Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers
An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?
Options:
The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of any patient, for any reason.
The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of a patient, as long as that refusal is not based on insurance status or other financial concerns.
The on-call physician is relieved of duty only if unavailable because of caring for another patient, or because of other circumstances outside the physician's control.
The on-call physician is never relieved of duty to accept a patient needing specialized services.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, obligations under the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA govern on-call physician responsibilities. When a hospital maintains an on-call roster to provide specialty services for emergency department patients, physicians listed on call are required to respond and participate in the evaluation and stabilization of patients with emergency medical conditions.
An on-call physician may only be relieved of duty if legitimately unavailable due to circumstances beyond their control, such as actively caring for another patient or being otherwise unable to respond in accordance with hospital policy. Refusal to treat for convenience or non-clinical reasons may constitute an EMTALA violation and expose both the hospital and physician to regulatory penalties.
A blanket right to refuse care is inconsistent with EMTALA requirements. While financial discrimination is prohibited, refusal for other non-justifiable reasons may still violate federal law. Conversely, stating that a physician is never relieved of duty is inaccurate, as legitimate unavailability may excuse performance under specific circumstances.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize compliance with EMTALA, proper on-call coverage policies, and documentation of availability. Therefore, the correct statement is that relief occurs only when the physician is unavailable due to circumstances outside their control.
The source of many medication errors is:
Options:
Verbal/telephone orders (when avoidable and not properly verified)
Patient wristbands
Elevator delays
Radiology scheduling
Answer:
AExplanation:
Verbal/telephone orders are widely recognized aserror-pronebecause they can be misheard, misunderstood, or transcribed incorrectly—especially with sound-alike drug names, confusing numerals (15 vs 50), background noise, accents, and interruptions. ISMP and patient safety advisories recommend minimizing verbal orders whenever possible and using safeguards such as read-back/confirm-back, spelling drug names, stating digits individually, and documenting promptly. Risk management objectives include reducing reliance on memory and imperfect communication by prioritizing written or electronic orders (CPOE), standardizing when verbal orders are permitted (true emergencies), and auditing compliance to prevent unsafe normalization. Because medication errors can cause severe harm, controlling verbal order risk is a high-yield safety intervention and improves legal defensibility by aligning practice with recognized safety recommendations.
Standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols used throughout the organization will likely result in improvement related to which of the following Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?
Options:
accuracy of patient identification
effectiveness of communication among caregivers
safety of using high-alert medications
medication reconciliation
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols directly supports the Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goal focused on improving the effectiveness of communication among caregivers. Inconsistent or ambiguous abbreviations can lead to misinterpretation of orders, delays in treatment, medication errors, and breakdowns in interdisciplinary communication.
The Joint Commission has historically emphasized the elimination of dangerous or error-prone abbreviations as part of its efforts to enhance clarity in documentation and verbal communication. By standardizing terminology and limiting the use of unapproved abbreviations, healthcare organizations reduce variability and promote accurate transfer of information during handoffs, documentation, and order entry.
While standardized terminology may indirectly support medication safety and reconciliation processes, its primary impact is on communication effectiveness. Accurate communication among caregivers is foundational to patient safety and reduces preventable adverse events resulting from misunderstanding or incomplete information.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize clear, consistent documentation and communication practices. Therefore, standardizing abbreviations and symbols most directly improves the effectiveness of communication among caregivers.
Which of the following items should be part of a claim file?
peer review reports or data
correspondence with attorneys and investigators
literature search
verification of settlement authority
Options:
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 3, and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, claim files must be carefully structured to preserve confidentiality, protect privilege, and support effective defense strategy. A claim file typically includes correspondence with attorneys and investigators, as this documentation reflects legal strategy, communications, and case development. Literature searches relevant to standards of care may also be included to assist counsel in evaluating clinical issues and expert testimony preparation. Verification of settlement authority is essential documentation to confirm that appropriate approvals were obtained before resolving a claim.
Peer review reports or data, however, should not be included in the claim file. Peer review materials are generally protected under state peer review statutes and federal patient safety privilege provisions. Commingling peer review documents within the claims file may jeopardize privilege protections and increase the risk of discoverability in litigation. Maintaining separation between peer review files and claim files is a critical risk management practice.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize preservation of privilege, organized documentation, and compliance with legal standards. Therefore, correspondence, literature searches, and settlement authority verification belong in the claim file, while peer review reports should be maintained separately.
The set of values, norms, guiding beliefs, and understandings that is shared by members of a healthcare organization and is taught to new members is
Options:
organizational culture.
corporate vision.
managerial ethics.
strategic mission.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management frameworks identified by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, organizational culture refers to the collective values, shared norms, guiding beliefs, and behavioral expectations that shape how members of a healthcare organization function. It influences decision-making, communication patterns, leadership styles, and responses to risk and safety concerns. Culture is transmitted formally through policies and training, and informally through leadership behavior, peer interactions, and organizational traditions.
