Accredited Payables Specialist (APS) Certification Exam Questions and Answers
The COSO framework’s categories of internal controls include each of the following EXCEPT:
Options:
Control environment
Information and communication
Risk assessment
Accounting principles
Answer:
DExplanation:
TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers the COSO (Committee of Sponsoring Organizations) framework, a widely recognized model for designing and evaluating internal controls, as mandated by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX). The COSO framework includes five components: Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Information and Communication, and Monitoring Activities.Accounting principlesare not a COSO component, as they relate to GAAP (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles), not internal control categories.
Option A (Control environment): This is a COSO component, setting the tone for the organization’s control consciousness, including leadership and ethics.
Option B (Information and communication): This is a COSO component, ensuring relevant information is identified, captured, and communicated effectively.
Option C (Risk assessment): This is a COSO component, involving the identification and analysis of risks to achieving objectives.
Option D (Accounting principles): Accounting principles (e.g., GAAP) guide financial reporting but are not part of the COSO framework’s internal control categories. This is the correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “The COSO framework includes five components: Control Environment, Risk Assessment, Control Activities, Information and Communication, and Monitoring Activities, used to design and testinternal controls.” It distinguishes COSO from GAAP, noting that “accounting principles govern financial reporting, not internal control frameworks.” The training video reinforces this by discussing COSO’s role in SOX compliance, listing the five components and excluding accounting principles.
What does the acronym “FIFO” mean?
Options:
First In, First Out
Fifty Invested, Five Optioned
Fraud In Financial Operations
Final Invoice For Offset
Answer:
AExplanation:
In the context of accounts payable and financial operations, the acronymFIFOstands forFirst In, First Out, a method commonly used in inventory management and accounting to assume that the earliest goods purchased (first in) are sold or used first (first out). This affects cost of goods sold and inventory valuation. The other options are not relevant: “Fifty Invested, Five Optioned” (Option B), “Fraud In Financial Operations” (Option C), and “Final Invoice For Offset” (Option D) are not standard terms in AP or accounting.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “FIFO, or First In, First Out, is an inventory accounting method where the earliest goods received are recorded as sold first, impacting financial reporting.” This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including accounting principles like FIFO that affect financial processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with understanding FIFO as a standard method in inventory and cost accounting.
The general rule for determining independent contractor status looks at evidence in each of the following categories, EXCEPT:
Options:
The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results
The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances
The job title assigned to the worker
The type of relationship established between the parties
Answer:
CExplanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS guidelines for determining independent contractor status, critical for 1099 reporting and avoiding worker misclassification. The IRS uses three categories:Behavioral Control(degree of controlover work results),Financial Control(control over finances, e.g., payment terms, investment in tools), andType of Relationship(contract terms, permanency). Thejob titleassigned is not a factor, as status depends on actual work arrangements, not labels.
Option A (The degree of control the employer exercises over the worker’s work results): Part of Behavioral Control, assessing how much the employer directs the worker’s tasks. This is a valid category.
Option B (The amount of control the employer has over the worker’s finances): Part of Financial Control, evaluating payment methods, expense reimbursement, and worker investment. This is a valid category.
Option C (The job title assigned to the worker): Not a factor. The IRS focuses on the nature of the work relationship, not the title (e.g., “contractor” vs. “employee”). Correct answer.
Option D (The type of relationship established between the parties): Part of Type of Relationship, considering contracts, benefits, and permanency. This is a valid category.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “IRS independent contractor status is determined by Behavioral Control, Financial Control, and Type of Relationship, not by job titles, which are irrelevant to actual work arrangements.” The training video explains, “Job titles don’t determine contractor status; the IRS looks at control and relationship factors.”
Each of the following is one of the most common types of fraudulent expense reimbursement schemes, EXCEPT:
Options:
Personal expenses reported as business-related
Forged or modified travel receipts
Multiple reimbursements for the same expense
Lapping schemes for transportation cost
Answer:
DExplanation:
Fraudulent expense reimbursement schemes in T&E processes typically involve misrepresenting or manipulating expense reports to obtain unauthorized reimbursements. Common schemes include reporting personal expenses as business-related (Option A), forging or altering receipts (Option B), and submitting the same expense multiple times for reimbursement (Option C). Lapping schemes (Option D), which involve misappropriating funds and covering them with subsequent payments, are more associated with accounts receivable or cash management, not T&E expense reimbursements.
The web source from SAP Concur explains: “Common T&E fraud schemes include submitting personal expenses as business-related, altering or forging receipts, and requesting multiple reimbursements for the same expense.” Lapping schemes are not mentioned in the context of T&E fraud, as they pertain to different financial processes, such as diverting payments and covering them with later receipts, per the Corcentric source: “Lapping is a fraud scheme typically seen in accounts receivable, not expense reimbursements.”
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” including fraud prevention in expense reporting. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” includes identifying common T&E fraud schemes, supporting Options A, B, and C as prevalent, while excluding lapping schemes (Option D).
