Summer Limited Time 60% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: wrap60

ACAMS CAMS Dumps

Page: 1 / 23
Total 229 questions

Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

Question 2

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

Question 3

An organization is developing a comprehensive anti-money laundering (AML) framework.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between AML policies and procedures?

Options:

A.

Policies are broad guidelines. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes. Only procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

B.

Policies define the principles of an organization and influence the drafting of procedures. Procedures are detailed instructions for specific processes.

C.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Neither policies nor procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

D.

Policies are detailed instructions for specific processes. Procedures are an overarching framework. Both policies and procedures are mandatory for knowledge and adherence.

Question 4

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities, Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

B.

Exchange strategic information between FIUs and obliged entities

C.

Exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

Create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

Question 5

In a standard customer due diligence (CDD) process focused on financial inclusion, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendations require: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

identification of the customer's occupation.

B.

identification and verification of the customer's identity.

C.

identification of the customer's work address.

D.

identification of the beneficial owner.

E.

verification of the customer's credit history.

F.

[verification of the customer's income sources.

Question 6

What areas of laws and regulations have the greatest impact on AML/CFT applications? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Information security, data privacy, and cybersecurity

B.

Foreign exchange control, and precious gemstone and metal dealing

C.

Ombudsman and anti-competition authority

D.

Electronic contract and biological signature acceptance

E.

Consumer protection, financial inclusion, and environmental, social and governance

Question 7

While gaming platforms are typically used for recreational purposes, they can potentially be used for terrorist financing through games in which players can:

Options:

A.

buy in-game items with virtual in-game currencies.

B.

exchange in-game items with other players.

C.

trade in-game items with other players that can be exchanged for fiat currency

D.

obtain in-game materials by performing in-game activities.

Question 8

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

Question 9

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

Question 10

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

Question 11

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

Question 12

Interactions between the compliance department and other functions or departments within an organization contribute to making the anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program more robust by addressing specific risk areas.

Which departments play a crucial role in enhancing the AFC compliance program of an organization? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Information security office (ISO)

B.

Marketing and sales

C.

Human resources (HR)

D.

Data privacy office (DPO)

Question 13

A legal instrument executed between two nations that governs cross-border information sharing is known as a:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Agreement.

B.

Declaration of Understanding.

C.

Memorandum of Understanding.

D.

Mutual Legal Assistance Treaty.

E.

Request for Urgent Information.

Question 14

Which of the following are important AML controls for a compliance manager of a regulated asset management company in the European Union to implement? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Inviting prospective customers for an onboarding interview

B.

Rejecting any politically exposed persons (PEPs) as customers

C.

Understanding the source and origin of assets

D.

Performing negative news checks of prospective customers

E.

Producing financial stability reports on interesting customers

Question 15

Which of the following is an important factor to consider when setting up an anti-financial crimes (AFC) compliance program governance structure?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the structure is reviewed by an outside auditor or consultant

B.

Establishing a system of internal controls commensurate with the institution’s size and complexity

C.

Designating a qualified board of directors to monitor day-to-day compliance

D.

Establishing clear roles and responsibilities for AFC risk escalations and issues

Question 16

Which regulation permits financial institutions, upon providing notice to the US Department of the Treasury, to share information with one another in order to identify and report activities that may involve money laundering or terrorist activity to the federal government?

Options:

A.

Regulation (EU) 2024/1624 of the European Parliament

B.

Collaborative Sharing of Money Laundering/Terrorism Financing (ML/TF) Information & Cases (COSMIC)

C.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(a)

D.

USA Patriot Act Section 314(b)

Question 17

An employee at a financial institution (Fl) suspects that one of their co-workers is involved in a financial investment scam syndicate. Which step should be taken next by the employee who has the suspicion?

Options:

A.

Question their co-worker to determine If their suspicions are correct before reporting to the Fl's Human Resources department

B.

Use the Fl's whistle blowing channel to report the suspected employee

C.

Warn colleagues and customers of the F1 that the employee's suspicious financial investment proposals could be a scam

D.

Conduct an open-source intelligence investigation using artificial intelligence tools to gain more information on the activities of the suspected employee

E.

Report the suspected employee to the line manager of the F1 to take the required action

Question 18

Which statements regarding using network analysis tools to determine links to criminality are true? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

When using network analysis data to fight money laundering and financial crime, data protection and privacy can be disregarded because fighting crime takes precedent

B.

