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ACDIS CCDS-O Dumps

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Total 140 questions

Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient (CCDS-O) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following BEST represents performance metrics important to an outpatient CDI program?

Options:

A.

Medicare Case Mix Index, aggregate RAF scores, and clinical denial rate

B.

HCC capture rate, unspecified code utilization rate, and query response rate

C.

Severity of illness, HCC capture rate, and Medicare Case Mix Index

D.

Number of secondary diagnoses per claim, aggregate RAF score, and quality indicators

Question 2

A CDI specialist manager is reviewing the productivity metrics of the outpatient team and notes that one of the CDI specialists has a high query rate and a good physician response, but a low physician agree rate compared to the rest of the team. This likely indicates which of the following?

Options:

A.

The data is not stratified enough to show a true picture of the productivity.

B.

The CDI specialist is writing leading queries.

C.

The CDI specialist is creating poor quality queries.

D.

The cases the CDI specialist is reviewing are more complex than other clinics.

Question 3

A patient is seen by an endocrinologist to manage his poorly controlled diabetes with peripheral neuropathy and claudication. The patient has had several toes amputated in prior years and currently has a non-healing ulcer on the left foot. The patient’s additional chronic conditions consist of the following: HF, CAD, COPD, history of prostate cancer, arthritis, depression, and sleep apnea. Which of the following chronic conditions should the CDI specialist consider for future education regarding RAF impact with the endocrinologist?

Options:

A.

Sleep apnea, depression, and HF

B.

Diabetes, amputation, and skin ulcer

C.

CAD, diabetes, and COPD

D.

History of prostate cancer, arthritis, and A1C

Question 4

When should the assignment of a not elsewhere classified (NEC)/other specified code be reported?

Options:

A.

When the information in the medical record is insufficient to assign a more specific code

B.

When the information in the medical record provides detail for when a specific code does not exist

C.

When two conditions cannot occur together

D.

When two codes may be required to fully describe a condition

Question 5

A CDI specialist has created the following query:

“Dear Dr., Based on the following clinical indicators: history of CVA and physical therapy ordered to address left sided weakness, please confirm a diagnosis of hemiplegia.”

What feedback should be given to the CDI specialist regarding the query?

Options:

A.

Hemiplegia can be coded without the provider clarification.

B.

The query leads the physician to one diagnosis, making it non-compliant.

C.

Clinical indicators do not support the query.

D.

The query does not include results from the most recent MRI.

Question 6

During a PCP visit, a provider notes a patient’s history of pathological fracture of the thoracic spine related to osteoporosis. Documentation states: “Decreased muscle mass and significant weight loss in the last six months.” Which of the following should the CDI specialist query for?

Options:

A.

Degree of muscle atrophy

B.

Acuity of the pathological fracture

C.

Type of osteoporosis

D.

Presence of malnutrition

Question 7

Provider documentation states: “Type 2 Diabetes with bilateral peripheral arteriosclerotic disease of LE. Bilateral pedal pulses present. Review Hgb A1C and CBC. No change in treatment. Hypertension evaluated and well controlled on Lopressor.” Which of the following conditions should be coded?

Options:

A.

Diabetes without complications, atherosclerosis bilateral legs

B.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, hypertension

C.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, hypertension

D.

Diabetes with peripheral angiopathy, atherosclerosis bilateral legs, diabetes with circulatory complication, hypertension

Question 8

Which of the following Medicare patients demonstrates the highest level of risk based on the above chart?

Options:

A.

65-year-old female, living at home, history includes diabetes type 2, obesity, and depression

B.

64-year-old female, living at home, disabled due to chronic pain, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, obesity, and depression

C.

72-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

D.

94-year-old female, living in skilled nursing facility, history includes diabetes type 2, peripheral neuropathy, morbid obesity, and depression

Question 9

Which of the following section(s) of the Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting are applicable to outpatient settings?

Options:

A.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines, and Chapter Specific Guidelines

B.

Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

C.

Section III, Reporting Additional Diagnoses; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

D.

Section I, Conventions, General Coding Guidelines and Chapter Specific Guidelines; and Section IV, Diagnostic Coding and Reporting Guidelines for Outpatient Services

Question 10

Which of the following is a strategy that is often used by ACOs to improve their performance in the Readmission Reduction program?

Options:

A.

Encourage providers to avoid reporting chronic conditions on subsequent admissions.

B.

Educate providers about the importance of capturing chronic conditions in documentation.

C.

Work with IT to increase the unspecified code choices in pick lists in the EHR.

D.

Flag qualifying patients upon arrival to ED to be placed in observation status vs. admission.