What is blockchain?
Options:
A distributed ledger system
A random password generator
An internal audit methodology
An accounts payable collaborative
Answer:
AExplanation:
Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger system that records transactions across multiple computers in a secure, transparent, and tamper-resistant manner. In accounts payable, blockchain can enhance processes like invoice verification and payment tracking by providing a trusted, immutable record. The other options are incorrect: a random password generator (Option B) is unrelated to blockchain, an internal audit methodology (Option C) refers to audit processes, and an accounts payable collaborative (Option D) is not a defined term.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “Blockchain is a distributed ledger technology that records transactions in a secure, decentralized manner, offering potential applications in accounts payable for secure payment processing and invoice tracking.” This directly supports Option A.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including emerging technologies like blockchain. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” includes understanding technologies that enhance AP efficiency and security, confirming blockchain as a distributed ledger system.
Ways to minimize the number of rush checks that are requested include:
Options:
I only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times)
I and II only (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee)
I, II, and III (Distribute the check run schedule with cut-off dates and times, Charge a rush check processing fee, Publish the names of frequent rush check requestors)
II only (Charge a rush check processing fee)
Answer:
BExplanation:
Rush checks, issued outside the regular check run schedule, increase processing costs and disrupt workflows. Effective strategies to minimize rush check requests include distributing the check run schedule with clear cut-off dates and times to encourage timely submissions (Option I) and charging a rush check processing fee to deter unnecessary requests (Option II). Publishing the names of frequent requestors (Option III) is not a professional or recommended practice, as it may create workplace tension without addressing the root cause.
The web source from SAP Concur notes: “To reduce rush checks, organizations can communicate payment schedules clearly and impose fees for expedited processing to incentivize adherence to regular check runs.” This supports Options I and II. Option III is not mentioned in industry best practices and is considered inappropriate.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including strategies to optimize payment processes. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with proactive measures like scheduling communication and fee structures to control rush checks.
What is a limitation typically associated with a blanket purchase order?
Options:
It is only issued for purchasing services, not for goods
It should not extend past a specified timeframe
It must be settled with a same-day wire transfer
It should only be created for a specific delivery date
Answer:
BExplanation:
A blanket purchase order (PO) is a long-term agreement with a supplier to purchase goods or services over a specified period, often used for recurring or high-volume purchases. A key limitation is that itshould not extend past a specified timeframe, as blanket POs are typically set for a defined duration (e.g., one year) to manage pricing, terms, and supplier commitments. Extending beyond this timeframe without renegotiation can lead to pricing discrepancies or supply chain issues.
The web source from NetSuite explains: “A blanket purchase order covers multiple deliveries over a set period, but it is limited by a specified timeframe to ensure pricing and terms remain valid.” This directly supports Option B. The other options are incorrect:
Option A: Blanket POs can be used for both goods and services, not just services.
Option C: Payment terms for blanket POs vary and are not restricted to same-day wire transfers.
Option D: Blanket POs are designed for multiple deliveries over time, not a specific delivery date.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Invoices,” including the use of purchase orders in invoice processing. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” supports the understanding of blanket POs and their time-bound nature.
Which of the following techniques is NOT recommended to help protect confidential data?
Options:
When leaving your work area even briefly, lock your computer down
Save reports to a portable USB drive and give that to the requestor instead of emailing them
When approached at your desk, turn off your monitor and turn papers face down
Shred unneeded paper documents or put them in a secure disposal container
Answer:
BExplanation:
Protecting confidential data in accounts payable requires secure practices to prevent unauthorized access. Locking your computer when leaving your work area (Option A), turning off your monitor and securing papers when approached (Option C), and shredding or securely disposing of unneeded documents (Option D) are recommended techniques to safeguard sensitive information. However, saving reports to a portable USB drive and giving it to a requestor (Option B) is not recommended, as USB drives are easily lost, stolen, or compromised, posing a significant security risk compared to secure email or file-sharing systems.
The web source from Esker states: “To protect confidential AP data, lock computers when unattended, secure physical documents, and use secure disposal methods. Avoid using portable devices like USB drives for data transfer due to security risks.” This directly supports Options A, C, and D, while identifying Option B as an insecure practice.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including data security practices. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with secure data handling, ruling out the use of USB drives for sensitive reports.
The well-publicized business scandals that occurred in the early 2000s, particularly in the U.S., resulted in legislation that protects which class of employees?
Options:
Executives
Whistleblowers
Auditors
Hourly employees
Answer:
BExplanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), enacted in response to corporate scandals like Enron and WorldCom in the early 2000s. A key provision of SOX is the protection ofwhistleblowers—employees who report fraudulent or illegal activities within their organization. Section 806 of SOX safeguards whistleblowers from retaliation, such as termination or discrimination, encouraging them to expose financial misconduct.
Option A (Executives): SOX holds executives accountable (e.g., through CEO/CFO certifications under Section 302), but it does not specifically protect them. This option is incorrect.