Network analysis tools are an efficient means of generating relevant results because they only need a limited amount of data and computation power and artificial intelligence (Al) allows less-skilled people to quickly learn to use these systems

C.

When using artificial intelligence (Al) with network analysis tools, it must be ensured that the algorithms used are not biased towards social criteria, such as race, gender, or religion

D.

Network analysis allows for the identification of individuals or entities in a network by analyzing connections or links between them and can be used to study a wide range of systems, such as social or transportation networks

E.

Analyzing relationships between individuals in a social network allows for the identification of hierarchies, the detection of behaviors and geographical movements, or an understanding of how groups are organized

Question 19

Which payment type presents the highest financial crime risk?

Options:

A.

A check returning a mortgage overpayment made in error

B.

A payment made to a mixer platform

C.

A regular standing order to a high-interest savings account

D.

A bill payment made to a friend after splitting a dinner bill

Question 20

Which ancillary departments or operational areas can play an essential role in supporting a larger organization's Anti-Money Laundering and Economic Sanctions compliance program? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Model risk management

C.

Technology solutions and IT security

D.

Marketing

E.

Fraud risk management

Question 21

An agent of a wealthy individual residing in Country A, which is on the EU list of high-risk third jurisdictions, approaches a notary in Country B, which is in the EU. The agent wants to complete a disposal of assets recently acquired at auction by the wealthy individual through an offshore company. The agent also has a power of attorney to act on behalf of the offshore company issued by a respectable law firm from Country C, which is also in the EU. The agent asks the notary to proceed with the disposal as quickly as possible without paying any specific attention to related costs or taxes to be paid as a result of this transaction. The notary notices the intended transfer price is significantly lower than the one recorded at auction, but the agent does not want to discuss this matter and claims that it is not covered by the power of attorney.

Which red flags should the notary consider? (Select Two)

Options:

A.

The agent requested a disposal of assets at a lower price than recently acquired.

B.

The assets acquired through an auction were put in the name of an offshore company

C.

The agent acted on behalf of an individual residing in a country which is on the EU's list of high-risk jurisdictions

D.

The power of attorney was issued by a law firm in a different EU country from where the transaction took place.

Question 22

Which of the following risk factors are commonly associated with money laundering in insurance products? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Surrendering a policy early to liquidate funds

B.

Focusing excessively on the investment performance of an insurance product

C.

Using a credit card to purchase an insurance policy

D.

Using cryptocurrencies or other non-fiat currencies to fund an insurance policy

Question 23

Which risks are specifically associated with the misuse of gaming accounts in financial crime? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Using gaming accounts to transfer illicit funds between players undetected

B.

Structuring transactions to avoid reporting thresholds by keeping them under certain limits

C.

Providing false personal information to evade regulatory oversight

D.

Ensuring identity verification is completed prior to the onboarding of new customers

E.

Investing all gaming winnings into high-risk stocks to conceal funds

Question 24

Which of the following are potential financial crime-related red flags when obtaining client data? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

A client frequently submits financial statements much earlier than required appearing overly eager

B.

A client insists on using a personal bank account for business transactions despite being advised otherwise

C.

A new client shows a preference for minimal direct interaction and relies primarily on indirect communication methods, citing convenience or time constraints

D.

The client is a publicly listed company but very diversified

E.

The ultimate beneficial ownership is unclear

Question 25

Business entities established in offshore financial centers (OFCs) pose unique risks for money laundering because they often:

Options:

A.

have informal business arrangements between persons or entities.

B.

are located in geographies that are not accountable to US laws.

C.

include trusts, investment funds, and insurance companies.

D.

have limited organizational disclosure and recordkeeping requirements for establishing these business entities.

Question 26

A national risk assessment (NRA) can impact the risk-based approach (RBA) within an organization's anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance program by: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

helping to identify high-risk sectors that require enhanced due diligence (EDO),

B.

eliminating the need for sectoral risk assessments within the organization

C.

guiding the allocation of resources for mitigating financial crime risks

D.

requiring all organizations to apply standardized measures

E.

automatically reducing the organization's responsibility for conducting its own risk assessment

Question 27

Which statement best describes an organizational challenge for law enforcement agencies and Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) when conducting cross-border money laundering (ML) investigations?