Question 11

For outpatient/provider services, the primary sources of coding authority include the ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, AHA’s Coding Clinic for ICD-10-CM/PCS, as well as which of the following?

Options:

A.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and AMA’s CPT Assistant

B.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS and ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting

C.

ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting and DRG Expert

D.

AHA’s Coding Clinic for HCPCS, ICD-10-PCS Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting, and DRG Expert

Question 12

A CDI specialist reviews the record of a patient with a history of CHF and DM Type 2 who was seen in the clinic earlier that day for possible bronchitis, fever, congestion, dyspnea, and cough. A chest x-ray indicated LLL infiltrate, and a nebulizer treatment was administered while in the office. Levofloxacin and albuterol were prescribed. Which of the following is MOST appropriate to query?

Options:

A.

Presence of pneumonia

B.

Diabetic complications

C.

Acuity of bronchitis

D.

Specificity of heart failure

Question 13

In a year over year comparison, the total number of patients with the more specific diagnosis of morbid obesity versus unspecified obesity increased from 10,000 patients to 11,000 patients. Which of the following is the hypothetical increase in yearly reserve for that patient population? (Morbid obesity HCC value = 0.186 and PMPM = $800.00)

Options:

A.

$148,800

B.

$3,291,200

C.

$1,785,600

D.

$17,785,600

Question 14

The majority of E/M services are based on which of the following criteria?

Options:

A.

New/established, site of service, and level of service

B.

New/established, site of service, and time

C.

New/established, physician specialty, and level of service

D.

New/established, level of service, and age of patient

Question 15

Given the following CMS-HCC categories, which is the correct order (highest to lowest) in the hierarchy?

Options:

A.

HCC 35, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 38

B.

HCC 38, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 35

C.

HCC 35, HCC 37, HCC 36, HCC 38

D.

HCC 38, HCC 36, HCC 37, HCC 35

Question 16

HCC category assignment methodology is similar to which of the following?

Options:

A.

DRG diagnostic categories

B.

835 claim submission

C.

ICD-10-PCS coding

D.

CPT coding

Question 17

A patient presents for a right inguinal herniorrhaphy in ambulatory surgery and is placed in observation status postoperatively. Provider documentation states: “Observation related to the post procedural urinary retention likely related to benign prostatic hyperplasia or adverse reaction to anesthesia.” From this documentation, which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

Urinary retention

B.

Benign prostatic hyperplasia

C.

Adverse reaction to anesthetic

D.

Right inguinal hernia

Question 18

The primary purpose of clinical documentation improvement (CDI) is to:

Options:

A.

Increase hospital reimbursement

B.

Ensure accurate and complete documentation reflecting patient severity and care provided

C.

Simplify the physician’s workflow

D.

Reduce coding workload

Question 19

A 76-year-old patient presents for a wellness visit. The patient’s vitals are BP 120/80, T 98.7, R 19, and there are no abnormal findings in the exam. The patient has COPD, home oxygen, anemia, hypertension, diabetes, fatigue, and weakness. The patient’s medications are called into the pharmacy and home health resource of choice. Which of the following is the BEST query option?

Options:

A.

Acute blood loss anemia

B.

Peripheral neuropathy

C.

Chronic respiratory failure

D.

CKD

Question 20

Based on previous documentation, which of the following diagnoses would a CDI specialist be MOST likely to bring to the provider’s attention in preparation for an upcoming visit of a 70-year-old patient?

Options:

A.

Epilepsy, chronic heart failure, and Crohn’s disease

B.

Chronic obstructive lung disease, T3 compression fracture, and s/p kidney transplant

C.

Family history of lung cancer, atrial fibrillation, and sickle cell

D.

Diabetes mellitus, syncopal episode, and pharyngitis

Question 21

Clinic documentation states: “Follow-up for post-induction chemotherapy for metastatic uterine cancer.” To BEST identify the conditions being monitored and treated, a CDI specialist should

Options:

A.

clarify the morphology of the tumor.

B.

evaluate diagnostic lab results.

C.

review the record for MRI results.

D.

query for secondary sites.

Question 22

Which of the following is the major difference between MIPS and APMs?

Options:

A.

MIPS participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and APM participation is voluntary.

B.

APM participation is required by eligible providers (non-participation results in a financial penalty), and MIPS participation is voluntary.

C.

MIPS and APM participation is voluntary by eligible providers.

D.

MIPS and APM participation is required of eligible providers.

Question 23

When compliantly querying providers, CDI specialists or HIM/coding professionals may

Options:

A.

offer diagnoses choices supported by documentation solely from previous encounters.