Organizational culture plays a critical role in patient safety, compliance, and ethical conduct. A strong culture of safety encourages reporting of adverse events, supports transparency, and promotes continuous improvement. Conversely, a punitive or hierarchical culture may suppress reporting and increase liability exposure.
Corporate vision describes the aspirational future state of the organization. A strategic mission outlines the organization’s purpose and objectives. Managerial ethics refers to principles guiding leadership conduct. While these elements contribute to the broader organizational framework, they do not encompass the shared and socially transmitted system of norms and beliefs that define culture.
Therefore, the correct term describing shared and taught values and norms within a healthcare organization is organizational culture.
Ultimately, the accountability for the risk management program belongs to:
Options:
The board
The gift shop manager
A single bedside nurse
The parking contractor
Answer:
AExplanation:
Boards are ultimately accountable for oversight of organizational risk, including patient safety, quality, compliance, and financial sustainability. While executives and risk leaders manage day-to-day operations, board governance sets expectations, ensures resources, monitors performance, and holds leadership accountable for corrective action. Risk management objectives at the governance level include approving risk appetite, reviewing top enterprise risks, ensuring systems exist for event reporting and learning, and verifying that mitigation plans are implemented and effective. In litigation and regulatory scrutiny, board oversight can be a critical factor: a board that demands transparency, tracks harm signals, and supports safety investment strengthens the organization’s defensibility and reduces preventable harm.
A patient who has suffered a stroke is aphasic and unable to swallow. The physician would like to place a PEG tube for feeding. The patient is considered incapacitated and his wife consents to the treatment. The patient's adult children do not. The wife and oldest daughter each present a power of attorney document identifying them as the designated decision makers. To support the ethical principle of patient autonomy, which of the following should the risk manager recommend?
Options:
Check the dates on the documents; the one with the older date is the valid power of attorney.
Check the dates on the documents; the one with the more recent date is the valid power of attorney.
Tell the family to contact their respective counsel and return when they have worked this issue out.
Refer the matter to the Ethics Committee for resolution.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, patient autonomy is upheld by honoring valid advance directives and durable powers of attorney for healthcare. When multiple documents are presented that designate different decision makers, the most recent properly executed document typically supersedes earlier versions, unless state law provides otherwise.
Durable powers of attorney for healthcare may be revoked or replaced by executing a newer document. Therefore, determining the effective document requires reviewing execution dates and ensuring validity under applicable state statutes, including witnessing and notarization requirements. The document with the more recent date generally reflects the patient’s latest expressed wishes and controls decision-making authority.
Referring immediately to an ethics committee may be appropriate in unresolved value conflicts, but first establishing legal authority is essential. Asking the family to resolve the dispute independently delays necessary medical decisions and does not clarify legal standing. Selecting the older document would contradict the principle that later directives replace earlier ones.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize verification of surrogate authority, compliance with state advance directive laws, and protection of patient autonomy. Therefore, the risk manager should confirm which document is most recent and legally valid.
An organization's chief of orthopedics has scheduled an implant of a new artificial hip for the next day. The chief developed the artificial hip while working as a consultant for a medical device company. The device has not yet been approved by the FDA or the Institutional Review Board. The risk manager's best immediate course of action is to
Options:
contact the FDA to clarify the status of the device.
verify the informed consent for the procedure.
call a special meeting of the Institutional Review Board.
call the chief of surgery to discuss canceling the procedure.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the implantation of a medical device that lacks FDA approval and Institutional Review Board oversight presents significant legal and regulatory violations. Use of an unapproved device outside of an approved investigational protocol may violate federal regulations governing human subject research and medical device approval processes.
The risk manager’s primary responsibility is to immediately mitigate regulatory and liability exposure. Because the procedure is scheduled for the next day, urgent intervention is required. Contacting the FDA would not resolve the immediate risk. Verifying informed consent is insufficient, as patient consent cannot legitimize use of an unapproved device outside regulatory pathways. Calling a special IRB meeting would not retroactively authorize an unapproved device without appropriate investigational device exemption processes.
Escalating the issue to the chief of surgery to halt or cancel the procedure is the most appropriate immediate step. This ensures that organizational leadership addresses the compliance violation before patient harm occurs. Risk management objectives emphasize proactive prevention of regulatory breaches, protection of patient safety, and preservation of institutional integrity. Therefore, stopping the procedure is the correct and immediate action.
A hospital’s blood transfusions are99.7% error-free. Which function best estimates how many transfusions are likely before an error occurs?
Options:
Geometric distribution (time until first failure)
Multinomial distribution
Chi-square test
Linear regression
Answer:
AExplanation:
If each transfusion has an independent probability of error, the number of transfusions until thefirsterror is modeled by thegeometric distribution, which describes “trials until first failure.” The expected number of transfusions before an error is approximately, so. Risk management objectives use this type of reliability thinking to convert percentages into operational intuition: “Even a 0.3% error rate becomes a predictable event in high-volume processes.” That insight supports prioritizing controls (barcoding, two-person verification, bedside ID checks, standardized labeling, transfusion time-outs) because rare-event rates still produce real harm over time. Interpreting reliability this way also helps boards and leaders understand that “99.x%” can be unsafe in critical processes and that system redesign is often necessary to reach high reliability.
