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Cisco 200-301 Dumps

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Total 1242 questions

Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Question 1

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

Question 2

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

Question 3

Refer to the exhibit.

as

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

Question 4

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

Options:

A.

The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

B.

The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C.

The frame is processed in VLAN 1

D.

The frame is dropped

Question 5

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

Options:

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

Question 6

What must be considered when using 802:11 a?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802.11b and 802.11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

Question 7

What is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a network management system to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

Question 8

Refer to the exhibit.

as

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

Router

C.

Load balancer

D.

firewall

Question 9

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which change to the configuration on Switch?

allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?

Options:

A.

Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.

B.

Change the LACP mode to active

C.

Change the LACP mode to desirable

D.

Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question 10

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4 GHz channels and lower usage on the 5 GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5 GHz access points?

Options:

A.

Re- Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

11ac MU-MIMO

C.

OEAP Split Tunnel

D.

Client Band Select

Question 11

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

Options:

A.

cost

B.

administrative distance

C.

metric

D.

as-path

Question 12

Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?

Options:

A.

alert

B.

critical

C.

notice

D.

debug

Question 13

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Event Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

Question 14

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

as

Options:

Question 15

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?

Options:

A.

provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure

B.

provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers

C.

allows communication across the Internet to other private networks

D.

allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries

Question 16

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Question 17

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Question 18

A corporate office uses four floors in a building

• Floor 1 has 24 users

• Floor 2 has 29 users

• Floor 3 has 28 users

•Floor 4 has 22 users

Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor

B.

192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor

C.

192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor

D.

l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Question 19

Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?

Options:

A.

0050.0c05.ad81

B.

0007.c061.bc01

C.

0000.5E00.0101

D.

0500.3976.6401

Question 20

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?

Options:

A.

207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

B.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

C.

207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

D.

207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Question 21

What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?

Options:

A.

access - core - distribution - access

B.

access - distribution - distribution - access

C.

access - core - access

D.

access -distribution - core - distribution - access

Question 22

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 23

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Question 24

Refer to the exhibit.

as

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?

Options:

A.

It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed

B.

It immediately replaces the existing OSPF route in the routing table with the newly configured static route

C.

It starts load-balancing traffic between the two default routes

D.

It starts sending traffic without a specific matching entry in the routing table to GigabitEthernet0/1

Question 25

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 26

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

as

Options:

Question 27

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )

Options:

A.

The device Is assigned to the Global site.

B.

The device Is placed into the Unmanaged state.

C.

The device is placed into the Provisioned state.

D.

The device is placed into the Managed state.

E.

The device is assigned to the Local site.

Question 28

What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Question 29

What does physical access control regulate?

Options:

A.

access to specific networks based on business function

B.

access to servers to prevent malicious activity

C.

access to computer networks and file systems

D.

access to networking equipment and facilities

Question 30

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

Question 31

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

Question 32

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1

B.

ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

C.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

D.

ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

Question 33

An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?

Options:

A.

switch(config-line)#IIdp port-description

B.

switch(config)#IIdp port-description

C.

switch(config-if)#IIdp port-description

D.

switch#IIdp port-description

Question 34

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

Question 35

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

Question 36

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 37

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (loops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Question 38

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

Question 39

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

as

Options:

Question 40

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?

Options:

A.

longest prefix

B.

metric

C.

cost

D.

administrative distance

Question 41

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

connect wireless devices to a wired network

B.

support secure user logins to devices or the network

C.

integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks

D.

serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Question 42

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

Question 43

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

Question 44

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

Question 45

Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

Python

C.

Puppet

D.

Chef

Question 46

Refer to Exhibit.

as

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?

Options:

A.

It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.

B.

It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports

C.

It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.

D.

It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on its trunk ports

Question 47

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)

Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.

Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2

D.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2

E.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

Question 48

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The IP domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

Question 49

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

Question 50

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

Question 51

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

Question 52

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active "

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

Question 53

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

Question 54

Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating training needs

B.

