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ASQ CSQE Dumps

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Total 280 questions

Certified Software Quality Engineer Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When a software system will be required to manage confidential information, the security protection mechanisms for the system should be designed so that

Options:

A.

the effort to penetrate the system costs more than the value of the information obtained

B.

passwords needed for system access must be changed on an annual basis and may not be reused

C.

passwords cannot be shared in the end-user environment

D.

users who do not have administrative rights are locked out of the system during non-working hours

Question 2

Which of the following levels of control should be assigned when a software failure may result directly in a mishaps

Options:

A.

LOC I - Autonomous Time Critical

B.

LOC Ila - Autonomous Not Tune Critical

C.

LOC nib - Operator Controlled

D.

LOC IV - Not Safety Software

Question 3

During a joint application development (JAD) session, the group uncovers a controversial and sensitive issue. Which of the following techniques will provide a structure to help resolve the issue?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Effort/Impact grid

C.

Smoothing

D.

Nominal group technique

Question 4

Which of the following is most often the focus of testing in an organization with a mature testing strategy?

Options:

A.

Complete testing to identify product defects

B.

Functional testing to prove a product is correct

C.

Testing the products throughout the development cycle

D.

Extensive strategic beta testing with a selected group of customers

Question 5

An organization uses the plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle to align its processes to an international quality standard, which of the following activities would be performed during the " act " step?

Options:

A.

Identifying actions to be performed during the pilot

B.

Performing internal audits of the system

C.

Making quality system revisions

D.

Documenting the problems to present to management

Question 6

A software product is being developed for validating retail sales transactions that include cash, checks, and credit or debit cards. What type of testing should be performed from the cashier’s perspective?

Options:

A.

Unit testing

B.

Alpha testing

C.

Usability testing

D.

Performance testing

Question 7

Which of the following activities is classified as data collection and storage?

Options:

A.

Installing and administering data technology

B.

Supporting data technology usage and related issues

C.

Confirming adequacy, uniqueness, and consistency of data

D.

Providing mechanisms that support data availability requirements

Question 8

When lines of code are used as a software metric, counting rules must be based on

Options:

A.

criteria established by the requirements

B.

predefined criteria

C.

a line-by-line code review

D.

module interfaces

Question 9

Which of the following methods is an example of dynamic analysis?

Options:

A.

Piloting

B.

Peer reviews

C.

Quality gates

D.

Mathematical proofs

Question 10

Which of the following measures describes the number of independent linear paths through a module?

Options:

A.

Lines of code

B.

Function points

C.

Defect density

D.

Cyclomatic complexity

Question 11

Unit testing validates

Options:

A.

software requirements

B.

top-level design

C.

module code

D.

system design

Question 12

Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for mitigating the risk of releasing patches to software?

Options:

A.

Partial releases

B.

Software rebuilds

C.

Regression testing

D.

Configuration management

Question 13

Which of the following goals is important when a defect tracking system is being established?

Options:

A.

Collecting as much data as possible

B.

Defining how to classify the defects

C.

Approving the test team’s validation plan

D.

Determining how to prevent defects

Question 14

If N equals the number of defects originating and found in phase X, and S equals the number of defects originating in phase X and found in subsequent phases, which of the following represents the efficiency rate of error detection for phase X?

Options:

A.

(N + S) / N

B.

N / (N + S)

C.

N × S

D.

N / (N − S)

Question 15

When modifications are made to a software system, which of the following tools is helpful for determining appropriate verification and validation tasks?

Options:

A.

Affinity diagram

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Cause and effect diagram

D.

Requirements traceability matrix

Question 16

Which of the following types of test coverage is most appropriate when the objective is to determine if the software has any problems handling all the required possible hardware and software designs?

Options:

A.

State

B.

Interface

C.

Data domain

D.

Platform configuration

Question 17

Which of the following functions is the first step for effective software configuration management?

Options:

A.

Configuration control

B.

Configuration status accounting

C.

Configuration audits and reviews

D.

Configuration item identification

Question 18

During an audit, the lead auditor’s primary responsibility is to

Options:

A.

decide which procedures are to be audited

B.

collect data and materials presented during the audit

C.

keep the audit team focused on the audit scope

D.

develop and distribute the audit checklist

Question 19

The following graph depicts errors per 1,000 lines of code (KLOC) for modules S, T, U, and V.

as

as

The program manager should be most concerned about which module?

Options:

A.

S

B.

T

C.

U

D.

V

Question 20

Which of the following statements would meet the requirements for developing an appropriate quality objective for software products?

Options:

A.

“Develop 100 lines of code per staff, per month.”

B.

“Reduce cost of rework by 15% by the end of the fourth quarter.”

C.

“Increase profit margins and gains for each new or revised product release.”