Option B (Whistleblowers): Correct. SOX’s whistleblower protections ensure employees who report fraud or violations are shielded from retaliation, addressing the chilling effect seen in scandals like Enron.
Option C (Auditors): While SOX strengthens auditor independence (e.g., via the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board), it does not classify auditors as a protected employee class. This option is incorrect.
Option D (Hourly employees): SOX protections apply to all employees who report misconduct, not specifically hourly employees. Whistleblowers, regardless of role, are the protected class. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, enacted after scandals like Enron, includes Section 806 to protect whistleblowers from retaliation when reporting financial misconduct.” The training video emphasizes SOX’s role in encouraging transparency, noting that “whistleblower protections ensure employees can safely report violations, strengthening internal controls.”
Payments by U.S. companies to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported to the IRS if they equal or exceed which of the following dollar amounts?
Options:
$600
$1,000
$500
$300
Answer:
AExplanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers IRS Form 1099 reporting requirements for payments to U.S. unincorporated service providers (e.g., independent contractors, freelancers). Payments for services totaling$600 or morein a calendar year must be reported on Form 1099-NEC (Nonemployee Compensation), ensuring the IRS can track income for tax purposes.
Option A ($600): Correct. The IRS requires Form 1099-NEC for payments of $600 or more to unincorporated U.S. service providers, such as individuals or partnerships, for services rendered.
Option B ($1,000): Incorrect. The $600 threshold applies, not $1,000.
Option C ($500): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $500.
Option D ($300): Incorrect. The threshold is $600, not $300.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Payments of $600 or more to U.S. unincorporated service providers must be reported on Form 1099-NEC, per IRS regulations.” TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliancespecifies, “The $600 threshold applies to nonemployee compensation paid to individuals, sole proprietors, or partnerships, requiring a 1099-NEC filing.” The training video reinforces this, noting, “AP ensures 1099-NEC forms are issued for payments of $600 or more to track contractor income.”
The Sarbanes-Oxley statute in the U.S. requires public companies to: I. Establish controls over accounts payable hiring; II. Use a recognized framework to design and test controls over financial reporting; III. Ensure that the company CFO is a CPA.
Options:
I and II only
II only
I, II, and III
I only
Answer:
BExplanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program includes detailed coverage of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX), which mandates internal controls for public companies to ensure accurate financial reporting. SOX requires companies to use a recognized framework, such as COSO (Committee of Sponsoring Organizations), to design and test controls over financial reporting (Item II). However, it does not mandate specific controls over AP hiring (Item I) orrequire the CFO to be a CPA (Item III).
Item I (Establish controls over accounts payable hiring): SOX focuses on financial reporting controls, not hiring processes for specific departments like AP. While internal controls may indirectly influence hiring (e.g., segregation of duties), there is no specific SOX requirement for AP hiring controls. This item is not required.
Item II (Use a recognized framework to design and test controls over financial reporting): SOX Section 404 mandates that public companies establish and test internal controls over financial reporting using a recognized framework, such as COSO. This is a core requirement.
Item III (Ensure that the company CFO is a CPA): SOX requires CFOs to certify financial reports (Section 302), but there is no mandate that they hold a CPA designation. This item is not required.
Option A (I and II only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a SOX requirement.
Option B (II only): Correct, as only Item II (using a recognized framework like COSO) is mandated by SOX.
Option C (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Items I and III are not SOX requirements.
Option D (I only): Incorrect, as Item I is not a SOX requirement, and Item II is required.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “SOX Section 404 requires public companies to use a recognized framework, such as COSO, to design and test internal controls over financial reporting.” It clarifies that “SOX does not mandate specific hiring controls for departments like AP or require CFOs to be CPAs, though it emphasizes executive accountability.” The training video discusses SOX’s focus on financial controls, citing COSO as the standard framework and noting no specific hiring or CPA requirements.
Which of the following is a part of a successful ERS (Evaluated Receipt Settlement) program?
Options:
Billing of miscellaneous charges separately
Receiving a complete invoice with the shipment
Exclusion of early pay discounts
Use of pro forma purchase orders
Answer:
CExplanation:
Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a payment process where invoices are not required from the vendor. Instead, payment is triggered based on the purchase order (PO) and receiving documents, streamlining the accounts payable process by eliminating invoice processing. A successful ERS program relies on accurate POs and receiving data, standardized pricing, and clear terms with vendors. The exclusion of early pay discounts is a key feature, as ERS payments are typically made on a fixed schedule based on receipt of goods, not invoice terms that include discount incentives.
The web source from Esker explains: “Evaluated Receipt Settlement (ERS) is a procedure for paying suppliers without requiring a paper invoice from the supplier… Payments are triggered by the receipt of goods or services against a purchase order. ERS eliminates the need for supplier invoices, reducing errors and costs.” The source from Corcentric adds: “ERS is designed to streamline payments by using PO and receipt data, typically without early payment discounts, as payments are made on a predictable schedule.” Early pay discounts are excluded because ERS prioritizes automation and predictability over negotiating variable payment terms.
