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Cisco 200-201 Dumps

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Total 476 questions

Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?

Options:

A.

additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients

B.

unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic

C.

deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network

D.

attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network

Question 2

Which option describes indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

spam emails on an employee workstation

B.

virus detection by the AV software

C.

blocked phishing attempt on a company

D.

malware reinfection within a few minutes of removal

Question 3

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.

port scanning

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

Question 4

An engineer is sharing folders and files with different departments and got this error: "No such file or directory". What must the engineer verify next?

Options:

A.

memory allocation

B.

symlinks

C.

permission

D.

disk space

Question 5

STION NO: 102

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B.

A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C.

There are three active data exfiltration alerts.

D.

A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Question 6

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

Question 7

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must use a 5-tuple approach to isolate a compromised host in a grouped set of logs.

Which data must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

66

B.

b4:2a0ef227 83

C.

7c:5c:f8:9f:d1:fc

D.

57813

Question 8

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.

network NGFW

C.

host-based IDS

D.

antivirus/antispyware software

Question 9

Which piece of information is part of the chain of custody during investigation?

Options:

A.

Method of evidence collection

B.

List of critical assets

C.

Company that was collecting evidence

D.

List of vulnerable assets

Question 10

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

Question 11

What is the impact of encryption?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality of the data is kept secure and permissions are validated

B.

Data is accessible and available to permitted individuals

C.

Data is unaltered and its integrity is preserved

D.

Data is secure and unreadable without decrypting it

Question 12

What is the dataflow set in the NetFlow flow-record format?

Options:

A.

Dataflow set is a collection of HEX records.

B.

Dataflow set provides basic information about the packet such as the NetFlow version

C.

Dataflow set is a collection of binary patterns

D.

Dataflow set is a collection of data records.

Question 13

Drag and drop the definition from the left onto the phase on the right to classify intrusion events according to the Cyber Kill Chain model.

as

Options:

Question 14

What describes the vulnerability management process?

Options:

A.

securely observe and supervise devices that access sensitive enterprise data

B.

systems engineering process for establishing and preserving consistency of a product's performance

C.

involves the deployment of hotfixes and patches that are released from time to time

D.

cyclical approach of identifying classifying and mitigating software vulnerabilities

Question 15

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

Question 16

An analyst is using the SIEM platform and must extract a custom property from a Cisco device and capture the phrase, "File: Clean." Which regex must the analyst import?

Options:

A.

File: Clean

B.

^Parent File Clean$

C.

File: Clean (.*)

D.

^File: Clean$

Question 17

as

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

Options:

A.

info

B.

tags

C.

MIME

D.

name

Question 18

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

as

Options:

Question 19

Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to use scripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality not work?

Options:

A.

WMI must be configured.

B.

Symlinks must be enabled.

C.

Ext4 must be implemented.

D.

MBR must be set up.

Question 20

Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

Options:

A.

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

C.

Redefine signature rules.

D.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

Question 21

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Question 22

Which event is a vishing attack?

Options:

A.

obtaining disposed documents from an organization

B.

using a vulnerability scanner on a corporate network

C.

setting up a rogue access point near a public hotspot

D.

impersonating a tech support agent during a phone call

Question 23

What is a disadvantage of the asymmetric encryption system?

Options:

A.

It is slow compared to the symmetric encryption system.

B.

Asymmetric encryption is used to transfer the data, and symmetric is used to encrypt small chunks of data.

C.

Asymmetric encryption is an old technique, and symmetric encryption is the newer one.

D.

It is less secure because it uses a single key for encryption.

Question 24

A security analyst received a ticket about suspicious traffic from one of the workstations. During the investigation, the analyst discovered that the workstation was communicating with an external IP. The analyst could not investigate further and escalated the case to a T2 security analyst. What are the two data visibility challenges that the security analyst should identify? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A default user agent is present in the headers.

B.

Traffic is not encrypted.

C.

HTTP requests and responses are sent in plaintext.

D.

POST requests have a "Microsoft-IIS/7.5" server header.

E.

Encrypted data is being transmitted.

Question 25

An analyst must choose one source of information for further troubleshooting. A key requirement is to use low storage space over the next 12 months while being able to quickly determine the source and scope of an attack to effectively mitigate it. Which source of information should the analyst choose?

Options:

A.

SPAN port

B.

NetFlow

C.

.pcap file

D.

traffic mirroring

Question 26

What is session data used for in network security?

Options:

A.

It is the transaction log between monitoring software.