D.

“Increase process inspections to meet international standards for software performance.”

Question 21

Software security is developed to address which of the following types of communication threats?

Options:

A.

Intentional attacks

B.

Unintentional attacks

C.

Physical attacks

D.

Natural disasters

Question 22

Which of the following modules will require the most test cases to ensure path coverage?

Options:

A.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 8, LOC: 100

B.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 10, LOC: 500

C.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 12, LOC: 100

D.

Cyclomatic Complexity: 20, LOC: 400

Question 23

In order to reduce inconvenience for customers during a maintenance phase, support staff should concentrate on fixing

Options:

A.

all known defects

B.

minor defects only

C.

defects that affect the “vital few” customers

D.

defects that impact essential operations

Question 24

Under design control, the design phase should proceed until

Options:

A.

system elements of the smallest structure are defined and specified

B.

the developers understand the level of work expected

C.

the allocated time for system design has been reached

D.

every possible design variation has been explored

Question 25

A requirements change impact analysis should be performed when

Options:

A.

configuration items are placed under formal change control

B.

configuration items are marked as baselined

C.

a change has been approved by the change control board (CCB)

D.

a change is being reviewed by the change control board (CCB)

Question 26

Rank in order, from first to last, the following steps in creating an affinity diagram.

    Conduct an interview, focus group, or brainstorming session

    Draw a diagram

    Group similar statements

    Identify themes

Options:

A.

1, 3, 4, 2

B.

1, 4, 2, 3

C.

2, 1, 4, 3

D.

2, 4, 1, 3

Question 27

Which of the following factors is important in a software product m terms of its adaptability?

Options:

A.

Efficiency

B.

Accessibility

C.

Trainability

D.

Portability

Question 28

Code coverage analyzers are useful for ensuring which of the following?

Options:

A.

Requirements completeness

B.

Design traceability

C.

Test case effectiveness

D.

Code cohesion

Question 29

Which of the following baselines starts the maintenance phase of the lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Allocated

C.

Functional

D.

Developmental

Question 30

Which of the following is a management practice that will provide business continuity?

Options:

A.

Creating and documenting a business continuity’ plan

B.

Defining an organizational policy for business continuity

C.

Analyzing and assessing the organization for business continuity’

D.

Identifying and selecting appropriate strategies for business continuity

Question 31

A test team is tasked to test an application that creates a large volume of reports. During regression testing, which of the following tools should the team use to assure that the application continues to produce the appropriate reports?

Options:

A.

A file format conversion tool

B.

A file comparison tool

C.

A string finding tool

D.

A keyboard capture and replay tool

Question 32

Under which of the following major Cost of Quality categories would testing a software upgrade be classified?

Options:

A.

Appraisal

B.

Prevention

C.

Internal failure

D.

External failure

Question 33

When performing top-down testing, which of the following tools is used in place of a module that is not yet developed?

Options:

A.

Stubs

B.

Driver

C.

Hamess

D.

Test script

Question 34

Which of the following cultures would allow an organization ' s DevOps team to be most effective?

Options:

A.

A cross-functional, opaque culture without silos

B.

A cross-functional, transparent culture with silos

C.

An aligned collaborative, transparent culture with silos

D.

An aligned collaborative, transparent culture without silos

Question 35

To increase the likelihood of the success of a software project, the project plan should meet which of the following requirements?

Options:

A.

It should be completed before the project activities begin.

B.

It should be reviewed and updated at each phase of the project.

C.

It should be developed by an independent software developer

D.

It should be approved by the steering committee.

Question 36

Which of the following problem-solving tools is most appropriate for breaking down ideas into progressively greater detail?

Options:

A.

Tree diagram

B.

Matrix diagram

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Relationship diagram

Question 37

Maintenance activities are commonly characterized as

Options:

A.

technological

B.

definitive

C.

corrective

D.

predictive

Question 38

Which of the following tools should be used to identify the steps in the development process that are the source of the most software defects?

Options:

A.

Run chart

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Scatter diagram

D.

Control chart

Question 39

Which of the following types of meetings is structured most like a program review meeting?

Options:

A.

Daily feedback

B.

Scrum of Scrums

C.

Iteration planning

D.

Backlog refinement

Question 40

A strong customer feedback management process primarily helps an organization improve

Options:

A.

profitability

B.

existing products

C.

company stock price

D.

software development time

Question 41

A function point analysis uses counts of which of the following elements^

Options:

A.

Data definitions

B.

Physical lines

C.

Executable lines

D.

External inquiries

Question 42

Which of the following benefits is associated with using the iterative model?

Options:

A.

It can be tailored to the needs of the project and organization.

B.

It does not require knowledge of all the requirements up front.

C.