The other options are incorrect:
Billing of miscellaneous charges separately(Option A) complicates ERS, as it requires additional reconciliation outside the PO and receipt data.
Receiving a complete invoice with the shipment(Option B) contradicts the ERS model, which eliminates the need for invoices.
Use of pro forma purchase orders(Option D) is not standard, as ERS relies on firm POs, not provisional ones like pro forma POs.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including advanced payment methods like ERS. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that ERS programs exclude early pay discounts to ensure streamlined, predictable payments.
Which U.S. government organization publishes “per diem” travel guidelines?
Options:
Federal Reserve Board
Department of Treasury
Department of Commerce
General Services Administration
Answer:
DExplanation:
TheGeneral Services Administration (GSA)is the U.S. government organization responsible for publishing per diem travel guidelines, which establish standard rates for lodging, meals, and incidental expenses for federal employees traveling on official business. These rates are widely used by organizations to set T&E policies for allowable travel expenses.
The web source from the GSA states: “The General Services Administration (GSA) establishes per diem rates for federal travel, providing guidelines for lodging, meals, and incidental expenses.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are incorrect:
Federal Reserve Board (A)regulates monetary policy, not travel guidelines.
Department of Treasury (B)oversees tax and financial policy, not per diem rates.
Department of Commerce (C)focuses on economic and trade issues.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Travel and Entertainment (T&E),” including the use of per diem rates for expense management. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with referencing GSA per diem guidelines for T&E compliance.
Which AP function is typically NOT considered a good candidate for business process outsourcing (BPO)?
Options:
Performance monitoring
Check printing
Utility payments
Invoice imaging
Answer:
AExplanation:
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the APS Certification Program covers the use of technology to streamline AP processes and the potential for outsourcing certain functions to business process outsourcing (BPO) providers. BPO is commonly used for repetitive, transaction-based tasks such as check printing, utility payments, and invoice imaging, which benefit from automation and economies of scale. However,performance monitoring—which involves analyzing AP metrics, ensuring compliance, and optimizing processes—is typically retained in-house, as it requires strategic oversight and organizational knowledge.
Option A (Performance monitoring): Performance monitoring involves tracking key performance indicators (KPIs) like invoice processing time, error rates, and compliance with internal controls. This function requires deep understanding of the organization’s goals and policies, making it less suitable for outsourcing. This is the correct answer.
Option B (Check printing): Check printing is a routine, mechanical task that can be efficiently outsourced to BPO providers with secure printing and mailing capabilities. It is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option C (Utility payments): Utility payments are standardized, recurring transactions thatcan be automated and outsourced to BPO providers, often integrated with electronic payment systems. This is a good BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Option D (Invoice imaging): Invoice imaging (scanning and digitizing invoices) is a repetitive task that leverages automation and is frequently outsourced to BPO providers with imaging technology. This is a common BPO candidate, so it is not the exception.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses BPO as a strategy for “outsourcing transactional AP tasks like invoice imaging, check printing, and payment processing to improve efficiency.” It notes that strategic functions, such as “performance monitoring and analytics,” are typically retained in-house to maintain control over compliance and process optimization. The IOFM training video emphasizes that BPO is ideal for high-volume, low-complexity tasks, while performance monitoring requires internal expertise to align with organizational objectives.
Which of the following is necessary to prepare a 1099?
Options:
A PTIN for all reportable vendors
A W-4 for all reportable vendors
A TIN for all reportable vendors
A W-2 for all reportable vendors
Answer:
CExplanation:
The preparation of IRS Form 1099 (e.g., 1099-MISC, 1099-NEC) is a critical component of theTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program. Form 1099 is used to report payments made to non-employees, such as independent contractors, vendors, or other entities, for services rendered, typically when payments exceed $600 in a calendar year. To prepare a 1099, the payer (e.g., the organization’s AP department) must obtain the payee’sTaxpayer Identification Number (TIN), which can be either an Employer Identification Number (EIN) for businesses or a Social Security Number (SSN) for individuals. The TIN is collected via IRS Form W-9, which vendors must provide to the payer.
Option A (PTIN): A Preparer Tax Identification Number (PTIN) is used by tax preparers who file tax returns on behalf of others. It is not required for vendors or payees when preparing a 1099. This option is incorrect.
Option B (W-4): Form W-4 is used by employees to indicate withholding preferences for federal income tax from their wages. Since 1099 forms are for non-employees (e.g., contractors), a W-4 is irrelevant. This option is incorrect.
Option C (TIN): The TIN is mandatory for 1099 reporting. The IRS requires the payee’s TIN to be included on the 1099 form to track payments and ensure tax compliance. If a vendor fails to provide a TIN, the payer may be required to implement backup withholding (e.g., 24% as of 2025). This is the correct answer.