The ultimate goal of Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) is to:
Options:
Optimize risk mitigation and risk financing aligned to organizational objectives
Eliminate all risk permanently
Transfer all risk to patients
Replace clinical governance
Answer:
AExplanation:
ERM integrates clinical, operational, financial, legal, and strategic risks into a single governance approach so leadership can prioritize resources based on enterprise objectives—patient safety, quality, financial sustainability, and regulatory compliance. The goal is not “zero risk,” butoptimized risk response: reduce likelihood and severity where feasible, and alignrisk financing(insurance, reserves, captives, contractual transfer) to the organization’s risk appetite and volatility. Risk management objectives in healthcare ERM include strengthening high-reliability clinical systems, improving compliance, preventing reputational harm, and ensuring continuity of operations during crises. ERM also improves board oversight by providing a transparent risk register, consistent scoring, and accountability for mitigation plans. Ultimately, ERM is a decision system that helps leaders invest where risk reduction and value are highest.
Which of the following is the MOST likely root cause of medication errors in healthcare entities?
Options:
manual medication delivery systems
illegible physician handwriting
system or process failure
look-alike, sound-alike drugs
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and patient safety principles endorsed by The Joint Commission, the most likely root cause of medication errors is system or process failure. Modern patient safety frameworks emphasize that errors rarely result from isolated individual mistakes. Instead, they typically arise from weaknesses in processes, workflow design, communication systems, technology integration, or inadequate safeguards.
Illegible handwriting, manual systems, and look-alike or sound-alike drugs are recognized contributing factors. However, these elements represent components within a broader system. For example, illegible handwriting becomes problematic when standardized order entry systems are lacking. Look-alike medications pose risks when storage, labeling, or verification processes are insufficient. Manual medication delivery systems increase risk when redundancy and double-check mechanisms are absent.
Root cause analysis methodologies consistently demonstrate that unsafe system design, poor communication processes, lack of standardized procedures, and inadequate training contribute to medication errors. A systems-based approach aligns with just culture principles and focuses on improving processes rather than assigning individual blame.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize system redesign, standardization, and continuous quality improvement. Therefore, system or process failure is the most likely root cause of medication errors.
Which of the following concerns meets the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation 42 CFR §482.12 classification as a grievance?
Options:
a verbal complaint that cannot be solved by current staff, and the resolution of which is postponed for later
a patient calling regarding a billing issue requesting for adjustment to the charges
information obtained with a patient satisfaction survey
post-hospital verbal communication regarding a care issue that could have been handled by the staff during visit but was not reported
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation define a grievance as a formal or informal written or verbal complaint made by a patient or representative regarding care, abuse, neglect, compliance with regulations, or patient rights that is not resolved at the time of the complaint by staff present.
A verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately by current staff and whose resolution is postponed qualifies as a grievance under 42 CFR §482.12. Such grievances require formal investigation, documentation, and written response within established timeframes.
Billing issues generally fall outside the grievance definition unless they involve quality of care or patient rights concerns. Information from patient satisfaction surveys is not automatically classified as a grievance unless the patient specifically requests investigation or follow-up. Post-discharge verbal concerns may constitute grievances depending on context, but the key CMS criterion is whether the complaint could not be resolved at the time it was expressed.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize proper classification, timely response, documentation, and board oversight of grievance processes. Therefore, a verbal complaint that cannot be resolved immediately and is deferred meets CMS grievance criteria.
A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?
Options:
comparable verdicts in the county
the surgery center's claims history
the patient's total medical bills
amount of insurance allowed per occurrence
Answer:
AExplanation:
Within Health Care Risk Management practice as outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, establishing an accurate loss reserve requires an estimation of the probable financial exposure associated with a claim. A loss reserve represents the anticipated cost to resolve a claim, including indemnity payments and defense expenses.
Comparable verdicts in the county are particularly useful because they reflect jurisdiction-specific jury tendencies, local legal climate, and historical award patterns. Venue significantly influences claim valuation, as jury awards can vary substantially between counties and states. Reviewing similar case outcomes allows the claims manager to benchmark potential settlement or verdict ranges based on injury severity and liability factors.
The surgery center’s claims history may inform overall risk trends but does not directly determine the value of a specific claim. The patient’s total medical bills are relevant but represent only one component of damages and do not account for non-economic damages such as pain and suffering. The insurance limit per occurrence defines maximum exposure but does not guide the realistic reserve estimate unless damages approach policy limits.
Therefore, analysis of comparable local verdicts is most helpful in establishing an appropriate and defensible loss reserve.
Supervisors who conduct job interviews may ask which of the following questions?
Options:
Are you currently taking a prescription medication?
Do you plan to have children?