Options:

A.

Defining a common communication approach and language between all involved parties.

B.

Delays in the investigation due to a foreign FIU awaiting the results of queries performed by third parties.

C.

Conducting an investigation in all countries through which ML funds were transferred when one or more of the countries do not have an FIU.

D.

Investigations which involve high-ranking politicians, who often have influence over the local FIU.

Question 28

Which benefits are most commonly associated with transitioning from a rules-based approach to artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning-based tools in transaction monitoring? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of false positives in long term

B.

Complete automation of compliance processes

C.

Elimination of the need for human oversight

D.

Increased flexibility in adapting to changing financial crime risks

E.

Enhanced ability to detect emerging patterns and anomalies

Question 29

The primary objectives of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) are to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

evaluate and monitor compliance with the FATF standards and provide recommendations for improvement.

B.

assist countries in implementing EU, UN, and regional sanctions regimes.

C.

develop and promote international standards to prevent money laundering and terrorist financing.

D.

conduct investigations on countries legislations and laws to prevent them from being used for money laundering and terrorist financing.

E.

ensure that countries follow its laws to maintain financial stability.

Question 30

Which collective body of Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) was formed with an objective to improve Information exchange and sharing mechanisms among member FlUs as well as to support its members by enhancing their capabilities'?

Options:

A.

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)

B.

The Egmont Group

C.

The Wolfsberg Group

D.

The International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Question 31

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 32

A client advisor at a bank contacts a member of the compliance team for guidance on how to proceed with a client who wants to transfer US$250,000 from the sale of cryptoassets into their savings account at the bank.

What guidance should the compliance team provide?

Options:

A.

Advise further clarification is necessary, including which coins or tokens were sold and whether the crypto exchange conducts due diligence on its clients

B.

Advise that the transaction should be stopped because cryptoassets in general are not regulated and by definition pose an unacceptable AML risk for the bank

C.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction if the client's KYC is up to date and a search on a public blockchain explorer does not provide any adverse media hits

D.

Confirm to the advisor that the customer can proceed with the transaction because clients are already correctly onboarded KYC is complete and the source of funds is transparent

Question 33

A financial institution's transaction monitoring system flags an unusually high volume of international wire transfers originating from a small business account. The transfers are being sent to multiple jurisdictions known for limited regulatory oversight. Additionally, an employee reports suspicious behavior from the account holder during an in-person visit, where they requested a large cash withdrawal without providing a clear business justification. As part of the investigation, the compliance team must assess whether this activity is suspicious and determine the appropriate next steps.

Which of the following steps should be taken first in the investigation process to properly gather information and assess whether the transactions are suspicious?

Options:

A.

Review the transaction history of the account to identify patterns, including the frequency, destination, and purpose of the wire transfers

B.

Notify senior management and suggest account closure due to potential risks

C.

Immediately file a suspicious activity report (SAR) based on the employee's report of suspicious behavior

D.

Contact the customer directly to ask for clarification on the reason for the large cash withdrawal

Question 34

A key factor in the independence of an AML audit is that the auditor should.

Options:

A.

have never worked in previous assignments within the AMUCFT departments.

B.

have no involvement with the organization's AML/CP T compliance staff.

C.

have been screened by the board of directors before the audit starts

D.

be sufficiently trained in AML to be able to provide an independent review.

Question 35

Public-private partnerships (PPPs) that involve the sharing of information between law enforcement authorities. Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs), and the private sector are established to: (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

create a common database of key information and share analysis of suspicious activities with FATF

B.

exchange strategic information between FlUs and obliged entities

C.

exchange strategic information between financial institutions

D.

exchange operational information between public authorities and obliged entities

Question 36

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

Question 37

Money services businesses (MSBs), payment service providers, and e-commerce platforms usually have a high volume of daily transactions.

What are the risks associated with these types of businesses? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

These businesses are all cash intensive, increasing the risk of financial crime

B.

KYC challenges arise because e-commerce platforms face global customers making customer due diligence complex and resource intensive

C.

These businesses are highly regulated and therefore have no reason to be non-compliant as this would put them at risk of sanctions and fines

D.

Criminals can make use of identify fraud to fulfill KYC processes for layering purposes

E.

The settlement systems of these businesses are not sophisticated enough to cope with the high transaction volume

Question 38

What is the primary purpose of a risk appetite statement (RAS) in an organization and how should it be effectively communicated and implemented?