B.

It contains the set of parameters used for fetching logs.

C.

It is the summary of the transmission between two network devices.

D.

It tracks cookies within each session initiated from a user.

Question 27

Which category relates to improper use or disclosure of PII data?

Options:

A.

legal

B.

compliance

C.

regulated

D.

contractual

Question 28

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which two elements in the table are parts of the 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

First Packet

B.

Initiator User

C.

Ingress Security Zone

D.

Source Port

E.

Initiator IP

Question 29

A security engineer must determine why a new core application does not work as desired The client can send requests toward the application server but receives no response One of the requirements is to gather all packets Data needs to be reliable without any delay or packet drops Which solution best meets this need?

Options:

A.

3 device logs

B.

span port

C.

port mirroring

D.

tap device

Question 30

A member of the SOC team is checking the dashboard provided by the Cisco Firepower Manager for further Isolation actions. According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of incident response is this action?

Options:

A.

Cost-incident activity phase

B.

Preparation phase

C.

Selection and analyze phase

D.

The radiation and recovery phase

Question 31

What is a scareware attack?

Options:

A.

using the spoofed email addresses to trick people into providing login credentials

B.

overwhelming a targeted website with fake traffic

C.

gaming access to your computer and encrypting data stored on it

D.

inserting malicious code that causes popup windows with flashing colors

Question 32

What are two differences of deep packet inspection compared to stateful firewall inspection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

static lists for maintaining a strict access control level

B.

offers application-level monitoring

C.

inspection of only the first packet during a connection attempt

D.

different rule configurations based on payload pattern

E.

quality of service capabilities based on list definitions

Question 33

Which utility blocks a host portscan?

Options:

A.

HIDS

B.

sandboxing

C.

host-based firewall

D.

antimalware

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the default user agent is present in the headers of requests and data being transmitted What is occurring?

Options:

A.

indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests

B.

garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports

C.

indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text

D.

cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content

Question 35

An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168.1.0/24 range without triggering intrusive portscan alerts on the IDS device using Nmap. Which command will accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

nmap --top-ports 192.168.1.0/24

B.

nmap –sP 192.168.1.0/24

C.

nmap -sL 192.168.1.0/24

D.

nmap -sV 192.168.1.0/24

Question 36

An engineer must investigate suspicious connections. Data has been gathered using a tcpdump command on a Linux device and saved as sandboxmatware2022-12-22.pcaps file.The engineer is trying to open the tcpdump in the Wireshark tool. What is the expected result?

Options:

A.

The tool does not support Linux.

B.

The file is opened.

C.

The file has an incorrect extension.

D.

The file does not support the"-" character.

Question 37

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An attacker gained initial access to the company s network and ran an Nmap scan to advance with the lateral movement technique and to search the sensitive data Which two elements can an attacker identify from the scan? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

workload and the configuration details

B.

user accounts and SID

C.

number of users and requests that the server is handling

D.

functionality and purpose of the server

E.

running services

Question 38

An engineer is working on a ticket for an incident from the incident management team A week ago. an external web application was targeted by a DDoS attack Server resources were exhausted and after two hours it crashed. An engineer was able to identify the attacker and technique used Three hours after the attack, the server was restored and the engineer recommended implementing mitigation by Blackhole filtering and transferred the incident ticket back to the IR team According to NIST SP800-61, at which phase of the incident response did the engineer finish work?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

post-incident activity

C.

containment eradication and recovery

D.

detection and analysis

Question 39

Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

Options:

A.

[a−z]+

B.

[^a−z]+

C.

a−z+

D.

a*z+

Question 40

How low does rule-based detection differ from behavioral detection?

Options:

A.

Behavioral systems find sequences that match particular attach behaviors, and rule-based systems identify potential zero-day attacks.

B.

Rule-based systems search for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, and behavioral systems Identify attacks per signature.

C.

Behavioral systems have patterns are for complex environments, and rule-based systems can be used on low-mid-sized businesses.

D.

Rule-based systems have predefined patterns, and behavioral systems learn the patterns that are specific to the environment.

Question 41

A user received an email attachment named "Hr405-report2609-empl094.exe" but did not run it. Which category of the cyber kill chain should be assigned to this type of event?

Options:

A.

installation

B.

reconnaissance

C.

weaponization

D.

delivery

Question 42

What are indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

large numbers of requests for the same file

B.

multiple tog ins from different regions

C.

swells in database read volume

D.

suspicious registry or system file changes

Question 43

as

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the element names from the left onto the corresponding pieces of the PCAP file on the right.

as

Options:

Question 44

An offline audit log contains the source IP address of a session suspected to have exploited a vulnerability resulting in system compromise.

