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ACAMS CAMS Dumps

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Total 395 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.

Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the jurisdiction risks and other relevant factors have been taken into consideration in the EWRA and the residual risks are within the corporation's risk appetite

B.

Partnering with established local businesses to leverage their knowledge and connections while sharing risks

C.

Ensuring the company has strong ties with local government officials to influence policy and avoid negative scrutiny

D.

Committing to open communication, ethical practices, and community engagement to build trust with stakeholders

E.

Minimizing the company's direct presence in the country to reduce exposure to potential risks

Question 2

The US Department of the Treasury notes that which of the following represent high money laundering risk when de-risked from traditional financial institutions (FIs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Money services business (MSB)

B.

Multinational corporations

C.

Individual foreign customers

D.

Non-profit organizations with international operations

Question 3

A compliance officer at a financial institution has completed an investigation into a high-risk customer's activities and determined that there are strong indications of money laundering. The compliance officer has documented their findings and is ready to recommend offboarding the customer. However, the relationship manager responsible for the customer is resistant to the idea, citing the customer’s significant revenue contribution to the institution.

What should the compliance officer do next to ensure the appropriate escalation and decision-making process is followed?

Options:

A.

Escalate the matter to the institution's high-risk client committee, presenting the investigation findings and recommending offboarding while also acknowledging the relationship manager's concerns

B.

Proceed with offboarding the customer unilaterally based on their investigation findings and anti-money laundering (AML) concerns

C.

Attempt to persuade the relationship manager to agree with the offboarding recommendation by highlighting the potential reputational and regulatory risks associated with maintaining the relationship

D.

Delay the offboarding decision and continue monitoring the customer's activities, waiting for further evidence to solidify the case for termination

Question 4

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 5

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

Question 6

In the context of terrorist financing, which of the following are potential indicators of the abuse of non-profit organizations (NPOs)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Involvement in community development and humanitarian aid projects

B.

Large and unaccounted cash donations from anonymous sources

C.

Operating in high-risk jurisdictions with limited oversight

D.

Frequent changes in leadership and mission statements

E.

Extensive transparency in financial reporting and governance practices

Question 7

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

Question 8

It is important to validate the “conceptual soundness” of an AML model in order to:

Options:

A.

Verify alignment with regulatory guidance and industry best practices

B.

Assess whether the model’s methodology and assumptions are logical and appropriate for detecting money laundering

C.

Validate the statistical significance of the model’s predictive capabilities

D.

Demonstrate compatibility with current technological infrastructure

Question 9

A risk-based approach (RBA) to anti-financial crimes (AFC) involves understanding and managing risks by:

Options:

A.

applying uniform controls to all customers, regardless of their risk profile

B.

allocating resources and implementing controls based on the level of identified risks

C.

prioritizing regulatory compliance over customer experience and operational efficiency

D.

relying on automated systems to detect and mitigate AFC risks

Question 10

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

Question 11

While there are legitimate reasons for trust and company service providers (TCSPs) to appoint a nominee shareholder, which feature of a nominee shareholder presents the greatest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

Supporting company liquidity and ease of exit strategies

B.

Providing anonymity for the beneficial owner by keeping their identity hidden from the public register

C.

Simplifying administrative tasks associated with shareholding

D.

Helping non-residents comply with local ownership laws

Question 12

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

Question 13

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

Question 14

What should a financial institution (FI) do in response to a formal law enforcement request to produce documents?

Options:

A.

Keep senior management informed at all times to strategically organize a defense to terminate the law enforcement request

B.

Verify the officer's identification and ask for the law enforcement request to be served when the Chief Executive Officer is available to sign for it

C.

Ask for an extension to review the FI's privacy policy and confidentiality policy before providing any information under the law enforcement request

D.

Designate a person responsible for the internal investigation in preparation of documents for the request

Question 15

A compliance officer at a financial institution (FI) is reviewing a new client application for a virtual asset service provider (VASP).

Which details should be part of the risk assessment to determine whether the customer falls within the FI’s financial crimes risk appetite? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Whether the VASP’s procedures are sufficient for protecting client personally identifiable information

B.

What percentage of the VASP’s clients are classified as higher-risk

C.

Which registered institutions act on behalf of the VASP as operators of virtual asset wallets and virtual asset exchange offices

D.

Whether the VASP is utilizing central bank digital currencies

E.