Option D (W-2): Form W-2 is used to report wages paid to employees, not payments to vendors or contractors. Since 1099 forms are for non-employee compensation, a W-2 is not applicable. This option is incorrect.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The IOFM APS e-textbook and training video under theTax and Regulatory Compliancesection emphasize the importance of collecting a valid TIN via Form W-9 for 1099 reporting. TheMaster Guide to Form 1099 Compliance, a recommended IOFM resource, details the IRS requirements for TIN collection and backup withholding. Specifically, it states that “a valid TIN is required for all reportable payments to avoid IRS penalties and ensure accurate 1099 filing.” Additionally, the APS curriculum covers IRS regulations, including the need to process “B Notices” when TINs are missing or incorrect, reinforcing the centrality of the TIN in 1099 preparation.
What does the acronym ‘ASP’ stand for?
Options:
Automated secure processing
Application service provider
Accounting standards protocol
Accrual statement period
Answer:
BExplanation:
In the context of technology and accounts payable, the acronymASPstands forApplication Service Provider, which refers to a third-party provider that delivers software applications over the internet, typically on a subscription basis. This is distinct from automated secure processing (Option A), accounting standards protocol (Option C), or accrual statement period (Option D), which are not standard terms in this context.
The web source from NetSuite states: “An Application Service Provider (ASP) delivers software applications over the internet, allowing businesses to access tools like AP automation without on-premises infrastructure.” This directly supports Option B.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including cloud-based and hosted software solutions like those provided by ASPs. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with understanding ASPs as a delivery model for AP tools.
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) has not gained more widespread use, particularly by small and medium-size companies, in part because of:
Options:
Government regulations
Staff resistance
Costly technology
Security concerns
Answer:
CExplanation:
Electronic Data Interchange (EDI) enables the automated exchange of business documents, such as invoices and purchase orders, between trading partners. While EDI offers efficiency, its adoption by small and medium-sized companies is limited primarily due tocostly technology, including high implementation and maintenance costs for hardware, software, and integration. Government regulations (Option A), staff resistance (Option B), and security concerns (Option D) may pose challenges, but the primary barrier is cost.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “EDI adoption is hindered for small and medium-sized businesses due to the high costs of implementing and maintaining EDI systems, including software and integration expenses.” This directly supports Option C as the primary reason for limited EDI use.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including technologies like EDI. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” acknowledges barriers to technology adoption, with cost being a significant factor for smaller organizations.
For a VAT invoice that contains what you believe to be a billing error, what is the only recommended solution?
Options:
Do not pay the invoice and report the transaction to the VAT administration
Pay the incorrect amount and then send a formal written request for an adjustment
Do not pay the invoice and return it to the vendor for correction
Short pay or overpay as necessary and include an explanation of why you did so
Answer:
CExplanation:
Value Added Tax (VAT) invoices are subject to strict regulatory requirements, as they impact taxreporting and compliance. When a VAT invoice contains a billing error (e.g., incorrect amount, tax rate, or details), the recommended solution is to withhold payment and return the invoice to the vendor for correction. This ensures that the corrected invoice complies with VAT regulations, allowing accurate tax reporting and reclaiming of input VAT. Paying an incorrect invoice or reporting the error to the VAT administration without correction risks non-compliance and audit issues.
The web source from Avalara explains: “If a VAT invoice is incorrect, it must be corrected by the supplier issuing a new invoice or a credit note, depending on the nature of the error.” This aligns with the option to return the invoice to the vendor for correction. Paying the incorrect amount (Option B) or short/overpaying with an explanation (Option D) can complicate VAT reconciliation and may not be accepted by tax authorities, as the invoice must accurately reflect the transaction. Reporting the transaction to the VAT administration (Option A) is unnecessary unless the error involves fraud or persistent issues, and it does not resolve the invoice discrepancy.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including VAT compliance and invoice handling. While the specific question is not directly quoted in the provided sources, IOFM’s curriculum emphasizes compliance with tax regulations, as noted in the program description: “Review peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process – from receipt of invoice, through processing and payment.” The focus on accurate invoice processing supports returning the invoice for correction as the standard practice.
Which of the following AP department procedures would reduce the number of vendor calls to the AP department?
Options:
I and II only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors)
II and III only (Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I and III only (Provide access to a supplier portal, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
I, II, and III (Provide access to a supplier portal, Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors, Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice)
Answer:
CExplanation:
Vendor calls to the accounts payable (AP) department often stem from inquiries about invoice status, payment timing, or discrepancies. Providing access to a supplier portal (Option I) allows vendors to check invoice and payment status online, reducing the need for direct contact. Including as much information as possible on the remittance advice (Option III) clarifies payment details, addressing common vendor questions. Assigning specific individuals to interact with specific vendors (Option II) may streamline internal processes but does not directly reduce vendor calls, as it does not provide vendors with self-service tools or additional information.