Options:

A.

An RAS defines the amount and type of risk an organization is willing to take to achieve its objectives and should be communicated clearly to all stakeholders with corresponding controls implemented

B.

An RAS is a detailed plan for managing operational risks and does not cover strategic or financial risks

C.

An RAS is a formal document meant for regulatory compliance that does not influence day-to-day risk management practices within the organization

D.

An RAS is used to outline the risk tolerance limits to external stakeholders and does not need to be communicated within the organization

Question 39

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

Question 40

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

Question 41

Which risk factors are associated with acquiring and servicing the banking activities of customers considered higher risk for financial crime activities? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Reputational risk

B.

Operational risk

C.

Sanctions risk

D.

Compliance risk

E.

Lending risk

Question 42

What is the primary advantage of using a risk-based approach in allocating compliance resources?

Options:

A.

It reduces the overall cost of compliance programs.

B.

It eliminates the need for periodic audits of low-risk customers.

C.

It ensures focus on high-risk areas while maintaining operational efficiency.

D.

It standardizes compliance processes across all regions.

Question 43

A key advantage of privacy enhancing technologies (PETs) in anti-money laundering is that they offer:

Options:

A.

simultaneous encryption and decryption for underlying data.

B.

full access to underlying data with full and uninterrupted calculations made on the data.

C.

secure processing of data while it remains encrypted.

D.

transfer, decryption and storage of data by the data processor.

Question 44

Which of the following processes or tools contribute to AML compliance despite being seemingly unrelated? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer loyalty program tracking

B.

Product usage analysis

C.

Customer satisfaction surveys

D.

Customer support ticket tracking

E.

Credit risk assessment

Question 45

Which red flags apply to trade-based money laundering (TBML) schemes? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Use of wire transfers

B.

Loitering

C.

Instructions or involvement from third parties

D.

Amended letters of credit without reasonable justification

E.

Non-standard settlement arrangements

Question 46

When a financial institution (FI) is considering providing traditional banking services to a virtual asset service provider (VASP), consideration should be given to whether the FI: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

has a general understanding of virtual assets.

B.

consistently reviews transactions between fiat and virtual currencies.

C.

implements enhanced KYC measures.

D.

owns virtual currencies itself.

Question 47

A global financial institution is conducting a comprehensive review of its due diligence processes to strengthen its defenses against financial crime. Recent incidents have highlighted vulnerabilities related to employee misconduct, including unauthorized transactions and sharing of sensitive customer information. Additionally, the FI has faced issues with third-party vendors who failed to meet compliance standards, leading to increased regulatory scrutiny.

Which of the following measures would be most effective in addressing the bank's due diligence needs for employees, vendors, and third parties to mitigate insider threats and ensure compliance with AML regulations?

Options:

A.

Relying on self-reported compliance certifications from vendors and employees to confirm adherence to AML standards on a periodic basis

B.

Establishing a surveillance program for employees, vendors, and third parties, including periodic risk assessments, access controls, and regular reviews of their compliance with AML policies

C.

Implementing background checks for employees and vendors prior to onboarding or the start of engagement to identify any red flags

D.

Limiting the number of vendors and third parties in high-risk jurisdictions in order to reduce exposure to compliance risks

Question 48

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

Question 49

Which of the following controls is typically implemented at customer onboarding to mitigate the risk of onboarding high-risk customers?

Options:

A.

Enhanced due diligence (EDD)

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Customer risk assessment

D.

Sanctions screening

Question 50

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

Question 51

Challenges in the implementation of new technologies for AML/CFT include: (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

data privacy.

B.

enhanced due diligence (EDD) policies.

C.

the Travel Rule.

D.

data quality.

E.

complexity.

F.

regulatory.

Question 52

An internal audit team is reviewing the anti-financial crime (AFC) program of its firm.

Which of the following attributes of the third line of defense would be most critical to ensure unbiased and effective oversight?

Options:

A.

Consistency of approach

B.

Periodic training of the function

C.

Qualification of the team

D.

Independent testing

Question 53

A financial institution's US Branch receives a subpoena from law enforcement requesting detailed records of a customer's account activity. The customer is part of an ongoing investigation into a money laundering operation. At the same time, the institution has received a FinCEN 314(b) information-sharing request from another bank seeking details on transactions linked to the same customer. The compliance team is tasked with responding to both the subpoena and the FinCEN 314(b) request.