Who the VASP’s clients are, including the breakdown of foreign and domestic individuals

Question 16

During a routine periodic KYC refresh of a policyholder and client of an insurance company, updated business registry documentation has highlighted that the policyholder's business has changed addresses five times during the last year and that the ultimate beneficial owner (UBO) changed two weeks ago.

What actions should be taken immediately?

Options:

A.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime decline payment and withdrawal instructions from the policy until completion of the investigation and next steps are agreed upon

B.

Request the relationship manager set up a meeting with the policyholder to update their address and submit details of the new UBO in the name of good customer service

C.

Investigate the changes of address and change of UBO and in the meantime freeze the client's policy

D.

File a suspicious transaction report because the insurance company was not made aware of the business' change of UBO

Question 17

Assessing the money laundering risk related to a product within the financial sector includes assessing the: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

governance arrangements

B.

complexity of the products

C.

results of the last audit

D.

financial status of the business

Question 18

What are the common financial crime risks posed to the e-commerce business model? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Buying goods or services using stolen bank card data

B.

Committing fraud against the customer by failing to deliver goods or services

C.

Abusing online marketplaces to move criminally obtained funds

D.

Evading export control regulations

E.

Committing bribery and corruption

Question 19

Which role within private banking has the best placement to identify and report money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Investment advisor

B.

Relationship manager

C.

Operations manager

D.

Compliance officer

Question 20

Non-compliance with relevant anti-money laundering laws and regulations can result in: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

increased reputation risk.

B.

inclusion on the UN Consolidated List.

C.

civil and criminal penalties

D.

delisting of public filing status.

Question 21

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

Question 22

A robust transaction monitoring system includes the capability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor transactions and identify anomalies that might indicate suspicious activity

B.

Automatically translate documents

C.

Integrate social media profiles

D.

File Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs), Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs), and other regulatory reports

Question 23

An EU Trust and Company Service Provider analyst notices some unusual activity while looking through a customer's financial statements and detailed general ledger. The customer is in the business of importing and exporting machineries.

Which transaction indicator warrants further escalation to the compliance officer?

Options:

A.

The payment of company secretarial retainer fees to a foreign company in a tax-efficient jurisdiction

B.

The payment of virtual offices services overseas

C.

Inter-company loans from the holding company to the subsidiary company to finance the shipment of machinery

D.

The payment of consultancy fees to unrelated companies and service providers established in a foreign jurisdiction

Question 24

When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions coy on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

Question 25

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

Options:

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

Question 26

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

Question 27

Common risks and red flags associated with trade finance clients may include: (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

account activity that is not consistent with the purpose of the account

B.

bills of lading matching the description of goods, quantities, and values with transshipment details justified

C.

transaction structures that appear unnecessarily complex

D.

trade documents, such as invoices and letters of credit, that are not clearly worded or are in foreign languages

E.

invoices with prices that are much higher than market price

F.

fluctuations in the pricing of standard goods and services

Question 28

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

Question 29

Tax evasion is:

Options:

A.

The practice of minimizing tax liability by exploiting loopholes or unintended interpretations of tax law

B.

A provision that reduces taxable income as an itemized or standard deduction

C.

A specialized accounting discipline focused on lawful tax planning

D.

The non-payment or under-payment of taxes, usually by deliberately making a false declaration or no declaration to tax authorities

Question 30

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

Question 31

A bank is preparing for a regulatory exam after a previous regulatory exam identified weaknesses in the bank's AML program. Since the last exam, the bank has improved the written AML program, hired an experienced AML compliance officer, and has taken actions to demonstrate a strong culture of compliance. The bank is now focused on getting through their transaction monitoring case backlog and completing enhancements to its sanctions screening program.

Which of the following are correct? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The bank is likely to face secondary sanctions from global financial institutions despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

B.

The bank may face civil or criminal penalties if it is unable to demonstrate sustained improvement in addressing the previous concerns.

C.

The bank may face the risk of regulatory orders to remediate its AML program despite addressing many of the previous concerns.

D.

The bank is protected from reputational risk arising from any regulatory action because regulatory orders must remain confidential.

E.

The regulatory agency may require the bank's board of directors to publicly share the actions taken to address the previous concerns in order to limit its reputational risk.

Question 32

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

Question 33

Criminals may misuse financial statements prepared by accountants to hide illicit assets.