Increasing reliance on self-diagnostic and self-healing

C.

Policy-derived provisioning of resources

D.

Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning

E.

Reducing hardware footprint

Question 55

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

as

Options:

Question 56

as

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default helto timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question 57

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command on R2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

Question 58

Refer to the exhibit.

as

as

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

Question 59

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

Question 60

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?

Options:

A.

action

B.

management

C.

control

D.

data

Question 61

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

Question 62

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

Options:

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

Question 63

as

as

as

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

Question 64

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

as

Options:

Question 65

as

as

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

Question 66

as

as

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

Question 67

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

asas

Options:

Question 68

Topology:

as

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.

Task 1

Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.

Task 2

Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.

Task 3

Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.

Task 4

Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.

    Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.

    Assign Port-Channel number 34.

    Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.

Options:

Question 69

as

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

as

Options:

Question 70

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

as

Options:

Question 71

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

as

Options:

Question 72

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

asas

Options:

Question 73

as

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

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Options:

Question 74

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

asas

Options:

Question 75

Topology:

as

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:

Task 1

Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.

    Use process ID 30.

    Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.

    Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:

      10.0.23.0/28

      10.0.12.0/30

Task 2

Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).

Options:

Question 76

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

as

Options:

Question 77

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

Question 78

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

Question 79

Refer to the exhibit.

as

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

Question 80

How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in " mode active " .

C.

When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps.

D.

To pass client traffic, two or more ports must be configured.

Question 81

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Options:

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

Question 82

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

Question 83

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

Question 84

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

It supports protocol discovery

Question 85

What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)

Options:

A.

builds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations

B.

encrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default

C.

improves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)

D.

enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address

E.

allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address

Question 86

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?

Options:

A.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port

B.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in the MAC address table.

C.

Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.

D.

Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

Question 87

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

Question 88

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

Question 89

What is a benefit of VRRP?

Options:

A.

It provides traffic load balancing to destinations that are more than two hops from the source.

B.

It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.

C.

It allows neighbors to share routing table information between each other.

D.

It prevents lloops in a Layer 2 LAN by forwarding all traffic to a root bridge, which then makes the final forwarding decision.

Question 90

How is the native VLAN secured in a network?

Options:

A.

separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain

B.

give it a value in the private VLAN range

C.

assign it as VLAN 1

D.

configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link

Question 91

Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Provide uninterrupted forwarding service.

B.

Police traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.

C.

Provide direct connectivity for end user devices.

D.

Ensure timely data transfer between layers.

E.

Inspect packets for malicious activity.

Question 92

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

Question 93

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

Question 94

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?

Options:

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FlexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

Question 95

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Question 96

When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

relay agent information

B.

database agent

C.

address pool

D.

smart-relay

E.

manual bindings

Question 97

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over IPsec

C.

IPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

Question 98

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

Question 99

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

Question 100

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

Options:

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server virtualization

Question 101

What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?

Options:

A.

It allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.

B.

It allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.

C.

It reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.

D.

It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.

Question 102

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

Question 103

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

Question 104

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

as

Options:

Question 105

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

as

Options:

Question 106

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Options:

A.

lt drops the frame immediately.

B.

It forwards the frame back out of interface Fa0/1.

C.

It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.

D.

It holds the frame until the MAC address timer expires and then drops the frame.

Question 107

as

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

Question 108

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributed management functions

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

Question 109

Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

EBCDIC

D.

SGML

E.

XML

Question 110

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

Question 111

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

as

Options:

Question 112

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two

changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose

two )

Options:

A.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement to the beginning of ACL 101 for allowed traffic.

B.

Add a " permit ip any any " statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic

C.

The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101

D.

The ACL must be configured the Gi0/2 interface inbound on R1

E.

The ACL must be moved to the Gi0/1 interface outbound on R2

Question 113

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

Options:

A.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

B.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

C.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyinterface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in

D.

access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any anyline vty 0 15 ip access-group 100 in

Question 114

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office/home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

Question 115

Refer to the exhibit.

as

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface ' s configuration.