B.

identify which diagnoses are HCCs.

C.

offer a new diagnosis, that is supported by the clinical evidence, as an option in a multiple-choice query.

D.

omit clinical indicators in a query as this may be leading to the provider.

Question 24

Documentation states: “Patient with history of STEMI five weeks ago. Returning to office for follow-up. Problem list includes CAD, hypertension, heart failure, leukemia, malnutrition, and atrial fibrillation, all were relevant to the encounter. CBC and WBC reviewed and referred to oncologist. Follow-up with dietitian to further evaluate nutritional status.” Which of the following is the MOST impactful risk adjusted query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status (remission, or relapse) and acuity of leukemia

B.

Type (diastolic, systolic, combined) and acuity of heart failure

C.

Differentiation of atrial fibrillation (paroxysmal, persistent, permanent)

D.

Severity of the malnutrition (mild, moderate, severe)

Question 25

Which of the following coding guidelines is MOST important for a provider to understand when selecting diagnosis codes for an office visit as opposed to an inpatient stay?

Options:

A.

Chronic conditions only have to be coded once a year even if relevant to multiple encounters.

B.

First-listed diagnosis and principal diagnosis are synonymous terms.

C.

Documentation of uncertain diagnoses may not be assigned ICD-10-CM codes.

D.

Documentation is only required for the main reason of the office visit.

Question 26

A 75-year-old with a PMH of chronic foot ulcer, CKD, and depression is seen by his PCP for continued fatigue and decreased urination. Labs drawn on previous day are reviewed. Patient describes extreme fatigue and no motivation. Assessment and plan include: “CKD 3 with renal failure - refer to nephrologist. Chronic nonpressure foot ulcer - home care for wound assessment. Depression - Rx for SSRI.” Which of the following are the validated diagnoses that risk adjust and qualify as CMS-HCCs?

Options:

A.

Renal failure; CKD 3

B.

CKD 3; chronic non-pressure ulcer

C.

Depression; renal failure

D.

Chronic non-pressure ulcer; depression

Question 27

Upon retrospective review of a patient visit 2 weeks prior, a CDI specialist notes physician documentation stating the following: “Sick Sinus Syndrome in 2016 s/p pacemaker placement. Latest EKG shows normal paced rhythm.” There are no codes noted for Sick Sinus Syndrome or the pacemaker. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Capture code for pacemaker status only.

B.

Request the provider amend the codes to reflect the Sick Sinus Syndrome and pacemaker status.

C.

Educate the provider that a pacemaker status code as well as a Sick Sinus Syndrome code should be assigned.

D.

Ask the coder to re-bill based upon the documentation.

Question 28

An elderly patient with a PMH of CHF, DM type 1, arthritis, and HTN is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment after a recent hospitalization. After an evaluation of the patient's current health status, the provider documents the following: "HFrEF: lungs clear, no edema, continue meds. DM: no changes to insulin pump. Arthritis: asymptomatic joint destruction. HTN: BP stable. Continue meds." Which of the following is the clarification opportunity in the above scenario?

Options:

A.

The type and severity of heart failure

B.

A link between the DM and arthritis

C.

A link between HTN and heart failure

D.

The insulin status

Question 29

An 81-year-old is seen by his family physician for continued confusion and poor memory. PMH includes HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider reviews the neurologist’s consultation notes, evaluates the patient’s current mental state, and addresses the diagnoses of HTN, GERD, and Parkinson’s. The provider’s problem list included: Dementia, GERD, HTN, and Parkinson’s. Which of the following is the first-listed diagnosis?

Options:

A.

HTN

B.

GERD

C.

Dementia

D.

Parkinson’s

Question 30

A 67-year-old male patient has been seen by a PCP multiple times this year. Diagnoses reported are diabetes with nephropathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; diabetes with retinopathy with an HCC weight of 0.166; atrial fibrillation with an HCC weight of 0.299, and a demographic risk factor weight of 0.332. Which of the following is this patient’s final RAF score for these diagnoses?

Options:

A.

0.932

B.

0.797

C.

1.418

D.

0.678

Question 31

The primary purpose of the RADV program is to

Options:

A.

ensure risk-adjusted payment integrity and accuracy.

B.

verify medical necessity of care provided.

C.

identify over-payments rendered to individual physicians.

D.

support accuracy of Evaluation and Management billing.

Question 32

Which of the following lab values, when trended for greater than 3 months, indicates an objective measure of chronic kidney damage?

Options:

A.

BNP >1000 pg/mL

B.

GFR <60 ml/min

C.

BUN <12 mg/dL

D.

