Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IP route command created the best path for a packet destined for 10.10.10.3?
A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC?
What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. and they executed the given show commands to verify the work Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel?
When a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination MAC address, how is the frame handled?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?
How does encryption project the wireless network?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does the host do when using the IPv4 Preferred function?
Drag and drop the Ansible features from the left to the right Not all features are used.
An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP
What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192.168.16.2?
Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?
NO: 346
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
Refer to the exhibit.
What is represented by " R1 " and " SW1 " within the JSON output?
Which interface or port on the WLC is the default for in-band device administration and communications between the controller and access points?
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
It work security team noticed that an increasing number of employees are becoming victims of phishing attacks. Which security program should be implemented to mitigate the problem?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?
Which two VPN technologies are recommended by Cisco for multiple branch offices and large-scale deployments? (Choose two.)
A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?
Two switches have been implemented and all interfaces are at the default configuration level. A trunk link must be implemented between two switches with these requirements:
• using an industry-standard trunking protocol
• permitting VLANs 1 -10 and denying other VLANs
How must the interconnecting ports be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?
Which two server types support dornas name to IP address resolution? (Choose two >
Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?
Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?
A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?
How is noise defined in Wi-Fi?
What is a zero-day exploit?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Which two statements distinguish authentication from accounting? (Choose two.)
Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?
A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic Interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
Which action must be taken when password protection is Implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Which encryption method is used by WPA3?
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. What is the cause of the issue?
What is the difference between controller-based networks and traditional networks as they relate to control-plane and/or data-plane functions?
When is the PUT method used within HTTP?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows TCP ports 20 and 21 through the firewall?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next step to complete the implementation for the partial NAT configuration shown?
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?
A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is creating a secure preshared key based SSID using WPA2 for a wireless network running on 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. Which two tasks must the engineer perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?
Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?
Drag and drop the Cisco IOS attack mitigation features from the left onto the types of network attack they mitigate on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?
A network engineer must configure an access list on a new Cisco IOS router. The access list must deny HTTP traffic to network 10.125.128.32/27 from the 192.168.240.0/20 network, but it must allow the 192.168.240.0/20 network to reach the rest of the 10.0.0.0/8 network. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.16.32.254 is destined for 172.16.32.8. What is the subnet mask of the preferred destination route?
To improve corporate security, an organization is planning to implement badge authentication to limit access to the data center. Which element of a security program is being deployed?
Which cipher is supported for wireless encryption only with the WPA2 standard?
Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.
How does MAC learning function on a switch?
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
A client experiences slow throughput from a server that is directly connected to the core switch in a data center. A network engineer finds minimal latency on connections to the server, but data transfers are unreliable, and the output of the show Interfaces counters errors command shows a high FCS-Err count on the interface that is connected to the server. What is the cause of the throughput issue?
Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
Which protocol does Ansible use to push modules to nodes in a network?
SW1 supports connectivity for a lobby conference room and must be secured. The engineer must limit the connectivity from PCI lo ma SW1 and SW2 network. The MAC addresses allowed must be Limited to two. Which configuration secures the conference room connectivity?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors ' IP addresses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wireless authentication?
Which protocol is implemented when an organization must verify network performance, troubleshoot issues, and use an agent to communicate between monitoring tools and end devices?
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?
What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225
How should R1 be configured?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?
Refer to the exhibit.
The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:
• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1
• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2
• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?
OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)
Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.
Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?
A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?
A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
What is one reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?
Refer to the exhibit.
Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
Refer to the exhibit.
An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.
R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.
A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?
Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of an endpoint on a network?
Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?
What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.
The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Which protocol uses the SSL?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?
Refer to the exhibit.
A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?
Refer to the exhibit.
Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.
How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.
Host A sent a data frame destined for host D
What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?
Refer to the exhibit.
Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?
Refer to the exhibit.
Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?
Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Refer to the exhibit.
The following must be considered:
• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic
• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured
• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured
• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database
Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?
A)
B)
C)
D)
What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?
Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?
Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.
In this attack, the attacking computer generates frames with two 802.1Q tags. The first tag matches the native VLAN of the trunk port (VLAN 10 in this case), and the second matches the VLAN of a host it wants to attack (VLAN 20).Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Refer to the exhibit.
An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
Refer to the exhibit.
PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Refer to the exhibit.
Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.
Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
Drag drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which switch becomes the root bridge?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
Refer to the exhibit.
After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
Refer to the exhibit.
What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
Refer to the exhibit.
A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.
Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
Refer to the exhibit.
An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in preshared key mode?
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
What is a DNS lookup operation?
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured lo support DHCP?
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
Which two WAN architecture options help a business improve scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two.)
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
Which option about JSON is true?
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Which two principles must be considered when using per-hop behavior in QoS? (Choose two.)
Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
Which cloud-provided service allows an organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the Internet?
How is AI used to identify issues within network traffic?
Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?
An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?
Refer to the exhibit. How must OSPF be configured on the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface of the neighbor device to achieve the desired neighbor relationship?
Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Refer to the exhibit. What is the value of the administrative distance for the default gateway?
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?
What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSON schema?
Which key function is provided by the data plane?
A new DHCP server has been deployed in a corporate environment with lease time set to eight hours. Which CMD command on a Windows-based device allows the engineer to verify the DHCP lease expiration?
Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?
Refer to the exhibit. The Wi-Fi SSID " Office_WLAN " has Layer 2 Security configured with MAC filtering enabled. What additional security is provided by this specific feature?
What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?
Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?
IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
Which type of protocol is VRRP?
IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Which statement describes virtualization on containers?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?
Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.
Which set of actions corrects the configuration?
All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/2 0
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?
Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.
Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?
Which protocol should be used to transfer large files on a company intranet that allows UDP 69 through the firewall?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?
Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?
How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Refer to the exhibit.
The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?
What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?
Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?
Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?
Refer to the exhibit. Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables SW2 to establish an LACP EtherChannel?
Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?
Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?
In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?
Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure the CPE router to allow computers in the 172.20.1.0/24 network to obtain their IP configurations from the central DHCP server. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the CPE?
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?
What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
Refer to the exhibit.
What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
Refer to Exhibit.
Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
Refer to the exhibit.
The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.
What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.
Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
Refer to me exhibit.
Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1 The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path What s the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.
The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
What is the function of a server?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GH2 access points?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
Refer to Exhibit.
An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
Refer to the exhibit.
What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.
The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the effect of this configuration?
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If
the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled
Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
Refer to the exhibit.
The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured?
Refer to the exhibit.
If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