What should the compliance officer prioritize in responding to these requests while ensuring that all legal and regulatory obligations are met?

Options:

A.

Notify the customer of the information-sharing request from the other financial institution and seek their consent before responding

B.

Consult the institution's legal counsel to validate the subpoena, then respond directly to law enforcement while ensuring all documentation is properly recorded

C.

Respond to the FinCEN 314(b) request first, as it allows for voluntary information sharing with partner organizations

D.

Provide the requested records to both law enforcement and the other financial institution immediately to ensure full cooperation and transparency

Question 54

Which of the following is a key consideration for a global organization when managing AFC and sanctions compliance across multiple jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions compliance by relying solely on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations

Question 55

Why is the prevention of financial crime so important?

Options:

A.

Financial crime does enormous damage to society, undermining market integrity and consumers' and market participants' confidence

B.

Financial crime risk incidents always result in fines and losses for the financial firm

C.

Financial crime prevention processes make the onboarding process for clients unnecessarily burdensome and complex but create work

D.

Financial crime prevention is important as it reduces costs and improves customer services.

Question 56

Which ML/TF risks are associated with cryptoassets? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Devaluation

B.

Smart contract vulnerabilities

C.

Potential for anonymity

D.

Global reach

E.

High transaction fees

F.

Use to layer illicit funds

Question 57

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

Question 58

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

Question 59

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

Question 60

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

Question 61

A financial institution is conducting an enterprise-wide risk assessment (EWRA) and has identified a high inherent risk of money laundering associated with its private banking division due to the clientele's high net worth and complex financial structures. However, the institution has implemented robust customer due diligence (CDD) and enhanced due diligence (EDD) procedures, along with sophisticated transaction monitoring systems.

How would these controls impact the assessment of residual risk?

Options:

A.

The residual risk would be significantly reduced due to the effectiveness of the controls in place

B.

The residual risk would be moderately reduced, but further controls may be necessary to achieve an acceptable level

C.

The residual risk would remain high due to the inherent nature of the private banking business

D.

The residual risk would be eliminated entirely because the controls are sufficient to mitigate all potential risks

Question 62

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

Question 63

Which of the following statements is true regarding Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Sanctions can only be placed on certain individuals in foreign countries as designated by OFAC

B.

Blocked funds must be placed into an interest-bearing account on a financial institution's books

C.

Sanctions can be either comprehensive or selective using the blocking of assets and trade restrictions to accomplish foreign policy and national security goals

D.

OFAC sanctions automatically expire after five years unless renewed by Congress

Question 64

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

Question 65

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

Question 66

Which of the following actions is specifically permitted or required under FinCEN section 314(b) for financial institutions (FIs) to enhance their efforts in combating money laundering and terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

FIs may disclose customer information to any third party

B.

FIs may provide information about their internal compliance programs to law enforcement agencies without any limitations

C.

FIs are required to report all transactions involving foreign entities to FinCEN so that FinCEN can share this information with other financial institutions

D.

FIs may share information about suspected money laundering activities with other FIs to aid in identifying and reporting suspicious transactions

Question 67

According to the Financial Action Task Force's (FATF's) "Guidance for a Risk-Based Approach Life Insurance Sector," which of the following are money laundering red flags relating to the involvement of a third party in a life insurance product? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer engages an attorney to consult on the issuance of the policy.

B.

A customer transfers the policy to another insurance company unaffiliated with the original policy issuer.

C.

Payments are regularly received from third parties that have no apparent relationship with the policy holder.

D.

A customer names an apparently unrelated third party as a beneficiary.

Question 68

The Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) in a country has received a suspicious activity report (SAR) which involves significant suspicious fund transfers, not only within its jurisdiction but also in a foreign country. Further information is required from the foreign country to determine whether the matter needs to be referred for prosecution locally.

Which of the following statements is true in this scenario?

Options:

A.

It is against international laws on data protection to access information from foreign countries

B.

Sovereignty of nations means that information cannot be accessed from foreign countries

C.

Any information related to money laundering can be received from any organization at any time regardless of jurisdiction

D.

Countries that are members of the Egmont Group can request assistance for information from each other

Page: 1 / 23
Total 229 questions