Question 116

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

Question 117

Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

as

Options:

Question 118

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

Question 119

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

Question 120

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

Question 121

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

Question 122

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

Question 123

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

Question 124

When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

2002::5

C.

FC00::/7

D.

FF02::1

E.

FF02::2

Question 125

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

Question 126

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

for small networks with minimal need for growth

B.

the access and distribution layers must be on the same device

C.

for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites

D.

only when using VSS technology

Question 127

What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support RJ-45 connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

Question 128

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

Question 129

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router Fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

Question 132

Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Options:

A.

CHANGE

B.

UPDATE

C.

POST

D.

PUT

Question 133

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 134

Refer to the exhibit.

as

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 135

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

Question 136

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 137

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 138

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?

Options:

A.

core and WAN

B.

access and WAN

C.

distribution and access

D.

core and distribution

Question 139

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

Question 140

Refer to the exhibit.

as

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

as

as

as

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

option D

Question 141

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 10

B.

switchport trunk native vlan 10

C.

switchport mode trunk

D.

switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Question 142

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYN flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Question 143

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

Question 144

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Question 145

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Question 146

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fe80:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface VLAN 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

Question 147

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

Options:

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

Question 148

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Question 149

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

as

Options:

Question 150

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 151

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

Question 152

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog messageage is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

Question 153

How does authentication differ from authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person ' s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

Question 154

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

as

Options:

Question 155

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?

Options:

A.

implemented over a dedicated WAN

B.

located in the same data center as the users

C.

all hosted on physical servers

D.

accessed over the Internet

Question 156

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

as

Options:

Question 157

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Question 158

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Question 159

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

Question 160

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor Discovery is disabled

as

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

Question 161

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

Options:

A.

full mesh

B.

Point-to-point

C.

hub-and-spoke

D.

router-on-a-stick

Question 162

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 163

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

Question 164

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

Question 165

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

as

Options:

Question 166

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

Question 167

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user ' s identity

D.

securely store files for FTP access

Question 168

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165.200.225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 169

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer built a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

Question 170

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 171

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?

Options:

A.

1000BASE-ZX is supported on links up to 1000km, and 1000BASE-LX/LH operates over links up to 70 km.

B.

1000BASE-LX/LH interoperates with multimode and single-mode fiber, and 10008ASE-ZX needs a conditioning patch cable with a multimode.

C.

1000BASE-LX/LH is supported on links up to 10km, and 1000BASE-ZX operates over links up to 70 km

D.

1000BASE-ZX interoperates with dual-rate 100M/1G 10Km SFP over multimode fiber, and 1000BASE-LX/LH supports only single-rate.

Question 172

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

as

Options:

Question 173

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

Question 174

What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

authorizing potentially compromised wireless traffic

B.

inspecting specific files and file types for malware

C.

authenticating end users

D.

URL filtering

Question 175

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 176

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

as

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

Question 177

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?

Options:

A.

Configure the no lldp tlv-select-management-address command globally on Cat9K-2

B.

Configure the no lldp transmit command on interface G1/0/21 in Cat9K-1

C.

Configure the no lldp receive command on interface G1/0/21 on Cat9K-1

D.

Configure the no lldp mac-phy-cfg command globally on Cat9K-2

Question 178

Refer to the exhibit.

as

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 179

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

Question 180

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

Question 181

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Question 182

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

as

Options:

Question 183

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

Question 184

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

Question 185

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

Question 186

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

Question 187

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

as

Options:

Question 188

as

Refer to the exhibit. How will router R1 handle packets destined to 192.168.64.22?

Options:

A.

It will use the static route to 10.1.1.1.

B.

It will use the route with the highest AD and highest destination IP.

C.

It will route the packets to 10.1.1.2.

D.

It will drop the packets.