Can you meet the organization's attendance requirement?
Are you a citizen of the United States?
Answer:
CExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards aligned with ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, employment interview questions must comply with federal and state anti-discrimination laws, including the Americans with Disabilities Act ADA, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, the Pregnancy Discrimination Act, and the Immigration Reform and Control Act.
Questions about prescription medications may violate ADA provisions by eliciting information about potential disabilities prior to a conditional offer of employment. Asking whether a candidate plans to have children may constitute unlawful discrimination based on sex or family status. Inquiring directly about citizenship may violate federal employment eligibility standards; employers may instead ask whether the applicant is legally authorized to work in the United States.
In contrast, asking whether a candidate can meet the organization’s attendance requirements is permissible because it relates directly to essential job functions and business necessity. Employers may inquire about the ability to perform job-related duties, provided questions are applied consistently to all applicants and are not designed to screen out protected classes.
Legal and regulatory objectives emphasize nondiscriminatory hiring practices and adherence to equal employment laws. Therefore, questions regarding attendance requirements are appropriate in a job interview setting.
Aside from clinical risk exposures, which of the following should be evaluated as part of a risk assessment concerning telemedicine?
Options:
operational
behavioral
public awareness
financial
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, telemedicine risk assessment must extend beyond clinical quality of care to include operational risks. Operational considerations encompass technology infrastructure reliability, cybersecurity protections, credentialing and privileging of providers across state lines, licensing compliance, documentation workflows, data storage, and continuity planning for system outages.
Telemedicine platforms rely heavily on secure networks, interoperability with electronic health records, and protection of protected health information. Operational failures such as system downtime, inadequate bandwidth, or insufficient training can disrupt care delivery and increase liability exposure. Additionally, compliance with regulatory requirements regarding interstate practice and reimbursement policies falls within operational risk management.
Behavioral and public awareness considerations may influence patient engagement but are not primary risk assessment categories. Financial risks are relevant in enterprise risk management; however, the question specifically contrasts clinical risk exposures with other telemedicine-related risks, making operational risk the most directly applicable.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize comprehensive evaluation of technological, regulatory, and workflow factors in emerging service models. Therefore, operational risks should be evaluated alongside clinical exposures when assessing telemedicine programs.
An organization has recently changed insurance. The risk manager receives a claim from a former patient on July 3, 2004, claiming injury and alleging negligence by the surgery staff on September 5, 2003. Which of the following would apply to this claim?
a claims-made policy for the period 1/1/03 to 1/1/04 with a retro date of 1/1/02
an occurrence policy for the period 1/1/03 to 1/1/04
a claims-made policy for the period 1/1/03 to 1/1/04 with a 1-year tail coverage
an occurrence policy for the period 1/1/04 to 1/1/05
Options:
1 and 2 only
1 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
3 and 4 only
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, coverage determination depends on both the policy trigger and relevant dates. The alleged negligence occurred on September 5, 2003. Under an occurrence policy in effect from 1/1/03 to 1/1/04, coverage applies because the event occurred during that policy period, regardless of when the claim was filed. Therefore, option 2 applies.
For a claims-made policy covering 1/1/03 to 1/1/04, coverage would require that the claim be made and reported during the policy period unless tail coverage is in place. Because the claim was received on July 3, 2004, after expiration of the 1/1/03 to 1/1/04 claims-made policy, coverage would apply only if a 1-year tail was purchased. Thus, option 3 applies.
Option 1 would not apply because the claim was made after the claims-made policy period ended, and no tail is specified. Option 4 would not apply because occurrence coverage from 1/1/04 to 1/1/05 would not cover an event that occurred in 2003.
Risk financing objectives emphasize understanding policy triggers, reporting requirements, and tail coverage. Therefore, the applicable coverage scenarios are the occurrence policy for 2003 and the claims-made policy with tail coverage.
Which of the following risk management documents in a policy and procedure manual should be approved by an organization's board of directors?
Options:
philosophy regarding medical error management
risk management department's annual budget
risk analysis
departmental personnel job descriptions
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the governing board has ultimate responsibility for organizational oversight, quality of care, and patient safety. As part of its fiduciary and governance duties, the board approves high-level policies that establish the organization’s philosophy, strategic direction, and commitment to safety and risk management.
A philosophy regarding medical error management reflects the organization’s approach to disclosure, reporting, just culture principles, accountability, and system improvement. Because this philosophy sets the tone for organizational culture and impacts patient safety, legal exposure, and regulatory compliance, it requires board-level approval to ensure alignment with governance expectations and accreditation standards.
In contrast, the risk management department’s annual budget is typically approved through financial governance processes rather than as a policy document. Risk analyses are operational tools conducted by management and do not require board approval. Departmental personnel job descriptions are administrative documents managed at the executive or human resources level.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize board engagement in safety culture and oversight of enterprise risk management. Therefore, the philosophy regarding medical error management should be approved by the organization’s board of directors.