The web source from Esker states: “Supplier portals reduce vendor inquiries by allowing vendors to track invoice and payment status in real-time… Detailed remittance advice with comprehensive payment information minimizes follow-up calls from vendors.” This supports Options I and III. Option II is not mentioned as a direct method for reducing vendor calls, as it primarily affects internal AP workflows.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Internal Controls,” including strategies to improve AP efficiency and vendor relations. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with using supplier portals and detailed remittance advice to minimize vendor inquiries.
Which of the following has significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices to be processed?
Options:
Petty cash
Evaluated receipt settlement
Electronic data interchange
Payment cards
Answer:
DExplanation:
Payment cards, such as procurement cards (P-cards) or corporate credit cards, have significantly reduced the number of small dollar invoices processed by accounts payable departments. Byconsolidating small, recurring, or low-value purchases onto a single card statement, organizations can avoid processing individual invoices for each transaction, streamlining AP workflows and reducing administrative costs.
The web source from Corcentric states: “Payment cards, like P-cards, significantly reduce the number of small dollar invoices by consolidating multiple purchases into a single statement, minimizing AP processing efforts.” This directly supports Option D. The other options are less relevant:
Petty cash (A)is used for small cash transactions but does not reduce invoice volume, as it typically bypasses invoicing.
Evaluated receipt settlement (B)eliminates invoices for specific purchases but is not primarily focused on small dollar transactions.
Electronic data interchange (C)automates invoice data exchange but does not inherently reduce the number of invoices.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including the role of payment cards in optimizing AP processes. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the use of payment cards to reduce small dollar invoice processing.
Sales and use taxes are levied by which of the following? I. Cities and towns; II. Federal government; III. States.
Options:
II and III only
III only
I and III only
I, II, and III
Answer:
CExplanation:
TheTax and Regulatory Compliancetopic in the APS Certification Program covers sales and use taxes, which are imposed on the sale or use of goods and services. In the U.S., sales and use taxes are levied bystatesand, in many cases,cities and towns(local jurisdictions). Thefederal governmentdoes not impose sales or use taxes, as this authority is reserved for state and local governments.
Item I (Cities and towns): Many cities and towns impose local sales taxes, often in addition to state taxes, to fund municipal services. This is a valid taxing authority.
Item II (Federal government): The federal government does not levy sales or use taxes; it imposes taxes like income or excise taxes. This is not a valid taxing authority for sales and use taxes.
Item III (States): States are the primary authorities for sales and use taxes, setting rates and rules for taxable transactions. This is a valid taxing authority.
Option A (II and III only): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Option B (III only): Incorrect, as Item I is also a valid taxing authority.
Option C (I and III only): Correct, as only states and local jurisdictions (cities and towns) levy sales and use taxes.
Option D (I, II, and III): Incorrect, as Item II is not a valid taxing authority.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTax and Regulatory Compliancestates, “Sales and use taxes are levied by states and local jurisdictions, such as cities and towns, but not by the federal government.” The training video discusses AP’s role in managing sales tax compliance, noting that “states and local governments set sales tax rates, while the federal government does not impose such taxes.”
All of the following are examples of key performance indicators (KPIs) EXCEPT:
Options:
Invoices paid on time
Positive pay
Cost per invoice
Lost discounts
Answer:
BExplanation:
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding key performance indicators (KPIs) to measure AP department performance. KPIs are metrics that track efficiency, accuracy, and cost-effectiveness, such as invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost discounts.Positive pay, however, is a fraud prevention tool, not a performance metric.
Option A (Invoices paid on time): This is a KPI, measuring the percentage of invoices paid by their due date, reflecting AP efficiency and vendor relationship management.
Option B (Positive pay): Positive pay is a banking service that matches issued checks against presented checks to prevent fraud. It is a control mechanism, not a KPI, as it does not measure performance. This is the correct answer.
Option C (Cost per invoice): This is a KPI, calculating the average cost to process an invoice, used to assess operational efficiency.
Option D (Lost discounts): This is a KPI, tracking missed early payment discounts, which indicates opportunities for cost savings.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlslists common AP KPIs, including “percentage of invoices paid on time, cost per invoice, and lost early payment discounts,” as metrics to evaluate performance. It describes positive pay as “a fraud prevention tool under internal controls, not a performance indicator.” The training video reinforces this by discussing KPIs for benchmarking and positive pay as a separate control mechanism.
The acronym GAAP stands for which of the following?
Options:
Government Accounting Acceptance Principles
Government Accounting Actuarial Program
General Accounting Administration Program
Generally Accepted Accounting Principles
Answer:
DExplanation:
TheInternal Controlstopic in the APS Certification Program includes understanding foundational accounting standards, such asGenerally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP), which govern financial reporting in the U.S. GAAP provides a standardized framework for recording and reporting financial transactions, ensuring consistency and transparency, which is critical for AP processes like invoice recording and financial statement preparation.
Option A (Government Accounting Acceptance Principles): Incorrect, as GAAP is not specific to government accounting and is not termed “acceptance principles.”
Option B (Government Accounting Actuarial Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is unrelated to actuarial programs or government-specific accounting.