Question 189

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

Options:

A.

source MAC addresss and aging time

B.

destination MAC addresss and flush time

C.

source MAC addresss and source port

D.

destination MAC addresss and destination port

Question 190

Refer to the exhibit.

as

How many objects, keys and JSDN list values are present?

Options:

A.

three objects, two keys, and three JSDN list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSDN Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSDN list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSDN list values

Question 191

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

To define the network path the API request should take

B.

To uniquely identify each client application

C.

To specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

D.

To encrypt data sent in the API request

Question 192

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

B.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points.

Question 193

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

Options:

A.

point-to-point

B.

non-broadcast

C.

point-to-multipoint

D.

broadcast

Question 194

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII froin the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK froin the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

Question 195

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

Question 196

Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient ' s domain?

Options:

A.

MX record

B.

TXT record

C.

A record

D.

SRV record

Question 197

Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?

Options:

A.

to establish an encrypted tunnel between a remote user and a private network over the internet

B.

to allow access to an enterprise network using any internet-enabled location via a web browser using SSL

C.

to provide a secure link between an HTTPS server, authentication subsystem, and an end-user

D.

to use cryptography for authentication between a device and user over a negotiated VPN gateway

Question 198

Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?

Options:

A.

software-defined segmentation

B.

multifactor authentication

C.

attribute-based access control

D.

rule-based access control

Question 199

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

as

Options:

Question 200

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?

Options:

A.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C801:BEFF:FE4A:1

B.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C081:BFFF:FE4A:1

C.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:4562:098F:FE36:1

D.

2001:db8:1a44:41a4:C800:BAFE:FF00:1

Question 201

What is a characteristic of encryption in wirelesss networks?

Options:

A.

uses a unidirectional handshake for authentication

B.

Intercepts data threats before they attack a network

C.

uses integrity checks to identify forgery attacks

D.

prevents intercepted data from being easily read

Question 202

What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?

Options:

A.

forwarding mode and provides the lowest-cost path to the root bridge for each VLAN

B.

learning mode and provides the shortest path toward the root bridge handling traffic away froin the LAN

C.

blocking mode and provides an alternate path toward the designated bridge

D.

listening mode and provides an alternate path toward the root bridge

Question 203

An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

B.

switchport mode trunk

C.

switchport nonegotiate

D.

switchport mode dynamic auto

Question 204

When deploying a new network that includes both Cisco and third-party network devices, which redundancy protocol avoids the interruption of network traffic if the default gateway router fails?

Options:

A.

FHRP

B.

HSRP

C.

GLBP

D.

VRRP

Question 205

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Question 206

In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?

Options:

A.

when the subnet must be available only within an organization

B.

when the subnet does not need to be routable

C.

when the addressses on the subnet must be equivalent to private IPv4 addressses

D.

when the subnet must be routable over the internet

Question 207

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Options:

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

Question 208

A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Options:

A.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 25

C.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 20

Question 209

as

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip addresss 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Question 210

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.1

B.

10.10.10.11

C.

10.10.10.12

D.

10.10.10.14

Question 211

as

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

B.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1#(config-line)#transport input ssh  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#aaa new-model

Question 212

Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wirelesss authentication?

Options:

A.

Client Exclusion and SSH

B.

802.1x and the MAC addresss of the server

C.

Network Access Control State and SSH

D.

AAA Override and the IP addressss of the server

Question 213

as

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

Options:

A.

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

Question 214

An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?

Options:

A.

ipconfig /all

B.

ifconfig -a

C.

show interface

D.

netstat -r

Question 215

as

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks froin the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.

as

Options:

Question 216

as

Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?

Options:

A.

Run the ipconfig command on client A and ensure that the IP addressss is within the host range of 10.0.0.1 - 10.0.255.254.

B.

Run the ifconfig command on client A to confirm that its IP and subnet mask fall within 255.254.0.0.

C.

Run the ipconfig command on client A to confirm that the correct 10.0.0.1 default gateway is used.

D.