Which kind of evidence is this IP address?

Options:

A.

best evidence

B.

corroborative evidence

C.

indirect evidence

D.

forensic evidence

Question 45

What is used to maintain persistent control of an exploited device?

Options:

A.

rootkit

B.

ARP spoof

C.

DDoS

D.

encryption

Question 46

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

Options:

A.

queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed

B.

deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion

C.

is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory

D.

has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

Question 47

An engineer must compare NIST vs ISO frameworks The engineer deeded to compare as readable documentation and also to watch a comparison video review. Using Windows 10 OS. the engineer started a browser and searched for a NIST document and then opened a new tab in the same browser and searched for an ISO document for comparison

The engineer tried to watch the video, but there 'was an audio problem with OS so the engineer had to troubleshoot it At first the engineer started CMD and looked fee a driver path then locked for a corresponding registry in the registry editor The engineer enabled "Audiosrv" in task manager and put it on auto start and the problem was solved Which two components of the OS did the engineer touch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

permissions

B.

PowerShell logs

C.

service

D.

MBR

E.

process and thread

Question 48

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must map these events to the source technology that generated the event logs. To which technology do the generated logs belong?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

antivirus

C.

IPS

D.

firewall

Question 49

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.

What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?

Options:

A.

online assault

B.

precursor

C.

trigger

D.

instigator

Question 50

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

separation of duties

D.

due diligence

Question 51

Which technology on a host is used to isolate a running application from other applications?

Options:

A.

sandbox

B.

application allow list

C.

application block list

D.

host-based firewall

Question 52

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

Options:

A.

code signing enforcement

B.

full assets scan

C.

internet exposed devices

D.

single factor authentication

Question 53

as

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC team member receives a case from his colleague with notes attached. The artifacts and alerts associated with the case must be analyzed and a conclusion must be provided. What is the cause of the alert?

Options:

A.

An insider threat compromised the service account to delete sensitive data.

B.

External attackers gained access and are exfiltrating data stealthily.

C.

A ransomware attack is underway, encrypting files and deleting originals.

D.

A misconfigured backup process malfunctioned, causing unexpected file changes.

Question 54

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which frame numbers contain a file that is extractable via TCP stream within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

7,14, and 21

B.

7 and 21

C.

14,16,18, and 19

D.

7 to 21

Question 55

Which items is an end-point application greylist used?

Options:

A.

Items that have been established as malicious

B.

Items that have been established as authorized

C.

Items that have been installed with a baseline

D.

Items before being established as harmful or malicious

Question 56

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

Question 57

What are the two differences between stateful and deep packet inspection? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet filtering checks only TCP source and destination ports

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and stateful inspection is not

C.

Deep packet inspection operates on Layer 3 and 4. and stateful inspection operates on Layer 3 of the OSI model

D.

Deep packet inspection is capable of TCP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can inspect TCP and UDP.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not

Question 58

A company recently encountered a breach. Critical services went through a disturbance and the integrity of the data was altered. An engineer is investigating the issue and searching through the logs in the SIEM. Which phase of the incident response is an engineer working on?

Options:

A.

post-incident and lessons learned

B.

recovery and restoration

C.

detection and analysis

D.

containment and eradication

Question 59

Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

bluesnarfing

D.

denial-of-service

Question 60

Which SOC metric represents the time to stop the incident from causing further damage to systems or data?

Options:

A.

Mean Time to Acknowledge (MTTA)

B.

Mean Time to Detect (MTTR)

C.

Mean Time to Respond (MTTR)

D.

Mean Time to Contain (MTTC)

Question 61

What is the communication channel established from a compromised machine back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle

B.

IDS evasion

C.

command and control

D.

port scanning

Question 62

A user reports that a mobile application is working very slowly. A DDoS detection tool reports high-volume traffic. During which phase does the CSIRT ensure that the incident does not continue and confirm that the organization has taken the required actions?

Options:

A.

preparation

B.

containment

C.

recovery

D.

eradication

Question 63

A forensic investigator is analyzing a recent breach case. An external USB drive was discovered to be connected and transmitting the data outside of the organization, and the owner of the USB drive could not be identified. Video surveillance shows six people during a two-month period had close contact with the affected asset. How must this type of evidence be categorized?