In preparing next year's budget, the hospital CFO has contacted the risk manager for a projected contribution to the hospital's professional and general liability self-insured retention fund. To respond to this request, the risk manager should refer to which of the following?
Options:
actuarial reports and loss runs
professional and general liability premiums
frequency and severity analyses of pending claims
total incurred losses for the current year
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, projecting contributions to a self-insured retention fund requires actuarially sound financial forecasting. Actuarial reports use historical claims data, trend analyses, loss development factors, and exposure projections to estimate future liabilities and required funding levels. Loss run reports provide detailed historical claims information, including paid losses, reserves, and claim status, which serve as foundational data for actuarial modeling.
Professional and general liability premiums are relevant to insured layers above the retention but do not determine funding requirements for the retained portion. Frequency and severity analyses of pending claims are important components of actuarial evaluation but, standing alone, may not capture long-tail development or incurred but not reported claims. Total incurred losses for the current year provide limited insight without considering historical patterns and future projections.
Risk financing objectives emphasize accurate funding of retained risk to ensure financial stability, regulatory compliance, and protection of organizational assets. Therefore, actuarial reports, supported by comprehensive loss run data, provide the most reliable basis for determining projected contributions to a self-insured retention fund.
An appropriate way to complete the verification read-back of a complete order, as required by The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, is to have the person receiving the order
Options:
write the information down before reading it back.
immediately repeat the information.
have a witness verify that the information is repeated back correctly.
document the date and time the order was received.
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and The Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals, the read-back process is designed to ensure accurate communication of verbal or telephone orders. The correct process requires the person receiving the order to first write down the complete order and then read it back to the prescribing practitioner for verification.
Writing the order down before reading it back reduces reliance on memory and decreases the risk of omission or transcription errors. The practitioner who gave the order must then confirm that the read-back is accurate. This closed-loop communication process enhances patient safety and reduces medication and treatment errors associated with miscommunication.
Immediately repeating the information without documenting it does not meet the full verification requirement, as the written record must be confirmed. A witness is not required under the standard. Documenting the date and time is necessary for proper charting but does not constitute completion of the read-back verification itself.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize clear, structured communication processes. Therefore, writing the information down before reading it back is the appropriate method to complete the verification process.
What significantly impacts whether incident reports are discoverable?
Options:
State statutes, federal statutes, and case law
The color of the incident form
The patient’s insurance plan
Staff seniority
Answer:
AExplanation:
Discoverability of incident reports varies substantially by jurisdiction and depends on how state and federal laws define peer review privilege, quality improvement protections, and confidentiality—plus how courts interpret those protections. Risk management objectives include structuring reporting and investigation workflows to maximize protected quality review where legally available: routing analyses through designated committees, labeling and handling documents per policy, limiting distribution, and avoiding mixing risk/peer review materials with ordinary business records. However, privilege is not automatic; mishandling (broad email distribution, using reports for disciplinary actions outside protected structures, inconsistent committee practices) can weaken protections. A defensible program uses legal counsel guidance, staff training, and clear documentation rules so the organization learns from events while reducing unnecessary legal exposure.
Which of the following are common techniques used to include patients and families in programs to educate patients about their safety?
lay persons on select committees
patient education opportunities
patient events referred for peer review
event reporting by patients and families
Options:
1, 2, and 3 only
1, 2, and 4 only
1, 3, and 4 only
2, 3, and 4 only
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, patient and family engagement is a critical element of patient safety programs. Including lay persons on select committees, such as patient safety or quality committees, allows patients and families to contribute perspectives that enhance transparency and system improvement. Structured patient education opportunities empower individuals to understand their care, ask questions, and actively participate in safety practices, such as medication verification and infection prevention.
Event reporting by patients and families is another proactive strategy that promotes open communication and early identification of safety concerns. Encouraging patients to report perceived errors or near misses supports a culture of safety and partnership.
Referring patient events for peer review is an internal professional evaluation process focused on provider performance and quality improvement. While important for clinical oversight, it is not a technique designed to directly include patients and families in educational safety programs.
Clinical and patient safety objectives emphasize collaboration, transparency, and patient-centered care. Therefore, inclusion of lay persons on committees, patient education initiatives, and patient or family event reporting are appropriate techniques for involving patients in safety programs.
Which of the following is the most reliable measure of the effectiveness of an educational program?
Options:
analysis of written evaluations
observable changes in human behavior
reduced frequency of claims or suits
reduced severity of claims or suits
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles endorsed by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the effectiveness of an educational program is best measured by demonstrated changes in behavior rather than by subjective or indirect outcomes. Educational initiatives in healthcare risk management aim to improve compliance, enhance patient safety practices, and modify unsafe behaviors.
Analysis of written evaluations primarily reflects participant satisfaction and perceived value of the program, but does not confirm that learning objectives were achieved or that behaviors changed. Reductions in claim frequency or severity are important organizational outcomes; however, these are influenced by multiple variables beyond education alone, including patient volume, case complexity, legal climate, and system-level interventions. Therefore, claims data are indirect and delayed measures.