It correlates directly to the deliverables of software development.

D.

It focuses on exploring options early by feedback through prototyping

Question 43

Which of the following actions can a company take to reduce the risk associated with integrating a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) spreadsheet package into its own software product?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to adhere to the keens mg agreement for product fixes.

B.

Audit the vendor ' s quality- system.

C.

Require the vendor to place the object code into escrow.

D.

Test the product to determine whether it satisfies critical functions.

Question 44

Which of the following diagrams is most appropriate for showing the relationship between software design input requirements and software design output?

Options:

A.

Tree

B.

Matrix

C.

Affinity

D.

Ishikay

Question 45

Upon receipt of a new software deliver}-, which of the following tests should be executed to ensure the software operates in the target environment?

Options:

A.

Release

B.

Integration

C.

Installation

D.

Acceptance

Question 46

Which of the following sources is most likely to contain the information needed to propose a software correction?

Options:

A.

Physical configuration audit report

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

Customer satisfaction survey

D.

Software problem report

Question 47

During the requirements planning stage, management ' s responsibility is to

Options:

A.

provide effort estimates for implementation

B.

ensure that appropriate stakeholders are involved

C.

confirm customer requirements

D.

define the quality criteria for the project

Question 48

In lean software development extra features should be identified as

Options:

A.

potential re-use elements

B.

an internal cost of quality

C.

defects

D.

waste

Question 49

Which of the following baselines defines the list of prioritized, known stories at the beginning of each iteration?

Options:

A.

Release

B.

Allocated

C.

Developmental

D.

Product backlog

Question 50

Which of the following skills is a component of active listening?

Options:

A.

Formulating questions

B.

Planning a response

C.

Taking notes

D.

Paraphrasing the speaker

Question 51

In the following control diagram, all paths are feasible and the decisions are not correlated to each other.

as

How many rests are necessary for branch coverage?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

6

D.

8

Question 52

In the archival process, retention of historical records is

Options:

A.

not required

B.

set for at least 2 years

C.

needed for all documents

D.

specified by the organization

Question 53

Which of the following charts is designed to monitor variation over time in a process?

Options:

A.

Gantt

B.

Pareto

C.

Run

D.

Radar

Question 54

Which of the following lifecycle models is designed to mitigate risks during development?

Options:

A.

Incremental

B.

Spiral

C.

Waterfall

D.

Rapid application development

Question 55

Concurrently developing software primarily requires more

Options:

A.

rigid version control

B.

robust change control

C.

extensive impact analysis

D.

detailed requirement tracking

Question 56

Which of the following libraries is used to archive intermediate baselines?

Options:

A.

Static

B.

Backup

C.

Dynamic

D.

Controlled

Question 57

A software requirements specification (SRS) for software that is part of multiple systems should include which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Training requirements

B.

System quality characteristics

C.

Physical requirements

D.

External interfaces

Question 58

After test procedures have been executed and problems have been identified, the next step should be to

Options:

A.

begin updating the test cases and perform a retest

B.

release the product to the customer

C.

implement appropriate changes to the code

D.

develop plans to resolve the issues reported

Question 59

What type of technology- is designed to provide organizational partners with real-time access to information on a business-to-business architecture?

Options:

A.

Embedded system

B.

Encrypted email

C.

Extranet

D.

Internet

Question 60

According to situational leadership models, which of the following styles is appropriate to use with employees who lack knowledge and confidence?

Options:

A.

Directing

B.

Delegating

C.

Selling

D.

Participating

Question 61

The use of a rigorous mathematical proof to analyze the algorithm of a software component is a feature of

Options:

A.

boundary value analysis

B.

functional decomposition

C.

dynamic analysis

D.

formal methods

Question 62

Which of the following outputs is most likely to result from a sprint retrospective?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder feedback

B.

Refined product backlog

C.

Product enhancement request

D.

Continuous improvement action

Question 63

Which of the following examples is the most appropriate product-level attribute template for a system determined to be safety-critical software?

Options:

A.

The system shall react to < type of accident or hazardous condition > by performing < type of action! s) >

B.

The system shall < time out, log out. lock > access to < data, asset, function > after < defined time period > of inactivity

C.

< quantity > of user < error type > mistakes made by a < user type or role > per < time unit > under < defined conditions >

D.

< mean time or average time > for a < defined product or component > to experience < defined failure type > under < defined conditions >

Question 64

Which of the following best describes how an auditor should proceed when a deficiency similar to deficiencies found during audits at other companies is uncovered?

Options:

A.

Cite as many of the other examples as necessary to help the auditee understand what corrective action is required.

B.

Provide the auditee with the names of companies from previous audits which could be contacted for advice.

C.

Identify the current deficiency in a different way in order to avoid the appearance of a conflict of interest.