Which of the following scenarios poses the greatest risk of financial statement manipulation by criminals?

Options:

A.

A lack of professional body oversight or required use of accounting and auditing standards in the country of incorporation of the entity

B.

Criminals posing as individuals seeking financial advice to place assets out of reach to avoid future liabilities

C.

Incomplete records being provided during bookkeeping, making them difficult to audit

D.

Accountants being used as intermediaries to introduce criminals to financial institutions

Question 34

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

Question 35

How do nominees benefit criminals misusing thorn for money laundering purposes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Allow beneficial owners to provide proxies lot voting on corporate decisions

B.

Obscure beneficial ownership

C.

Allow domicile in the nominee's jurisdiction

D.

Derail investigations

Question 36

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence

B.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed Instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes Procedures are an overarching framework Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

Question 37

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

Question 38

It Is important for financial institutions (FIs) to be aware of anti-financial crime (AFC) and sanctions regulatory regimes in other jurisdictions in order to.

Options:

A.

maintain compliance with the AFC and sanctions requirements of all countries where the F1 operates or has business relationships and to avoid penalties for violations in foreign jurisdictions.

B.

ensure that sanctions regimes are applied selectively based on the regulatory standards of the countries where business activities occur, focusing primarily on aligned jurisdictions

C.

compensate for the limited applicability of AFC and sanctions regulations on cross-border transactions and their reduced relevance for domestic operations in other jurisdictions.

D.

ensure the F1 can manage business relationships in jurisdictions with stricter or more lenient regulations than their home country, allowing for operational flexibility

Question 39

Which of the following are key components of the Know Your Customer (KYC) process? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inquiring about the source of wealth and source of funds

B.

Asking to provide a list of immediate family members

C.

Verifying the financial crime awareness of the client

D.

Collecting necessary documents to verify the veracity of information

Question 40

One key aspect of promoting an enterprise-wide compliance culture within a financial institution is that the:

Options:

A.

Relevant information should be shared throughout the organization.

B.

Revenue-generating business sectors should have precedence over compliance.

C.

First line of defense should establish its own policies independently.

D.

Cost of compliance should increase proportionately to revenues.

Question 41

How can public-private partnerships (PPPs) foster collaboration in the fight against financial crime? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Developing a culture of compliance

B.

Improving governance in the public sector by requesting feedback from financial institutions

C.

Reducing transaction monitoring false positives for all financial institutions

D.

Improving the quality and quantity of data available for analysis by sharing information

Question 42

Which measures help ensure that the name screening process is effective in identifying potential risk? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Define in policies and procedures the screening scope, frequency, and alert adjudication process

B.

Identify the most commonly used name screening database in the industry

C.

Assign a designated person to ensure consistent implementation of screening controls

D.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine which data attributes to screen, screening frequency, and database selection

E.

Conduct regular testing to validate that the screening system is performing as expected

Question 43

What are the primary advantages of using open-source tools in financial crime investigations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Partial automation of data collection and analysis

B.

Cost-effective access to a wide range of data

C.

Real-time monitoring of selected transactions and data sources

D.

Ability to conduct investigations with minimal human oversight

E.

Enhanced ability to identity connections across various data sets

Question 44

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 45

A recruitment manager in the human resources department of a bank has shortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division. The compliance policy of the bank stipulates that proper background checks on new employees

must be completed by the recruiting team to protect the bank against potential risks, including fraud and money laundering.

Which resources would be most useful for identifying any potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Criminal history searches

B.

Personal resume

C.

Internet and public media searches

D.

Past employment records

E.

Personal references from close associates

Question 46

Which statement is the most accurate describing who must comply with Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions?

Options:

A.

All US citizens and permanent residents while located in the US, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals within the United States

B.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities excluding their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

C.

All US citizens except those with dual nationality, US permanent residents, all US incorporated entities, and all individuals within the United States

D.

All US citizens and permanent residents regardless of where they are located, all US incorporated entities and their foreign branches, and all individuals and entities within the United States

Question 47

Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Introduction of new products or services

B.

Mergers or acquisitions

C.

Restructuring of the FI's risk and compliance functions

D.

Use of new technologies for delivering existing products

E.

Changes in the individuals overseeing the FI's product lines and sales strategies

Question 48

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

Question 49

Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Devaluation

B.

Smart contract vulnerabilities

C.