Observable changes in human behavior, such as improved adherence to safety protocols, increased incident reporting, or consistent compliance with documentation standards, provide direct evidence that learning has translated into practice. Risk management objectives emphasize measurable performance improvement, competency validation, and alignment with patient safety goals.
Thus, observable behavioral change is the most reliable and immediate indicator that an educational program has achieved its intended effect.
When a hospital notes that most errors are occurring at the “sharp end,” what does that mean?
Options:
Errors are occurring in billing and contracting
Errors occur during direct caregiver–patient interaction (frontline care)
Errors occur only in device manufacturing
Errors are exclusively leadership decisions
Answer:
BExplanation:
The “sharp end” refers to the point in a system where clinicians directly interact with patients and deliver care—nurses administering medications, physicians performing procedures, therapists mobilizing patients, and so on. Errors at the sharp end are typicallyactive failuresthat are immediately visible, but they are often shaped by “blunt end” factors—staffing levels, training, equipment design, policies, and workflow constraints. Risk management objectives discourage blaming the sharp end alone; instead, they use incident analysis (RCA) to identify latent system conditions that make frontline errors more likely. Improving sharp-end safety includes standardization, teamwork tools (SBAR/TeamSTEPPS), human factors engineering, and reducing hazardous variability in processes. This systems approach helps prevent repeat events and supports a just culture where learning is prioritized while accountability is preserved for reckless conduct.
Which of the following should prompt a risk manager to give notice to a malpractice carrier?
Options:
written medical record request from an attorney
demand letter from a patient
internal incident report
disclosure to a patient
Answer:
BExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles established by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, timely notice to a malpractice carrier is a critical obligation, particularly under claims-made policies. A demand letter from a patient constitutes a clear assertion of liability and a request for compensation, which typically meets the definition of a claim under most malpractice insurance policies. Failure to notify the carrier promptly may jeopardize coverage.
A written medical record request from an attorney may signal potential litigation, but it does not necessarily constitute a claim unless accompanied by an allegation of wrongdoing or a demand for damages. An internal incident report is a risk management tool used for quality and safety improvement and does not itself trigger insurance notification requirements. Similarly, disclosure to a patient regarding an adverse event aligns with transparency practices but does not automatically represent a formal claim.
Risk management objectives emphasize understanding policy language, particularly definitions of claim and reporting requirements. Because a demand letter explicitly alleges harm and seeks compensation, it most clearly triggers the duty to notify the malpractice carrier to preserve coverage and initiate appropriate claims handling procedures.
The first layer of insurance that will respond to a specific type of loss or exposure is called
Options:
baseline.
foundation.
primary.
frontline.
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, insurance coverage for liability exposures is often structured in layers. The first layer of insurance that responds to a covered loss is known as the primary policy.
Primary insurance provides initial coverage once any applicable deductible or self-insured retention has been satisfied. It is responsible for defense and indemnity payments up to the policy’s stated per-occurrence and aggregate limits. Only after the primary policy limits are exhausted do excess or umbrella policies respond.
Terms such as baseline, foundation, and frontline are not recognized technical classifications in layered insurance structures. In professional and general liability programs, organizations commonly maintain a primary layer followed by one or more excess layers to protect against catastrophic losses.
Risk financing objectives emphasize understanding policy structure, limits, attachment points, and coordination between layers to ensure adequate protection of organizational assets. Therefore, the correct term for the first layer of insurance that responds to a loss is the primary policy.
An emergency department physician has evaluated and stabilized a patient who needs a sign language interpreter. The on-call physician is consulted for admission. Which of the following regulatory laws are most relevant?
Options:
ADA and EMTALA/COBRA
HCQIA and ADA
EMTALA/COBRA and HIPAA
HIPAA and HCQIA
Answer:
AExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, two federal laws are most directly implicated in this scenario: the Americans with Disabilities Act ADA and the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act EMTALA, formerly enacted under COBRA.
EMTALA requires hospitals with emergency departments to provide an appropriate medical screening examination, stabilization of emergency medical conditions, and appropriate transfer or admission regardless of ability to pay. Since the emergency physician has evaluated and stabilized the patient and the on-call physician is being consulted for admission, EMTALA obligations remain central to ensuring compliant continuation of care.
The ADA is also directly relevant because it mandates that health care organizations provide reasonable accommodations to individuals with disabilities, including effective communication. For a patient requiring a sign language interpreter, the hospital must provide appropriate auxiliary aids and services to ensure meaningful access to care.
HIPAA relates primarily to privacy and protected health information, while HCQIA addresses peer review immunity and credentialing matters. Therefore, ADA and EMTALA are the most relevant regulatory frameworks in this case.
What is one advantage of avoluntaryerror reporting system over amandatoryerror reporting system?
