to a palpable, enlarged gallbladder due to obstruction of the distal bile duct, often from malignancy.”
Which complication is of greatest concern with undescended testis?
Options:
Hydrocele
Seminoma
Torsion
Hernia
Answer:
BExplanation:
The most serious long-term complication of undescended testis (cryptorchidism) is an increased risk of testicular malignancy, especially seminoma. Although torsion and hernia may also occur, seminoma is the most concerning complication due to its life-threatening potential.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“Cryptorchidism is associated with a significantly increased risk of seminoma, the most common malignancy in undescended testes.”
Which clinical finding is most likely associated with the splenic pathology demonstrated in this image?
Options:
Trauma
Sickle cell anemia
Immunocompromised
Portal hypertension
Answer:
BExplanation:
The ultrasound image demonstrates a heterogeneous and echogenic spleen with evidence of atrophy and multiple areas of calcification—consistent with autosplenectomy. This appearance is classically associated with chronic sickle cell anemia.
In sickle cell disease, repeated vaso-occlusive episodes result in infarctions, fibrosis, and progressive calcification of the spleen. Over time, this leads to functional asplenia or complete autosplenectomy (involution and shrinkage of the spleen). The hallmark sonographic features include:
A small, echogenic spleen
Multiple coarse calcifications
Irregular contour or atrophic appearance
These findings are not typically seen in other conditions:
A. Trauma may cause subcapsular hematomas or lacerations, but not chronic atrophy with calcifications.
C. Immunocompromised patients may develop abscesses or infections but not the classic features of autosplenectomy.
D. Portal hypertension typically causes splenomegaly and varices, not atrophic and calcified spleens.
Which clinical indication is most consistent with the finding depicted in this image?
Options:
Trauma
Focal pain
Palpable abnormality
Decreased range of motion
Answer:
AExplanation:
The ultrasound image shows disruption of the normal fibrillar echotexture of a muscle or tendon, consistent with a soft tissue injury such as a muscle or tendon tear. There is likely hypoechoic fluid consistent with a hematoma or edema, which commonly results from blunt or direct trauma.
This image is typical of a traumatic injury (e.g., partial or complete tendon rupture or muscle strain/tear). These findings are frequently encountered in athletic injuries or blunt force trauma and correlate strongly with the clinical history of trauma.
Key sonographic features suggestive of trauma:
Discontinuity or heterogeneity of normal striated muscle or tendon pattern
Hypoechoic or anechoic area representing hematoma or fluid collection
Retraction of muscle or tendon ends (in full-thickness tears)
Surrounding soft tissue edema
Differentiation from other options:
B. Focal pain: While pain may be a symptom, trauma is the more definitive and primary clinical indication for the findings shown.
C. Palpable abnormality: May suggest a mass or cystic lesion (e.g., lipoma, abscess), not typically the appearance shown here.
D. Decreased range of motion: May be present secondarily, but not the most consistent or primary clinical indication in this case.
Which renal anomaly is demonstrated on this image?
Options:
Duplicated collecting system
Crossed renal ectopia
Horseshoe kidney
Pelvic kidney
Answer:
CExplanation:
The ultrasound image labeled “SAG RUQ KIDNEY” demonstrates a midline sagittal view showing a renal parenchymal structure that extends across the midline anterior to the aorta and vertebral bodies, suggesting the presence of a horseshoe kidney.
A horseshoe kidney is a congenital renal anomaly in which the lower poles of both kidneys are fused across the midline by a parenchymal or fibrous isthmus. This isthmus typically lies anterior to the aorta and inferior vena cava and can be seen as a hypoechoic band of tissue crossing the midline on ultrasound.
Ultrasound findings characteristic of a horseshoe kidney:
Abnormally low position of the kidneys in the abdomen
Renal tissue (isthmus) bridging the lower poles anterior to the great vessels
Renal axes may be more horizontal than usual
Kidneys may appear closer together or “kissing” the spine anteriorly
Differentiation from other options:
A. Duplicated collecting system: Manifests as two separate collecting systems within one kidney, often with a central renal sinus split into two — not typically midline bridging.
B. Crossed renal ectopia: Involves one kidney crossing midline and fusing with the other on the opposite side, but they do not form a midline isthmus.
D. Pelvic kidney: A single kidney located in the pelvis due to failed ascent — it does not appear as midline fusion of two kidneys.
Identify the region where Doppler sampling should be performed in a young woman with severe postprandial pain.
Options:
Answer:

Explanation:
A ultrasound image of a person's body
AI-generated content may be incorrect.
The origin of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA)
The image provided is a color Doppler ultrasound scan of the abdominal aorta and its major branches. In the center of the image, just anterior to the aorta, we see the superior mesenteric artery (SMA) arising in the sagittal plane. This is the critical area for Doppler sampling in a patient with symptoms suggestive of mesenteric ischemia.
Severe postprandial pain in a young woman may be a manifestation of median arcuate ligament syndrome (MALS) or chronic mesenteric ischemia. Both of these conditions are assessed via Doppler sampling of mesenteric vessels, specifically:
The origin and proximal segment of the SMA
The celiac artery (especially for MALS)
Doppler waveform analysis should assess:
Peak systolic velocity (PSV): >275 cm/s suggests ≥70% SMA stenosis
Angle correction should be aligned properly
Sampling must be performed at the narrowest origin point (as shown in the image)
This type of Doppler interrogation is typically done in both fasting and postprandial states to evaluate changes in flow and symptom correlation.
Why this area?
The SMA is anterior to the aorta and travels inferiorly into the mesentery.
The site shown in the image is ideal for measuring PSV and evaluating for stenosis or extrinsic compression.
What is the innermost layer of the gut wall?
Options:
Serosa
Submucosa
Muscularis externa
Mucosa
Answer:
DExplanation:
The mucosa is the innermost layer of the gastrointestinal wall, consisting of epithelium, lamina propria, and muscularis mucosae. It is responsible for absorption and secretion. The submucosa lies just outside the mucosa.
According to Moore’s Clinically Oriented Anatomy:
“The mucosa is the innermost layer of the gastrointestinal tract, responsible for nutrient absorption and secretion.”
Which structures converge to form the inferior vena cava?
Options:
Right, left, and middle hepatic veins
Right atrium and superior vena cava
Right and left common iliac veins
Superior mesenteric and splenic veins
Answer:
CExplanation:
The inferior vena cava (IVC) is formed by the confluence of the right and left common iliac veins at the level of approximately L5. The hepatic veins drain into the IVC superiorly but do not form it. The superior mesenteric and splenic veins join to form the portal vein, not the IVC.
According to Moore’s Clinically Oriented Anatomy:
“The IVC begins at the level of L5 by the union of the right and left common iliac veins.”
What is the location of the left lobe of the thyroid gland?
Options:
Anterior to the left jugular vein
Posterior to the longus colli muscle
Anterolateral to the esophagus
Anterior to the trachea
Answer:
CExplanation:
The left lobe of the thyroid is located anterolateral to the esophagus. On transverse ultrasound imaging, the esophagus can often be seen posterior to the left thyroid lobe as a circular structure with echogenic mucosa and hypoechoic muscular layer. The longus colli muscle lies posterior to the thyroid. The thyroid is anterior to the trachea but this refers more to the isthmus or midline portion.
According to Rumack’s Diagnostic Ultrasound:
“The esophagus is seen as a target-shaped structure posterior to the left thyroid lobe; thus, the thyroid lobe is anterolateral to the esophagus.”