Potential for anonymity

D.

Global reach

E.

High transaction fees

F.

Use to layer illicit funds

Question 50

During which process must a country demonstrate to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) that it has an effective framework to protect the financial system from abuse?

Options:

A.

Formal assessment

B.

Regulatory overview

C.

Technical analysis

D.

Mutual evaluation

Question 51

Which of the following AML/CFT arrangements should a bank have in place at minimum before opening for business? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Independent compliance testing

B.

Qualified and knowledgeable staff

C.

Third-party screening software

D.

An automated monitoring system

E.

Written policy and procedures

Question 52

Professional service providers—including lawyers, accountants, investment brokers, and other third parties—may abuse their positions to facilitate money laundering.

Which financial crime risks are associated with this type of abuse? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Opening an account to settle an estate on behalf of a client

B.

Establishing shell companies to enable money laundering activities, including placement or layering

C.

Opening third-party accounts for the primary purpose of masking the underlying client’s identity

D.

Opening a trust account to facilitate a legitimate real estate transaction

E.

Directing or facilitating the laundering of illicit funds, including structuring transactions

Question 53

A compliance officer is completing a case and has determined that the events do not merit filing a suspicious activity report (SAR).

Which of the following should be included in the case notes to justify not filing a SAR? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Who made the decision not to file the SAR

B.

Why the officer deemed that the case did not merit filing a SAR

C.

How much money was involved in the case

D.

How the money flowed through the institution

E.

When the unusual activity occurred

Question 54

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

Question 55

Which of the following statements is true regarding the 2012 Financial Action Task Force (FATF) 40 Recommendations and'or 11 Immediate Outcomes?

Options:

A.

The 40 Recommendations have not been updated to reflect the impact of new technology

B.

Each jurisdiction can reach out to the FATF for private access to the interpretive notes to the 40 Recommendations

C.

The 11 Immediate Outcomes are recommendations specific to high-risk jurisdictions requiring enhanced monitoring.

D.

The cornerstone of the 40 Recommendations is the adoption of a risk-based approach by each jurisdiction

Question 56

Which statement regarding data privacy is the most accurate in the context of AML investigations?

Options:

A.

Organizations are required to demonstrate that customers have opted into information sharing before submitting suspicious activity reports to relevant financial intelligence units (FIUs)

B.

Any customer that is the subject of a suspicious report filing has the right to request redaction of their personal data

C.

FIUs should document purposes for which personal data included on suspicious activity reports may be shared with other agencies

D.

Data privacy laws prohibit information sharing between financial institutions for the purposes of AML investigations in all jurisdictions

Question 57

Which is a key goal of the EU's Directives on money laundering?

Options:

A.

Address control of payments in EU countries to reduce money laundering.

B.

Build a network of financial institutions that work together to prevent money laundering across the EU.

C.

Establish a consistent regulatory environment across the EU to prevent money laundering.

D.

Allow member states to discuss the draft legislation with the cooperation of the EU financial intelligence units.

Question 58

At a high level, the risk assessment process involves identifying and rating the inherent risks associated with customers, products, countries, and delivery channels, and then:

Options:

A.

comparing these risks with industry benchmarks to determine the residual risk.

B.

implementing new controls to eliminate all risks

C.

rating the effectiveness of the related controls in order to calculate the residual risk.

D.

documenting the historical risk incidents for future reference.

Question 59

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

Question 60

Which criminal activities could possibly serve as a predicate offense to financial crimes or money laundering activity? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Assault

B.

Arson

C.

Bribery or corruption

D.

Fraud

E.

Organized crime or racketeering

Question 61

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

Options:

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

Question 62

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 63

An insurance company receives an application for a high-value life insurance policy from a new non-resident client. The payout instruction is linked to an offshore trust in another jurisdiction to which the client has no obvious connection. The client insists on paying premiums via multiple transactions to “avoid bank charges.” The client is reportedly unemployed with minimal assets, which is inconsistent with the policy value.

Which financial crime risk should the insurance company be most concerned with?

Options:

A.

Sanctions evasion

B.

Money laundering

C.

Fraud

D.

Market abuse

Question 64

The primary objectives of the United Nations in developing sanctions regimes include: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

to force developing nations to adopt liberal or substantive democracies.

B.

to support governments and regimes in the peaceful resolution of conflict.

C.

to punish governments for having weak financial crime controls.