Options:
Voluntary systems guarantee legal privilege in all states
Voluntary systems typically elicit more frontline reports and near-misses
Voluntary systems eliminate the need for root cause analysis
Voluntary systems replace peer review and credentialing
Answer:
BExplanation:
Voluntary reporting systems often generatemore reports, especially ofnear-misses and low-harm events, because staff perceive less punitive risk and greater learning value. This is crucial for proactive risk management: near-misses expose weak signals and system vulnerabilities before a patient is harmed. A robust voluntary culture supports a “just culture” approach—encouraging reporting while still holding people accountable for reckless behavior. Compared with mandatory systems (typically limited to defined serious events), voluntary systems improve the organization’s ability to identify patterns (communication failures, workflow traps, labeling issues, staffing risks), prioritize interventions, and measure improvement over time. Risk management objectives include earlier hazard detection, better trend analysis, and stronger safety culture. To maximize effectiveness, leadership must provide feedback loops (“you reported, we improved”), protect confidentiality where permitted, and couple reporting with structured analysis (RCA/FMEA). While voluntary reporting does not automatically confer legal privilege, it is a foundational learning system in high-reliability healthcare operations.
An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is
Options:
an arbitration.
a mediation.
a jury trial.
a judge trial.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, mediation is a form of alternative dispute resolution designed to facilitate voluntary settlement between parties. In mediation, a neutral third party assists disputing parties in communicating, clarifying issues, and exploring mutually acceptable resolutions. The mediator does not impose a binding decision but guides negotiation toward compromise and reconciliation.
Arbitration differs in that the neutral arbitrator typically renders a decision that may be binding, depending on the agreement between parties. Jury trials and bench trials involve formal court proceedings where a judge or jury determines liability and damages based on legal standards and evidence. These processes are adversarial and result in judicial determinations rather than negotiated compromise.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize cost containment, early resolution, and reduction of adversarial conflict when appropriate. Mediation can reduce defense expenses, shorten case duration, and preserve professional relationships. It also provides greater confidentiality and flexibility than courtroom litigation.
Therefore, the intervention specifically intended to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise between parties is mediation.
Which of the following are proactive elements of a workplace violence prevention program?
Options:
pre-employment background screening, training, rounding, and active shooter drills
de-escalation, law enforcement notification, restraining order, and victim support
notification to Drug Enforcement Agency of drug theft and crisis intervention
medical record documentation of events and emergency command center activation
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, proactive workplace violence prevention focuses on measures implemented before an incident occurs. These strategies aim to identify risks, strengthen preparedness, and reduce the likelihood or severity of violent events.
Pre-employment background screening helps identify applicants with histories that may pose safety concerns, consistent with legal hiring standards. Ongoing staff training enhances awareness of warning signs, communication skills, and reporting procedures. Leadership rounding increases visibility, supports early identification of environmental or behavioral risks, and reinforces safety culture. Active shooter drills and emergency preparedness exercises ensure that staff understand response protocols and can act effectively under stress.
Options B, C, and D primarily describe reactive or post-incident measures. Law enforcement notification, restraining orders, crisis intervention, DEA notification, documentation, and emergency command activation occur after an event has taken place or when an immediate threat is present.
Health Care Operations objectives emphasize prevention, preparedness, environmental assessment, and workforce education as foundational elements of a workplace violence program. Therefore, pre-employment screening, training, rounding, and drills represent proactive components of an effective prevention strategy.
For a liability claim to succeed, the claimant must establish duty owed, duty breached, proximate cause, and
Options:
contributory negligence.
injury sustained.
punitive damages.
gross negligence.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Under Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, a successful negligence claim requires proof of four essential legal elements: duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages. Duty refers to the legal obligation owed by the healthcare provider to the patient. Breach occurs when the provider fails to meet the applicable standard of care. Proximate cause establishes the direct link between the breach and the harm suffered.
The final required element is actual injury or damages sustained by the claimant. Without demonstrable harm, a negligence claim cannot succeed, even if duty and breach are proven. The injury may include physical harm, emotional distress, or financial loss, but it must be measurable and attributable to the breach.
Contributory negligence is a defense that may reduce or bar recovery but is not an element the claimant must prove. Punitive damages are awarded in exceptional cases involving egregious misconduct and are not required to establish liability. Gross negligence represents a higher degree of negligence but is not a required element in standard malpractice claims.
Therefore, proof of injury sustained is essential for a liability claim to succeed.
A risk manager is investigating a claim that has been submitted to the malpractice carrier. There is some question as to whether or not there is coverage under the current malpractice policy. What might the risk manager expect to receive from the malpractice carrier?
Options:
contingent acknowledgement of coverage
reservation of rights letter
notice of right to deny coverage
notice of right to rescind
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, when an insurer identifies potential issues regarding coverage under a liability policy, it commonly issues a reservation of rights letter. This letter informs the insured that the carrier will proceed with investigation or defense of the claim while reserving its right to later deny coverage if policy exclusions, conditions, or other limitations apply.