Run the ifconfig command on client A to confirm that the subnet mask is set to 255.255.128.0.

Question 217

Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?

• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters

• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable

Options:

A.

straight-through

B.

rollover

C.

crossover

D.

console

Question 218

In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?

Options:

Question 219

as

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors ' IP addresssses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?

Options:

A.

Configure the no cdp enable command on gO/2.

B.

Configure the no cdp run command globally.

C.

Configure the no lldp run command globally.

D.

Configure the no lldp receive command on gQV1.

Question 220

What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSDN text?

Options:

A.

UCS-2

B.

UTF-8

C.

Hex

D.

GB18030

Question 221

as

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

B.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

E.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

Question 222

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7

10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6

10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4

10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5

Options:

A.

F0/7

B.

F0/5

C.

F0/4

D.

F0/6

Question 223

Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively

B.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

C.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

D.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

Question 224

Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?

Options:

A.

CCMP

B.

MD5

C.

TKIP

D.

GCMP

Question 225

What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They alleviate the shortage of public IPv4 addressses.

B.

They supply redundancy in the case of failure.

C.

They offer Internet connectivity to endpoints on private networks.

D.

They allow for Internet access from IoT devices.

E.

They provide a layer of security from Internet threats.

Question 226

What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?

Options:

A.

FlexConnect allows a personal SSID to be configured on the AP, and personal SSIDs are not supported with OfficeExtend.

B.

OfficeExtend does not support DTLS tunneling of traffic to the WLC, and FlexConnect tunnels traffic to the WLC with DTLS.

C.

OfficeExtend tunnels all traffic through the WLC, and FlexConnect terminates client traffic at the AP switch port.

D.

FlexConnect must be deployed behind a router that NATs the client traffic, and OfficeExtend uses public IP sources.

Question 227

Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?

Options:

A.

TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery, and UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets.

B.

TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet that is received, and UDP operates without acknowledgments.

C.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Question 228

What is the role of syslog level 7 in network device health monitoring?

Options:

A.

It provides information about error conditions visible on the network device.

B.

It shares normal operational messages froin the network equipment.

C.

It sends outputs from various debug commands on the device.

D.

It warns about emergency conditions on the network appliance.

Question 229

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

Integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

B.

Serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addressses

D.

Correlates user activity with network events

Question 230

as

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

RIP

D.

Local

Question 231

Which IP addressss is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Question 232

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R1 is added to the network and configured with the 10.0.0.64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets. However, traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not accessible. Which command when executed on R1 defines a static route to reach the R3 LAN?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.20.3

B.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.0 10.0.20.1

C.

ip route 10.0.0.64 255.255.255.192 10.0.20.3

D.

ip route 10.0.15.0 255.255.255.192 10.0.20.1

Question 233

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

Enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

Forwards frames to a neighbor port using CDP

C.

Overwrites the known source MAC addresss in the addresss table

D.

Protects against denial of service attacks

Question 234

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

OSPF

D.

RIP

Question 235

Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

B.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

D.

The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

Question 236

Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

as

Options:

Question 237

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Question 238

as

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Options:

A.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport private-vlan association host 5

B.

switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation negotiate

C.

switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk allowed vlan add 5

D.

switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk pruning vlan add 5

Question 239

as

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

Question 240

What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

as

Options:

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

Question 241

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

to enable the number of MAC addressses learned on the port to l

B.

to protect the operation of the port from topology change processes

C.

to enable the pod to enter the forwarding state immediately when the host boots up

D.

to prevent the port from participating in Spanning Tree Protocol operations

E.

to block another switch or host from communicating through the port

Question 242

Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?

Options:

A.

Shaping

B.

Policing

C.

Weighted fair queuing

D.

FIFO

Question 243

What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?