Options:

A.

Indirect evidence

B.

Direct evidence

C.

Corroborative evidence

D.

Best evidence

Question 64

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

Options:

A.

The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B.

The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C.

The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D.

The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

Question 65

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

Question 66

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Untampered images are not secure.

B.

Tampered images are secure.

C.

Untampered images store hidden items inside.

D.

Tampered images store hidden items inside.

Question 67

A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor.

Which type of evidence is this?

Options:

A.

best evidence

B.

prima facie evidence

C.

indirect evidence

D.

physical evidence

Question 68

Endpoint logs indicate that a machine has obtained an unusual gateway address and unusual DNS servers via DHCP Which type of attack is occurring?

Options:

A.

command injection

B.

man in the middle attack

C.

evasion methods

D.

phishing

Question 69

An engineer runs a suspicious file in a sandbox analysis tool to see the outcome. The analysis report shows that outbound callouts were made post infection.

Which two pieces of information from the analysis report are needed to investigate the callouts? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signatures

B.

host IP addresses

C.

file size

D.

dropped files

E.

domain names

Question 70

Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

location data

C.

statistical data

D.

alert data

Question 71

What is the difference between statistical detection and rule-based detection models?

Options:

A.

Rule-based detection involves the collection of data in relation to the behavior of legitimate users over a period of time

B.

Statistical detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and rule-based detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

C.

Statistical detection involves the evaluation of an object on its intended actions before it executes that behavior

D.

Rule-based detection defines legitimate data of users over a period of time and statistical detection defines it on an IF/THEN basis

Question 72

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

Options:

A.

input validation

B.

hash collision

C.

integer overflow

D.

command injection

Question 73

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

Options:

A.

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

Question 74

At which layer is deep packet inspection investigated on a firewall?

Options:

A.

internet

B.

transport

C.

application

D.

data link

Question 75

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

Question 76

Refer to the exhibit.

as

In which Linux log file is this output found?

Options:

A.

/var/log/authorization.log

B.

/var/log/dmesg

C.

var/log/var.log

D.

/var/log/auth.log

Question 77

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.

as

Options:

Question 78

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A company's user HTTP connection to a malicious site was blocked according to configured policy What is the source technology used for this measure'?

Options:

A.

network application control

B.

firewall

C.

IPS

D.

web proxy

Question 79

Which regular expression matches loopback IP address (127.0.0.1)?

Options:

A.

&127%0%0%1

B.

%127.0.0.1%

C.

127\.0\.0\.1

D.

127[.0.].0.\

Question 80

Which information must an organization use to understand the threats currently targeting the organization?

Options:

A.

threat intelligence

B.

risk scores

C.

vendor suggestions

D.

vulnerability exposure

Question 81

as

Refer to the exhibit. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS amplification attack

B.

Brute force attack

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

Denial of service

Question 82

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

Question 83

What describes the usage of a rootkit in endpoint based attacks?

Options:

A.

set of tools used by an attacker to maintain control of a compromised system while avoiding detection

B.

exploit that can be used to perform remote code execution

C.

set of vulnerabilities used by an attacker lo disable root access on the system

D.

remote code execution that causes a denial-of-service on the system

Question 84

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

NetFlow

C.

IDS

D.

sys

Question 85

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

TCP

C.

TLS

D.

HTTP

Question 86

The SOC team detected an ongoing port scan. After investigation, the team concluded that the scan was targeting the company servers. According to the Cyber Kill Chain model, which step must be assigned to this type of event?

Options:

A.

actions on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

exploitation

Question 87

What are two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

split brain

B.

phishing

C.

direct

D.

reflected

E.

scanning

Question 88

as

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the .pcap file, which protocol's vulnerability has been exploited to establish a session?

Options:

A.

SMB

B.

TCP

C.

Negotiate

D.

IP

Question 89

A security engineer must protect the company from known issues that trigger adware. Recently new incident has been raised that could harm the system. Which security concepts are present in this scenario?

Options:

A.

exploit and patching

B.

risk and evidence

C.

analysis and remediation

D.

vulnerability and threat

Question 90

Which step in the incident response process researches an attacking host through logs in a SIEM?

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

preparation

C.

eradication

D.

containment

Question 91

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a Linux system that is identifying specific sessions. Which identifier tracks an active program?