Option C (General Accounting Administration Program): Incorrect, as GAAP is a set of principles, not an administrative program.
Option D (Generally Accepted Accounting Principles): Correct. GAAP is the standard framework for financial accounting, widely used by AP professionals to ensure accurate and compliant financial reporting.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlsstates, “Generally Accepted Accounting Principles (GAAP) provide the rules and standards for financial reporting, ensuring that AP transactions are recorded consistently and transparently.” The training video mentions GAAP in the context of internal controls, noting its role in maintaining financial statement accuracy and compliance with regulations like the Sarbanes-Oxley Act.
All of the following are areas in which accounts payable has a significant influence EXCEPT:
Options:
Inventory turnover
Vendor relationships
Cash management
Financial statements
Answer:
AExplanation:
TheInternal Controlstopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program emphasizes the role of accounts payable (AP) in managing financial processes, ensuring compliance, and supporting organizational objectives. AP has a significant influence on several key areas, including vendor relationships (through timely payments and communication), cash management (by optimizing payment timing and methods), and financial statements (by ensuring accurate recording of liabilities and expenses). However, AP typically has minimal direct influence oninventory turnover, which is more closely tied to supply chain and inventory management functions.
Option A (Inventory turnover): Inventory turnover measures how quickly a company sells and replaces its inventory. While AP processes payments for inventory purchases, it does not directly control inventory levels, purchasing decisions, or sales velocity, which are managed by procurement and sales teams. This is the correct answer, as it is the exception.
Option B (Vendor relationships): AP directly influences vendor relationships by ensuring timely and accurate payments, resolving disputes, and maintaining vendor master file data. This is a core AP responsibility, so it is not the exception.
Option C (Cash management): AP plays a critical role in cash management by scheduling payments to optimize cash flow, using electronic payments, and implementing positive pay to prevent fraud. This is a key AP function, so it is not the exception.
Option D (Financial statements): AP impacts financial statements by recording invoices (affecting liabilities and expenses) and payments (affecting cash and liabilities). Accurate AP processes ensure reliable financial reporting, so this is not the exception.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInternal Controlshighlights AP’s role in “supporting financial integrity through accurate transaction recording and cash flow management.” It notes that AP professionals manage vendor payments and cash outflows, directly affecting vendor relationships, cash management, and financial statement accuracy. However, inventory turnover is described as a supply chain metric, outside AP’s primary scope. The IOFM training video reinforces this by focusing on AP’s responsibilities in payment processing and financial reporting, with no mention of inventory turnover as a direct AP function.
Common elements required in a VAT-acceptable invoice include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Options:
The customer’s VAT identification number
The date of invoice issue
The VAT rate applied
The supplier’s banking information
Answer:
DExplanation:
TheInvoicestopic in the APS Certification Program covers value-added tax (VAT) requirements for invoices, particularly for organizations operating in jurisdictions with VAT systems (e.g., EU countries). A VAT-acceptable invoice must include specific elements to comply with tax regulations, such as the customer’s VAT identification number, the date of issue, and the VAT rate applied. Thesupplier’s banking information, while useful for payment, is not a mandatory requirement for VAT compliance.
Option A (The customer’s VAT identification number): Required for cross-border transactions or business-to-business sales to verify VAT status and enable zero-rating or reverse charge. This is a mandatory element.
Option B (The date of invoice issue): Required to establish the tax point and ensure proper tax period reporting. This is a mandatory element.
Option C (The VAT rate applied): Required to specify the tax rate (e.g., standard, reduced) and calculate the VAT amount. This is a mandatory element.
Option D (The supplier’s banking information): Not required for VAT compliance. While banking details may be included for payment purposes, they are not part of VAT invoice requirements. Correct answer.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underInvoicesstates, “A VAT-acceptable invoice must include the customer’s VAT ID, date of issue, VAT rate, and other tax-related details, but supplier banking information is not required for compliance.” The training video discusses VAT invoicing for international transactions, listing mandatory elements and noting that “banking details are optional, as they relate to payment, not tax reporting.”
Which of the following federal laws was passed in the U.S. after September 11, 2001, to expedite check clearing by allowing check truncation at any point in the check clearing process?
Options:
Check 21
The Patriot Act
Gramm-Leach-Bliley
Sarbanes-Oxley
Answer:
AExplanation:
The Check Clearing for the 21st Century Act (Check 21), passed in 2003, enables banks to process checks electronically by allowing check truncation, where a physical check can be converted into a digital image (substitute check) at any point in the clearing process. This expedites check clearing and reduces costs associated with physical check handling. The law was enacted after September 11, 2001, partly in response to disruptions in check processing caused by grounded air transport post-9/11.
The web source from Tipalti states: “Check 21, passed in 2003, allows check truncation by converting checks into electronic images, speeding up the clearing process.” The other options areincorrect:
The Patriot Act (B)focuses on anti-terrorism and money laundering.
Gramm-Leach-Bliley (C)addresses financial privacy and was passed in 1999.