A reservation of rights protects the insurer from waiving its ability to contest coverage while fulfilling its duty to defend, depending on policy language. It also alerts the insured to potential conflicts of interest and may permit the insured to seek independent counsel in certain jurisdictions.
A contingent acknowledgment of coverage is not a standard legal instrument. A notice of right to deny coverage would typically follow a full coverage determination rather than precede it. A notice of right to rescind involves voiding a policy, usually due to material misrepresentation during underwriting, which is distinct from a routine coverage question.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize careful review of policy terms and timely communication with insurers. Therefore, when coverage is uncertain, the risk manager should expect to receive a reservation of rights letter from the malpractice carrier.
Documentation that assists with defense of a malpractice claim
Options:
contains subjective comments about the patient.
describes the provider’s clinical decision-making process.
is not important if the claim happened in prior years.
does not need to be complete or timely.
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management principles outlined by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, high-quality clinical documentation is critical in defending malpractice claims. The medical record serves as the primary evidence of care provided and reflects whether the standard of care was met.
Documentation that clearly describes the provider’s clinical decision-making process is particularly valuable in litigation. It demonstrates assessment findings, differential diagnoses, rationale for chosen interventions, informed consent discussions, and follow-up plans. Thorough documentation provides objective support for clinical judgments and establishes a defensible narrative of care.
Subjective or disparaging comments about the patient can undermine credibility and may be harmful in court. Complete and timely documentation is essential; delayed or incomplete entries may suggest negligence or alteration. Additionally, documentation remains important regardless of when a claim arises, as statutes of limitation may allow claims to be filed years after the event, especially in cases involving minors or discovery rules.
Claims and litigation objectives emphasize accurate, objective, and contemporaneous recordkeeping to reduce liability exposure. Therefore, documentation that clearly outlines the provider’s clinical reasoning best assists in defending a malpractice claim.
A clear directive to a nurse is:
Options:
“Be careful.”
“Monitor the infusion pump’s operation at defined intervals and document checks.”
“Do your best.”
“If you have time, look at it.”
Answer:
BExplanation:
Clear directives are specific, measurable, and time-bound—reducing ambiguity and variability that drive frontline error. “Monitor every so often” becomes safer when translated into a defined interval (e.g., every 15 minutes for the first hour, then hourly), with documentation requirements and escalation triggers. Risk management objectives emphasize standard work and reliable monitoring for high-risk equipment such as infusion pumps because device malfunction or programming errors can rapidly cause harm. Clear directives also support accountability and defensibility: they demonstrate the organization defined expectations and trained staff accordingly. Vague instructions (“be careful”) do not reliably change behavior or outcomes. In high-reliability care, clarity is a safety barrier: it reduces cognitive load, prevents missed steps, and improves handoffs between staff by making the plan visible and verifiable.
Which of the following isnotone of the patient rights enumerated in the Patient Self-Determination Act (PSDA)?
Options:
The right to receive information about advance directives
The right to participate in decisions about medical care
The right to refuse treatment through an advance directive (where applicable)
The right to select any medication the patient wants
Answer:
DExplanation:
The PSDA focuses onpatient autonomy and informed decision-making, especially aroundadvance directives. It requires certain healthcare organizations to inform patients of their rights under state law to make decisions about medical care, ask whether the patient has an advance directive, document it, and avoid discrimination based on whether an advance directive exists. The Act doesnotcreate a right for patients to select any medication they want irrespective of clinical appropriateness, prescribing laws, formularies, allergies, contraindications, or standards of care. Risk management objectives here include: ensuring compliant admission workflows (education + documentation), reducing disputes through early clarification of preferences, and preventing ethical/legal breakdowns during incapacity. Operationally, PSDA compliance improves care planning, reduces unwanted treatment, and lowers complaint/litigation risk by showing the organization respected patient rights and followed required processes.
A risk manager is reviewing the professional liability insurance policy for the limits of liability. Which of the following should the risk manager review FIRST?
Options:
conditions
exclusions
declaration
insuring agreement
Answer:
CExplanation:
According to Health Care Risk Management standards supported by ASHRM and the American Hospital Association Certification Center, the declarations page is the first section a risk manager should review when assessing limits of liability in a professional liability insurance policy. The declarations page summarizes key policy information, including named insureds, policy period, coverage types, limits of liability per occurrence and aggregate, deductibles or self-insured retentions, endorsements, and premium details.
Because the question focuses specifically on limits of liability, the declarations page provides the most direct and concise statement of coverage limits. It serves as the policy’s summary and reference point for determining financial exposure and coverage structure.
The insuring agreement defines the scope of coverage and triggers for defense and indemnity obligations but does not list specific limit amounts. Exclusions outline what is not covered, and conditions specify policyholder responsibilities such as notice and cooperation requirements. While all sections are important for comprehensive review, the declarations page is the appropriate starting point when verifying coverage limits.
Risk financing objectives emphasize careful policy analysis to ensure alignment between coverage limits and organizational risk exposure. Therefore, the declarations page should be reviewed first when assessing limits of liability.