Options:

A.

application identification number

B.

active process identification number

C.

runtime identification number

D.

process identification number

Question 92

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.

alert data

B.

transaction data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

Question 93

Refer to the exhibit.

as

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

Question 94

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

action on objectives

D.

weaponization

Question 95

Which two components reduce the attack surface on an endpoint? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

secure boot

B.

load balancing

C.

increased audit log levels

D.

restricting USB ports

E.

full packet captures at the endpoint

Question 96

What is vulnerability management?

Options:

A.

A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B.

A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C.

A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D.

A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

Question 97

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.

Access control models are involved.

D.

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

Question 98

Which open-sourced packet capture tool uses Linux and Mac OS X operating systems?

Options:

A.

NetScout

B.

tcpdump

C.

SolarWinds

D.

netsh

Question 99

as

Refer to the exhibit. Which set of actions must an engineer perform to identify and fix this issue?

Options:

A.

Reinstall the IIS server to reset certificate details to default and try to connect to the server.

B.

Remove the intermediate certificates and install the CA root certificate on each server.

C.

Implement a different version of CA authority and install intermediate certificates.

D.

Add client authentication to the certificate template, reissue, and apply the certificate.

Question 100

A security analyst notices a sudden surge of incoming traffic and detects unknown packets from unknown senders After further investigation, the analyst learns that customers claim that they cannot access company servers According to NIST SP800-61, in which phase of the incident response process is the analyst?

Options:

A.

post-incident activity

B.

detection and analysis

C.

preparation

D.

containment, eradication, and recovery

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer received a ticket about a slowed-down web application. The engineer runs the #netstat -an command. How must the engineer interpret the results?

Options:

A.

The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

B.

The engineer must gather more data.

C.

The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.

D.

The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and itsdatabase

Question 102

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

Question 103

What is a difference between SOAR and SIEM?

Options:

A.

SOAR platforms are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SIEM applications are not

B.

SIEM applications are used for threat and vulnerability management, but SOAR platforms are not

C.

SOAR receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SIEM

D.

SIEM receives information from a single platform and delivers it to a SOAR

Question 104

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

Options:

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

Question 105

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

Options:

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

Question 106

Which process represents the application-level allow list?

Options:

A.

allowing everything and denying specific applications protocols

B.

allowing everything and denying specific executable files

C.

allowing specific format files and deny executable files

D.

allowing specific files and deny everything else

Question 107

What is corroborating evidence?

Options:

A.

Evidence that can be provided to cyber police for further restrictive actions over threat actors

B.

Evidence that can be presented in court in the original form, such as an exact copy of a hard drive

C.

Evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence

D.

Evidence that relies on an extrapolation to a conclusion of fact, such as fingerprints

Question 108

Which list identifies the information that the client sends to the server in the negotiation phase of the TLS handshake?

Options:

A.

ClientStart, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

B.

ClientStart, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

C.

ClientHello, TLS versions it supports, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

D.

ClientHello, ClientKeyExchange, cipher-suites it supports, and suggested compression methods

Question 109

Which management concept best describes developing, operating, maintaining, upgrading, and disposing of all resources?

Options:

A.

configuration

B.

vulnerability

C.

asset

D.

patch

Question 110

What is the advantage of agent-based protection compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

easier to manage due to the centralized platform

B.

monitors and detects traffic locally

C.

manages unlimited devices simultaneously

D.

lower resource requirements during implementation

Question 111

A data privacy officer at a marketing firm has received a request from a former client to delete all personally sensitive information held by the company. The firm operates globally and follows international data protection standards. The only information retained about the client is a unique customer ID, "051473912", which is not directly tied to the name, address, or any other identifiable details. Which action should the data privacy officer take?

Options:

A.

Delete the data immediately to comply with all global privacy regulations.

B.

Retain the data, as a customer ID by itself does not qualify as PSI under international standards.

C.

Consult the legal team, as customer IDs are always considered PSI and cannot be retained.

D.

Delete the data if the customer ID is stored alongside additional information that can identify the client.

Question 112

An engineer needs to fetch logs from a proxy server and generate actual events according to the data received. Which technology should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Firepower

B.

Email Security Appliance

C.

Web Security Appliance

D.

Stealthwatch

Question 113

What is a description of a social engineering attack?

Options:

A.

fake offer for free music download to trick the user into providing sensitive data

B.

package deliberately sent to the wrong receiver to advertise a new product

C.

mistakenly received valuable order destined for another person and hidden on purpose

D.

email offering last-minute deals on various vacations around the world with a due date and a counter

Question 114

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

confidentiality

C.

availability

D.

scope

Question 115

When trying to evade IDS/IPS devices, which mechanism allows the user to make the data incomprehensible without a specific key, certificate, or password?