D.

to deter non-democratic and non-constitutional changes within countries.

E.

to support the protection of human rights.

Question 65

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

Question 66

A deficiency in the design of a bank’s AML/CFT compliance program could result in placing individual accountability on which part of the regulated entity? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The compliance department

B.

Board of directors

C.

Product oversight committee

D.

Senior management

Question 67

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

Question 68

The law enforcement agency (LEA) of a foreign jurisdiction contacts a financial institution (FI) regarding one of the FI's clients. The LEA advises that the client is currently wanted for prosecution as a result of a series of human trafficking charges.

What should the FI do? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inform local LEA and regulator of the request for awareness

B.

Close the client's accounts immediately to avoid any undue risk

C.

Review the client's activity, determine if suspicious activity exists, and report accordingly

D.

Advise the LEA that the government needs to be contacted for extradition

E.

Comply immediately with the foreign jurisdiction and turn over all client information

Question 69

Who bears the ultimate responsibility for approving a financial institution's relationship with a politically exposed person?

Options:

A.

KYC analyst

B.

Senior management

C.

Relationship manager

D.

Enhanced due diligence compliance officer

Question 70

A compliance analyst has recently investigated an account where money was deposited in amounts below the reporting limit and almost entirely withdrawn in a foreign country.

Which type of money laundering is the compliance analyst potentially identifying?

Options:

A.

Trade-based

B.

Check Kiting

C.

Microstructuring

D.

Structuring

Question 71

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

Question 72

What is the first step that an investigator should take when beginning a financial investigation into a potential suspicious activity?

Options:

A.

Determining whether the potential suspicious activity is consistent with the customer's transactional behavior, nature of business, and occupation

B.

Contacting the country's financial intelligence unit's (FIU's) officers to seek advice on whether the potential suspicious activity is indeed a suspicious activity

C.

Gathering and assessing internal sources of information, including information obtained from the customer, transactions, and value and volume

D.

Identifying and reviewing external information, including online presence, customer-related entities, and relevant media

Question 73

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

Question 74

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

Question 75

Which of the following best describes AML/CFT risk identification and assessment for accountants? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Accountants are not required to keep records of business relationships for more than two years

B.

Drafting a customer acceptance policy can help accountants define customers outside their risk appetite

C.

When determining transaction and service risk, the jurisdiction where the accountant provides the service is not important

D.

Due to their small size and limited resources, accountants are allowed to organize AML/CFT risk only as customer risk or transaction/service risk

E.

Due to the nature of services accountants provide, automated transaction monitoring systems used by financial institutions may not be appropriate

Question 76

A periodic review has been completed for an existing virtual asset service provider (VASP) customer.

Which of the following are indicators of potential money laundering? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Use of shell companies for deposits and withdrawals into the VASP

B.

Using a peer-to-peer network to reduce costs associated with server maintenance and data storage

C.

Rapid market fluctuations resulting in quick changes in the value of underlying assets

D.

Frequent use of mixers and tumblers for holdings and transactions

E.

Receiving funds from countries known for weak money laundering regulations and frameworks

Question 77

Money laundering has social and economic impacts, especially within developing countries. A high volume of money laundering in a country may: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Dissuade government tax incentive programs

B.

Reduce confidence in the country's financial sector.

C.

Dissuade foreign investment.

D.

Lower the employment rate.

E.

Reduce volatility in exchange and interest rates.

Question 78

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) methodology, which situations would require a financial institution (FI) to consider filing a suspicious activity report?

Options:

A.

A beneficiary of a transaction is a politically exposed person.

B.

A FI is unable to verify the relevant customer due diligence documents.

C.

A FI identifies the payer is a dealer in precious metals or stones.

D.

A transaction involves funds exchanged from crypto to fiat currencies.

Question 79

A US bank recently received a regulatory order to remediate its AML programs, which included several violations of law.

What degree of accountability is it possible for the bank's senior management and employees to face?

Options:

A.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is likely to face criminal prosecution because the bank received a regulatory order

B.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management can face civil prosecution but not criminal prosecution for violation of AML laws

C.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer and senior management may face personal liability if they failed to take actions while aware of AML violations at the bank

D.

The bank's designated AML compliance officer is the only individual in the company's senior management team that can face personal liability for violation of AML laws

Question 80

Which of the following are limitations of using search engines to screen adverse media? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Search engines have limited global language coverage

B.