D.

Document the current deficiency without making any reference to the similar deficiencies found in other audits.

Question 65

A software maintenance release is conducted to deliver new

Options:

A.

features

B.

functionality

C.

defect corrections

D.

software products

Question 66

Results from a process audit show that the requirements group does not control changes to its software specifications. Which of the following basic requirements should be added to the software configuration management (SCM) policy?

Options:

A.

SCM must be implemented throughout the project ' s lifecycle.

B.

SCM must be implemented for externally deliverable software products

C.

Responsibility- for SCM must be explicitly assigned for each project

D.

Each project must have an established repository for storing configuration items.

Question 67

Which of the following statements is true about component reuse?

Options:

A.

The more a developer knows about the implementation, the more reusable a component will be.

B.

Information-hiding impedes the development of reusable components.

C.

Development costs are improved by reusable components.

D.

Modifying a previously used module is an example of module reuse.

Question 68

Which of the following documents must be under configuration control?

Options:

A.

Problem issues

B.

Control chains

C.

Test procedures

D.

Burn charts

Question 69

Which of the following review meetings are held to examine aggregated performance information?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Management

C.

Retrospectives

D.

Post implementation

Question 70

Which of the following categories describes acquirer-type stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Distributors: developers, suppliers

B.

Distributors, suppliers, users

C.

Indirect user, direct user, customers

D.

Indirect user, direct user, distributor

Question 71

One reason for seeding errors into a program before testing begins is to

Options:

A.

determine whether the error exists in the program or the test case

B.

determine the percentage of total errors the test can find

C.

assess how well the test handles a program with a large number of errors

D.

identify gaps in the program specifications document

Question 72

A quality audit program is an extension of which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Regulatory

B.

Top management

C.

Operations

D.

Finance

Question 73

Which of the following types of tests should be run on an installation of a new client server development environment that has 2 to 25 users in order to ensure it meets the company ' s requirements?

Options:

A.

Maintainability tests

B.

Boundary value tests

C.

Efficiency tests

D.

Performance tests

Question 74

Which of the following reviews is used to examine cost, schedule, scope, and risk?

Options:

A.

Program

B.

Phase gate

C.

Retrospective

D.

Architectural design

Question 75

Which of the following software metrics is based on a nominal scale-1

Options:

A.

Root cause of defect, logic error data definition, etc

B.

Severing of a defect, critical, major, minor, etc.

C.

Defect density: number per function point, etc.

D.

Defect discovery rate: number detected per day, etc.

Question 76

The severity of a failure in a software operation is determined by the

Options:

A.

estimated cost to find the fault and deploy a fix

B.

impact on the customers

C.

number of customers reporting the failure

D.

amount of time the software has operated without exhibiting the failure

Question 77

Quality function deployment is defined as a

Options:

A.

procedure in which code modules with low defect density are identified for reuse

B.

technique for measuring complex metrics by random sampling of functional units

C.

method that provides a framework for relating product features to customer needs

D.

process in which best practices are distributed throughout all levels of an organization

Question 78

Which of the following scenarios warrants the adoption of software configuration management tools?

Options:

A.

A project with short timelines to completion

B.

A simple project with few files and little complexity

C.

A complex project with multiple modifications and frequent change requests

D.

A project without security requirements or specified control over files and changes

Question 79

The process of changing software to enhance its functionality is known as

Options:

A.

corrective maintenance

B.

adaptive maintenance

C.

perfective maintenance

D.

preventive maintenance

Question 80

In order for a risk management plan to be effective., it should be

Options:

A.

updated regularly to address new risks

B.

monitored continuously to determine risk frequency

C.

based on maturing goals and sub-goals

D.

reviewed for contributions to the risk database

Question 81

Test-driven development in extreme programming ensures the quality of code by

Options:

A.

defining test pass criteria before code is written

B.

defining what code modules will be tested

C.

having the testers determine the order in which code should be written

D.

having the code tested before the product is released

Question 82

Regression testing can often be automated because this level of testing is performed

Options:

A.

late in the lifecycle when program structure documentation is available

B.

to assess coverage of all paths through the system

C.

many times with few changes

D.

at the end of product development when all system functionality is available

Question 83

Which of the following activities should be classified as an internal failure cost?

Options:

A.

Responding to customer satisfaction

B.

Completing an internal audit

C.

Shipping a maintenance build

D.

Investigating the cause of build defects

Question 84

When a software qualm- engineer is preparing an inspection report to present to management., what type of information should be included in the report?

Options:

A.

A summary- of the inspection results

B.

A summary- of the defects found by each inspector

C.

A detailed analysis of the results for each inspection

D.

A list of actions that management should take to correct the defects

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Total 280 questions