Sarbanes-Oxley (D)deals with corporate governance and financial reporting, passed in 2002.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Tax and Regulatory Compliance,” including regulations affecting payment processes. The curriculum’s emphasis on “peer-tested best practices” includes understanding laws like Check 21 that impact check processing.
Procurement card (P-card) issuers offer rebates according to:
Options:
Volume of spend
Number of individual transactions
Frequency of use
Quantity of cards issued
Answer:
AExplanation:
Procurement cards (P-cards) are corporate credit cards used for business purchases, and issuers often offer rebates or incentives to encourage their use. These rebates are typically based on the volume of spend, meaning the total dollar amount charged to the P-card over a specified period. This incentivizes organizations to consolidate more purchases on the card, benefiting both the issuer (through transaction fees) and the organization (through rebates).
The web source from Corcentric states: “P-card issuers commonly offer rebates based on the total volume of spend, encouraging organizations to increase card usage for eligible purchases.” This confirms that rebates are tied to the dollar amount spent (Option A), not the number of transactions (Option B), frequency of use (Option C), or number of cards issued (Option D).
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Payments,” including P-card programs and their benefits. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices for each phase of the payment process” aligns with the industry standard that rebates are based on spend volume, as this drives cost savings and program efficiency.
To establish a successful shared services center, each of the following is required EXCEPT:
Options:
Performance metrics
A customer service orientation
A greenfield site
A change in mindset
Answer:
CExplanation:
TheTechnology and Automationtopic in the IOFM APS Certification Program covers strategies for optimizing AP processes, including the establishment of shared services centers (SSCs). SSCs consolidate back-office functions like AP to improve efficiency and reduce costs. Key requirements for a successful SSC include performance metrics to measure success, a customer serviceorientation to support internal and external stakeholders, and a change in mindset to embrace centralized processes. However, agreenfield site(a new, undeveloped location) is not a requirement, as SSCs can be established in existing facilities or virtual environments.
Option A (Performance metrics): Performance metrics (e.g., cost per invoice, processing time) are essential to evaluate the SSC’s efficiency and ensure alignment with organizational goals. This is a requirement.
Option B (A customer service orientation): SSCs must prioritize service to internal clients (e.g., departments) and external stakeholders (e.g., vendors), ensuring smooth communication and issue resolution. This is a requirement.
Option C (A greenfield site): A greenfield site refers to a new facility built from scratch. SSCs can operate in existing offices, leased spaces, or even digitally, making a greenfield site unnecessary. This is the correct answer, as it is not required.
Option D (A change in mindset): Transitioning to an SSC requires employees and management to adopt a centralized, process-driven approach, moving away from decentralized silos. This cultural shift is a requirement.
Reference to IOFM APS Documents: The APS e-textbook underTechnology and Automationdiscusses SSCs as a way to “streamline AP through centralized processes, requiring performance metrics, a service-oriented approach, and a cultural shift to succeed.” It notes that SSCs can be established in various locations, with no mention of a greenfield site as a necessity. The training video highlights case studies of SSCs, emphasizing metrics and mindset changes but not physical site requirements.
What is a good strategy for dealing with the change that typically accompanies automation?
Options:
Request that you be reassigned to a role that is unaffected by automation
If you feel the change won’t be for the best, try to convince management to delay
Don’t worry about it until you must actually implement the changes
Understand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system
Answer:
DExplanation:
Automation in accounts payable often introduces significant changes, such as new systems or workflows. A good strategy is tounderstand and accept that it will take time to learn a new system(Option D), which involves embracing training, adapting to new processes, and recognizing the learning curve. This proactive approach supports successful implementation and long-term efficiency. Requesting reassignment (Option A), delaying implementation (Option B), or ignoring the change (Option C) are not constructive strategies, as they resist adaptation and hinder organizational progress.
The web source from SAP Concur states: “To manage change from AP automation, employees should embrace the learning process, understanding that mastering new systems takes time and training.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including strategies for managing change during automation. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” emphasizes proactive adaptation to new technologies.
What is another term for “software-as-a-service”?
Options:
Perpetual software license
Onsite vendor support
Consultant-specific applications
On-demand software
Answer:
DExplanation:
Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)is a cloud-based software delivery model where applications are hosted by a provider and accessed over the internet, typically on a subscription basis. Another term for SaaS ison-demand software, as it allows users to access software as needed without on-premises installation. A perpetual software license (Option A) refers to a one-time purchase model, onsite vendor support (Option B) is a service, and consultant-specific applications (Option C) is not a standard term.
The web source from Tipalti states: “Software-as-a-Service (SaaS), also known as on-demand software, provides cloud-based access to applications, enabling flexible and scalable AP solutions.” This directly supports Option D.
The IOFM APS Certification Program covers “Technology and Automation,” including cloud-based solutions like SaaS. The curriculum’s focus on “peer-tested best practices” aligns with recognizing SaaS as on-demand software for AP automation.