Search engines provide unstructured data that complicates media analysis

C.

Search results are often inefficient in identifying relevant adverse media

D.

The process is time-consuming and requires significant manual effort

E.

Outcomes can be inconsistent due to varying search engine algorithms

Question 81

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

Question 82

According to guidelines issued by Basel Committee on Banking Supervision relating to corporate governance principles for banks, what is the role of the board of directors in addressing an institution's AML oversight and governance?

Options:

A.

The board of directors should be responsible for overseeing the management of the bank's compliance risk but not involved in establishing a compliance policy that explains the processes by which compliance risks are to be identified and managed throughout the organization.

B.

The board of directors should establish a compliance function and approve the bank's policies for identifying, assessing, monitoring, reporting, and advising on compliance risk.

C.

The compliance function must have sufficient authority, stature, independence, and resources to be effective on its own and should not have access to the board of directors.

D.

The compliance function should report directly to the CEO concerning the bank's compliance with applicable laws, rules, and standards and only update the board of directors on the bank's efforts in managing compliance risk when required.

Question 83

Which of the following presents the highest money laundering risk from a money services business (MSB)?

Options:

A.

Some MSBs provide bureau de change services to retail customers after they complete a due diligence process.

B.

Some MSBs process large, individual cash transactions on behalf of customers.

C.

Some MSBs allow regular and frequent transactions to the same family members based in another country

D.

Some MSBs process small remittance payments on behalf of workers based abroad sending money home.

Question 84

An annual risk assessment includes inherent risk, effectiveness of controls, and residual risk. The inherent risk is assessed as “moderate,” and the effectiveness of controls is “less than satisfactory.”

What would the residual risk conclusion most likely be?

Options:

A.

“Medium,” because weak controls would result in the residual risk remaining unchanged

B.

“High,” because weak controls would result in increased residual risk

C.

“Moderate,” because the risk conclusions for specific areas may be increased

D.

“Low,” because controls would lower the risk

Question 85

An employee in a corporation's finance department hears news of an internal investigation into potential fraud within the company, quits her job, and disappears.

If they had been observed before her resignation, which characteristics of the employee would have been considered red flags? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The employee was originally from a high-risk jurisdiction

B.

The employee had friends in high-risk industries

C.

The employee had a lavish lifestyle for her income

D.

The employee was constantly evasive about the reasons for leaving her previous corporate finance job

Question 86

A bank has joined a public-private partnership (PPP) to work with law enforcement and regulators on combating financial crime. However, the bank's data protection officer is concerned about sharing sensitive customer data, and the compliance officer is worried about potential delays in receiving useful information from the government.

Which of the following best describes a benefit of PPPs in fighting financial crime?

Options:

A.

PPPs improve financial crime detection and prevention by sharing intelligence between banks and law enforcement.

B.

PPPs help banks reduce compliance costs by automating information sharing.

C.

PPPs allow banks to manage their own suspicious activity report (SAR) filing process without the need to involve the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU).

D.

PPPs maximize the efficiency of the bank's compliance program by providing real-time intelligence from law enforcement.

Question 87

What are the main benefits of implementing explainable artificial intelligence (AI) or machine learning (ML) technologies to improve operational effectiveness within AML/CFT compliance? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Identifies AML/CFT risks without the need for human involvement

B.

Reduces the need for human resources

C.

Processes and analyzes large data sets more quickly and accurately

D.

Increases auditability, accountability, and overall good governance

Question 88

A bank received a subpoena regarding one of its clients. The financial intelligence unit of the bank should review the subpoena and:

Options:

A.

Close the client's account by informing the client of the subpoena.

B.

Perform a transaction review and respond fully to the subpoena.

C.

File a suspicious activity report (SAR), including the receipt of the subpoena in the SAR narrative.

D.

Adjust the client's risk score and close the case.

Question 89

Reference data screening includes the screening of which types of datasets? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Types of payment messages

B.

Customers

C.

Third-party service providers

D.

Customer spouses

Question 90

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

Question 91

Which o! the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

B.

Mandatory attendance and review of alt financial crime trainings

C.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

D.

Setting tone from the top

Question 92

Unusual wire transfer transactions can include: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

wire transfers in different currencies between accounts held at different banks for the same client.

B.

an incoming third-party wire transfer followed by the purchase of real estate in the client's name.