Options:

A.

fragmentation

B.

pivoting

C.

encryption

D.

stenography

Question 116

What is an evasion technique?

Options:

A.

injecting insecure malicious code into an application or a system

B.

blocking digital data using one or more mathematical methods

C.

building a payload that constructs a nonexistent signature in the antivirus database

D.

deleting update sources from an intrusion prevention system database

Question 117

Which of these describes volatile evidence?

Options:

A.

registers and cache

B.

logs

C.

usernames

D.

disk and removable drives

Question 118

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

Options:

A.

cause of an attack

B.

exploit of an attack

C.

vulnerabilities exploited

D.

threat actors of an attack

Question 119

Which access control should a chief information security officer select to protect extremely sensitive data categorized at various levels of confidentiality?

Options:

A.

MAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

B.

MAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

C.

DAC; access control decisions are centrally managed and minimize the human error probability.

D.

DAC; each object owner is responsible to provide access only to authorized users.

Question 120

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

Options:

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

Question 121

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

Question 122

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which component is identifiable in this exhibit?

Options:

A.

Trusted Root Certificate store on the local machine

B.

Windows PowerShell verb

C.

Windows Registry hive

D.

local service in the Windows Services Manager

Question 123

An employee received an email from a colleague’s address asking for the password for the domain controller. The employee noticed a missing letter within the sender’s address. What does this incident describe?

Options:

A.

brute-force attack

B.

insider attack

C.

shoulder surfing

D.

social engineering

Question 124

Which HTTP header field is used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?

Options:

A.

referrer

B.

host

C.

user-agent

D.

accept-language

Question 125

What are two differences and benefits of packet filtering, stateful firewalling, and deep packet inspections? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packet filtering is capable of UDP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can provide monitoring of TCP sessions.

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and packet filtering is not.

C.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not.

D.

Deep packet inspection operates up to Layer 7, and packet filtering operates on Layer 3 and 4 of OSI model.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet inspection checks only TCP source and destination ports.

Question 126

Which principle reduces the risk of attackers gaining access to sensitive data by compromising a low-level user account?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

privilege separation

C.

limited access

D.

separation of duties

Question 127

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain Model?

Options:

A.

Develop a specific malware to exploit a vulnerable server

B.

Match a known script to a vulnerability.

C.

Construct a trojan and deliver l! to the victim.

D.

Scan open services and ports on a server.

Question 128

Why is encryption challenging to security monitoring?

Options:

A.

Encryption analysis is used by attackers to monitor VPN tunnels.

B.

Encryption is used by threat actors as a method of evasion and obfuscation.

C.

Encryption introduces additional processing requirements by the CPU.

D.

Encryption introduces larger packet sizes to analyze and store.

Question 129

Which evasion technique is indicated when an intrusion detection system begins receiving an abnormally high volume of scanning from numerous sources?

Options:

A.

resource exhaustion

B.

tunneling

C.

traffic fragmentation

D.

timing attack

Question 130

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

Options:

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An attacker Infiltrated an organization's network and ran a scan to advance with the lateral movement technique. Which two elements from the scan assist the attacker? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

function and service the server is providing

B.

CPU and vendor version of the asset

C.

running services and parts

D.

security identifiers of logged-in accounts

E.

latency and MS information to calculate delays for a command injection

Question 132

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.

Z

B.

ID

C.

TC

D.

QR

Question 133

Which element is included in an incident response plan as stated m NIST SP800-617

Options:

A.

security of sensitive information

B.

individual approach to incident response

C.

approval of senior management

D.

consistent threat identification

Question 134

Which statement describes patch management?

Options:

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

Question 135

How does a certificate authority impact security?

Options:

A.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server.

B.

It authenticates client identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting an SSL certificate.

D.

It validates the domain identity of the SSL certificate.

Question 136

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

any potential danger to an asset

B.

the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment

C.

an exploitable weakness in a system or its design

D.

the individuals who perform an attack

Question 137

What is an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

B.

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

C.

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

D.

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

Question 138

Which are two denial-of-service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TCP connections

B.

ping of death

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

code-red

E.

UDP flooding

Question 139

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

Options:

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

Question 140

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

Question 141

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

Question 142

Which classification of cross-site scripting attack executes the payload without storing it for repeated use?

Options:

A.

stored

B.

reflective

C.

DOM

D.

CSRF

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Total 476 questions