Options:

A.

flexibility of design

B.

simplicity of configuration

C.

low cost

D.

full-mesh capability

Question 244

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 245

as

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Question 246

What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

employs PKI and RADIUS to identify access points

B.

applies 802.1x authentication and AES-128 encryption

C.

uses TKIP and per-packet keying

D.

defends against deauthentication and disassociation attacks

Question 247

as

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Question 248

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Question 249

Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

out-of-band management

B.

secure in-band connectivity for device administration

C.

unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers

D.

HTTP-based GUI connectivity

Question 250

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 251

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Options:

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

Question 252

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

as

Options:

Question 253

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

Question 254

Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

as

Options:

Question 255

A network engineer must configure an interface with IIP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

Options:

A.

/29

B.

/30

C.

/27

D.

/28

Question 256

Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?

Options:

A.

Header Checksum

B.

Type of service

C.

DSCP

D.

ECN

Question 257

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

as

Options:

Question 258

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order.

Question 259

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?

Options:

A.

The QoS policy is dropping traffic.

B.

There is a duplex mismatch.

C.

The link is over utilized.

D.

The MTU is not set to the default value.

Question 260

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

Question 261

Refer to the exhibit

as

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:

* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically

* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen

Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky

B.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict

C.

SW(config-if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6

D.

SW(config-if)switchport port-security maximum 2

E.

SW(config-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown

Question 262

as

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 263

as

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 264

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

Question 265

Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?

Options:

A.

multicast address

B.

loopback IP address

C.

virtual IP address

D.

broadcast address

Question 266

Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

as

Options:

Question 267

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 268

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 269

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

Question 270

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1

B.

ip route 10.8065.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66

C.

ip route 1073.65.65 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10

D.

ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10

Question 271

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

Question 272

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

Options:

A.

the 10.0.0.0 network

B.

a single destination address

C.

the source 10.0.1.100

D.

all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet

Question 273

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

B.

ip default-gateway 192.168.2.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.1.2 10

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 192.168.2.1 10

Question 274

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

Question 275

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 276

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

as

Options:

Question 277

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

as

Options:

Question 278

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?

Options:

A.

The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode

B.

The switch port mode must be set to trunk

C.

The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP

D.

IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port.

Question 279

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

Question 280

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?

Options:

A.

to reduce interference

B.

to allow for channel bonding

C.

to stabilize the RF environment

D.

to increase bandwidth

Question 281

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network

Question 282

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

Options:

A.

200 seconds

B.

300 seconds

C.

600 seconds

D.

900 seconds

Question 283

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

Question 284

as

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:

• Only Telnet access is allowed.

• The enable password must be stored securely.

• The enable password must be applied in plain text.

• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.

Which configuration script meets the requirements?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 285

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Options:

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

Question 286

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Options:

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

Question 287

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

Question 288

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Question 289

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

as

Options:

Question 290

Refer to the exhibit.

as

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

Question 291

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

B.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

C.

It discards the packets.

D.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address.

Question 292

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

Question 293

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?

Options:

A.

Lightweight with local switching disabled

B.

Local with AP fallback enabled

C.

OfficeExtend with high availability disabled

D.

FlexConnect with local switching enabled

Question 294

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

as

Options:

Question 295

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

Question 296

Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?

Options:

A.

config sessions maxsessions 0

B.

config sessions timeout 0

C.

config serial timeout 0

D.

config serial timeout 9600

Question 297

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided

• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports

• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3

• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 298

Refer to the exhibit.

as

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Options:

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

Question 299

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

Question 300

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?

Options:

A.

to protect against default gateway failures

B.

to prevent loops in a network

C.

to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit

D.

to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment

Question 301

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 302

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provide security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

Question 303

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

uses TKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

Question 304

Refer to the exhibit.

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What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

Question 305

Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?

Options:

A.

Alert

B.

Error

C.

Emergency

D.

Critical

Question 306

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

Question 307

What is a function of MAC address learning?

Options:

A.

It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.

C.

It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks

D.

It increases security on the management VLAN

Question 308

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

Question 309

Refer to the exhibit.

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R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?

Options:

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

Question 310

Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.

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Options:

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Total 1242 questions