C.

an incoming wire transfer followed by the loan payment to a third party that is a business associate of the client.

D.

multiple wire transfers sent to counterparties associated with the client as per KYC documentation.

Question 93

A National Risk Assessment (NRA) can impact a financial institution's (Fl's) risk-based approach to anti-money laundering and terrorism financing by:

Options:

A.

dictating what predicate offences must be considered in the Fl's risk assessment.

B.

providing guidance on the types of customers and transactions that pose the highest risk.

C.

defining exactly what policies and procedures must be implemented.

D.

determining the maximum fines that can be imposed for AML violations.

Question 94

A trust and company services provider that offers a variety of services to businesses is approached by a client interested in establishing a new company. The client requests assistance with the incorporation process, a local business address, annual maintenance services, and the designation of individuals to serve in official capacities for the new company.

Which of the following services involves a higher money laundering risk?

Options:

A.

Appointing individuals to serve in official capacities of the company

B.

Annual maintenance services

C.

Provision of a local business address

D.

Company incorporation services

Question 95

Which obliged entities or gatekeepers may be required to perform customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Casino security guards

B.

City court judges

C.

Notaries involved in real estate transactions

D.

Dealers in precious metals and stones

E.

Real estate agents

F.

Accountants and auditors

Question 96

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

Question 97

Correspondent banking is considered a higher-risk banking sector because correspondent banking transactions:

Options:

A.

Are made primarily to and from high-risk jurisdictions

B.

Can be made anonymously and without beneficial ownership information

C.

Typically include less information than domestic payments

D.

Are made cross-border and on behalf of third parties

Question 98

A long-term client of an insurance company makes changes to a policy that require payment of an additional lump sum. The amount payable is high, though within the client's means based on the KYC information collected. The payment is made via a company in another jurisdiction that is known to have lax AML controls.

Which indicator of suspicious activity is present?

Options:

A.

A long-term client wants a change to a policy that is already in force

B.

The payment was made via a company that appears to be owned and controlled by the client being insured

C.

The additional premium payable appears to be within the client's means based on the KYC information collected

D.

The payment was made via a company in a jurisdiction known to have lax AML controls

Question 99

A wealthy individual is using a complex corporate structure to facilitate illegal logging and then illegal mining of the resulting resources from that land.

Which category of predicate crime is taking place?

Options:

A.

Trade-based money laundering

B.

Corruption

C.

Illicit resource trade

D.

Environmental crime

Question 100

Which scenario indicates potential money laundering activity by a lawyer?

Options:

A.

A lawyer located in a higher risk country deposits their firm's bank draft issued from their trust account to another lawyer's trust account located in a low-risk country for legal services rendered.

B.

A lawyer's trust account regularly receives wire transfers from unknown remitters from a higher risk country and immediately transfers the same amount of funds received to a known beneficiary's account in a low-risk country.

C.

A lawyer's trust account receives a large-value wire transfer from a regulated insurance company and immediately transfers the same amount of funds received to the beneficiary's bank account located in a low-risk country.

D.

A lawyer's trust account receives a large wire transfer deposit from a client that wanted to purchase a piece of property and then transfers the same amount to the property seller's lawyer's trust account.

Question 101

Which of the following activities are identified by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) as being potentially indicative of money laundering through the real estate sector? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Use of mortgage products

B.

Use of commercial properties inconsistent with stated business purposes

C.

Use of complex loans or credit finance

D.

Use of corporate vehicles or complex ownership structures

E.

Unexplained cash payments

F.

Use of agricultural land in rural areas

Question 102

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

Question 103

A large international bank's chief compliance officer (CCO) is exploring ways to enhance the bank's ability to identify suspicious activities by using intelligence data more effectively. One potential solution is to engage in public-private partnerships (PPPs) to leverage shared intelligence and enhance collaboration with government agencies.

The bank considers joining a PPP initiative with the local Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) and other financial institutions to improve its access to relevant data and intelligence. The CCO understands that while PPPs can provide significant benefits, such as improved risk detection and enhanced information sharing, there are also potential limitations, including data privacy concerns and differing priorities between public and private sector partners.

Which approach would best maximize the benefits of PPPs for the bank while mitigating the limitations associated with data sharing and intelligence?

Options:

A.

Engage in the PPP without strict data sharing protocols, allowing for open and unrestricted flow of information between the bank, FIUs, and other financial institutions

B.