Glucose >100 mg/dL

Question 33

ICD-10-CM code assignment can be supported by documentation from someone other than the patient’s provider in which of the following circumstances?

Options:

A.

Anatomic site of previous amputation

B.

Type of obesity

C.

Stage of pressure ulcer

D.

Site of ostomy

Question 34

When reviewing physician metrics, a CDI specialist notes upward trends in the use of unspecified diagnoses. Which of the following diagnoses provides the BEST opportunity to positively influence the providers’ RAF score in the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Cystic fibrosis, unspecified

B.

Kaposi’s sarcoma, unspecified

C.

Arthropathic psoriasis, unspecified

D.

Angina pectoris, unspecified

Question 35

A female patient who underwent total hip replacement 2 weeks ago is in for a follow-up visit with her PCP. The visit note states: “Patient complains of fatigue and lethargy. Hgb on discharge was 10.4gm/dL - now is 8.6 gm/dL. Will start FeSO4 325mg po daily with food. Repeat H/H in 2 weeks. She has return visit with Ortho then.” Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the CDI specialist?

Options:

A.

Instruct the provider to add iron deficiency anemia to the problem list.

B.

Review the lab work referenced by the provider in the progress note for congruence.

C.

Query the provider for a diagnosis related to fatigue, decreased Hgb, and FeSO4.

D.

Add acute blood loss anemia to the diagnoses reported on the claim.

Question 36

A CDI specialist receives a call from a disgruntled provider regarding recent documentation queries. The provider claims to only have 15 minutes to see patients and does not have time for interruptions like this if it does not increase reimbursement. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to effectively facilitate communication?

Options:

A.

Explain to the provider that queries may affect reimbursement, however not directly, and he should comply.

B.

Listen to the provider, agree this does not affect reimbursement, and explain that the CDI team will stop querying.

C.

Request a time at the provider's convenience to review the query process and collaborate to facilitate the best workflow.

D.

Call the provider's superior and report him as being non-compliant with organizational processes.

Question 37

Which of the following BEST defines a risk score under the CMS-HCC model?

Options:

A.

Beneficiary's demographics and social determinants

B.

Beneficiary and family demographics

C.

Beneficiary's individual demographic and health status

D.

Beneficiary's health status and risk of mortality

Question 38

Which of the following is the MOST compliant provider query?

Options:

A.

“Noted that this patient is being referred for a colonoscopy. She has no documented GI symptoms and has a family history of colon cancer. When this patient is seen, please clarify whether this is a screening colonoscopy or diagnostic colonoscopy.”

B.

“The patient has a past medical history of CAD, HF, and COPD. Please document these conditions during the encounter today if they are still being treated.”

C.

“According to a visit last year, this patient has a history of alcohol use; quit two years ago; previously drank 6-9 beers daily, 10-12 beers on weekend. Patient now attends AA meetings. Is the patient’s alcohol use now in remission?”

D.

“Noted that the patient has skin that is ‘warm and dry with no rashes or lesions’; however, nursing documentation describes a ‘stage 3 sacral pressure ulcer’ requiring wet-to-dry dressing changes. Please add the pressure ulcer to your ED assessment note if appropriate.”

Question 39

A patient is evaluated in the primary care clinic for chest pain, slight shortness of breath, and mild nausea. Documentation includes an ECG and chest x-ray to rule out MI. Which of the following diagnoses are reportable?

Options:

A.

Angina pectoris, unspecified, shortness of breath, and nausea

B.

Rule out MI, shortness of breath, and nausea

C.

Acute MI, chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

D.

Other chest pain, shortness of breath, and nausea

Question 40

How does accurate documentation impact APC assignment in outpatient services?

Options:

A.

It has no effect

B.

It delays reimbursement

C.

It ensures appropriate APC assignment, impacting reimbursement

D.

It reduces coding accuracy

Question 41

A record review conducted prior to a primary care appointment indicates a patient has been followed for history of colon cancer. The patient is 18 months s/p bowel resection and is under treatment for LLE DVT, which required monitoring of INR - on Coumadin. The problem list also includes obesity, obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), COPD, and hypertension. Which of the following is the query opportunity?

Options:

A.

Status of ostomy

B.

Status of the sleep apnea

C.

Status of the COPD

D.

Status of colon cancer

Question 42

Which of the following is designed to reduce claims denials and appeals by providing one-on-one feedback to the provider to increase accuracy in specific areas?

Options:

A.

Recovery Audit Contractor

B.

Target Probe and Educate

C.

OIG Work Plan

D.

Comprehensive Error Rate Testing

Page: 1 / 14
Total 140 questions