Rely solely on the intelligence provided by government agencies through the PPP because they have the most comprehensive data on suspicious activities

C.

Establish a clear framework within the PPP that outlines data privacy protections and ensures that information sharing complies with legal and regulatory requirements in all jurisdictions involved

D.

Prioritize the bank’s internal data sources over external intelligence from PPPs, as internal data is easier to control and does not present data privacy challenges

Question 104

Which should be provided to the board of directors or designated specialized committee when preparing suspicious activity reports (SARs)?

Options:

A.

Statistical data regarding SARs filed during the reported period

B.

All possible details of SARs filed during the reported period

C.

Copies of all SARs filed during the reported period

D.

Names of all customers subject to SARs filed during the reported period

Question 105

A bank notices inconsistent flagging of blockchain transactions due to the lack of standardized payment message formats.

What feature should be prioritized in the transaction screening tool to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Enhanced sanctions screening for traditional payment messages

B.

Periodic manual review of blockchain-related transactions

C.

Integration with blockchain analytics providers

D.

Rule-based systems focusing only on known wallet addresses

Question 106

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

Question 107

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

B.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

C.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

Question 108

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

Question 109

Benefits of using artificial intelligence (AI) in conjunction with or in place of traditional rules-based transaction monitoring include that AI can: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Increase the number of false positive alerts

B.

Create unbiased scenarios during the machine training phase

C.

Identify changes in customer behavior to more accurately assess risk

D.

Generate customer risk scores to predict potential financial crime activity

Question 110

The goal of the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) is to provide a forum for FIUs to: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Securely share sensitive information in the fight against money laundering and the financing of terrorism

B.

Establish an environment to foster trust amongst countries

C.

Sign memoranda of cooperation that recognize and allow room for case-by-case solutions to specific problems

D.

Improve global cooperation between FIUs

E.

Propose legislation to combat financial crime, including money laundering and the financing of terrorism

Question 111

How should national and sectoral risk assessments influence an organization’s risk-based approach and internal risk assessment?

Options:

A.

They should be referenced and integrated appropriately into an organization’s risk assessment to tailor enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures and allocate resources effectively

B.

They provide general guidance but do not need to be directly considered because internal risk factors are more important

C.

They should only be referenced for high-risk clients as they are designed for worst-case scenarios

D.

They are primarily intended for regulators and should not influence organizational risk assessments

Question 112

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

Question 113

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

Question 114

Which of the following best describes the use of fuzzy logic in customer screening systems?

Options:

A.

It produces outputs that include a range of intermediate possibilities between "Yes" and "No"

B.

It is an advanced analytics tool widely used to implement AFC controls

C.

It allows for a greater number of exact matches, reducing the need for manual review

D.

It is a new technique for enhancing the quality of alerts for review

Question 115

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

Question 116

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

Question 117

Which of the following measures is one that the FATF recommends that Financial Institutions and Designated Non-Financial Businesses and Professions (DNFPB) take to mitigate risks arising from business relationships with foreign politically exposed persons (PEPs)?

Options:

A.

Raise transaction monitoring thresholds for PEP accounts in automated systems to account for higher transaction values and complex legal vehicles and financial structures

B.

Require approval from the prudential regulator for entering into or continuing the business relationship

C.

Subscribe to commercial databases to assist in the detection of PEPs

D.

Establish processes to understand the PEP's source of wealth and the source of funds, and to refresh that understanding on a regular basis

Question 118

A multinational financial institution (FI) detected suspicious transactions involving shell companies across the United States, Germany, and Singapore, which appeared to be part of a money laundering scheme. The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in Germany initiated a joint investigation with the U.S. Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN) and the Singapore FIU. The investigation faced challenges due to differing legal frameworks, data privacy laws, and procedural requirements.

Which approach would best enhance cooperation between regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies across these jurisdictions to ensure a successful investigation?

Options:

A.

Relying on each jurisdiction’s existing legal frameworks and informal communication channels

B.

Engaging a third-party consulting firm to mediate between the regulatory authorities and law enforcement agencies in different jurisdictions

C.

Centralizing the investigation under the jurisdiction with the most stringent AML laws to streamline the process and reduce the complexity of multi-jurisdictional coordination

D.

Establishing a Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty (MLAT)

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Total 395 questions