Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
What must be considered when using 802:11 a?
What is a syslog facility?
Refer to the exhibit.

When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which change to the configuration on Switch?
allows the two switches to establish an EtherChannel?
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4 GHz channels and lower usage on the 5 GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5 GHz access points?
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.
Branch-1 priority 614440
Branch-2: priority 39082416
Branch-3: priority 0
Branch-4: root primary
Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A corporate office uses four floors in a building
• Floor 1 has 24 users
• Floor 2 has 29 users
• Floor 3 has 28 users
•Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
What is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a three-tier architecture model?
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.
Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
Refer to the exhibit.

If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command how does the router respond?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Which two events occur automatically when a device is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two. )
What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)
What does physical access control regulate?
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers must be able to access the web server Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original IP packet?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
Refer to Exhibit.

How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used


Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
Refer to the exhibit.

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?
Refer to the exhibit.


A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?



IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:
1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.
2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.
3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.
4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.
All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and
inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.
Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.
1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to
reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN
2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take
an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along
the primary path
3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.



Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.
1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.
2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.
3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.
4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.


IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.
1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.
2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.
3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.
4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.
Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured
1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends
2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.
4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.


Topology:

All relevant ports are preconfigured as IEEE 802.1Q trunks.
Task 1
Configure SW-1 port Ethernet0/0 to permit only VLANs 5 and 6.
Task 2
Configure ports Ethernet0/1 on SW-1 and SW-2 to use VLAN 77 as the native VLAN.
Task 3
Configure SW-2 port Ethernet0/2 to permit only VLAN 6.
Task 4
Using LACP, create a Port-Channel between SW-3 and SW-4.
Combine Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 into a Port-Channel while leaving the existing trunk configurations intact.
Assign Port-Channel number 34.
Only SW-3 must initiate LACP negotiations.

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.
The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.
1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
Using the second subnet
• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1
• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102
2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize
the number of hosts
c Using the second subnet
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on e0/0 on Sw101
• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier
on eO/O on swi02
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,
and the network connectivity between them must be configured.
I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it
between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and
Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.
2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.
3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.
4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the
EtherChannel.
==================
Guidelines
This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.
• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.
• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.
• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using
the tab(s) above the console window.
• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.
• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.
• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.
• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.
• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.
1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.
2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.
3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.
4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.
5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.



Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.
The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:
VLAN 110: MARKETING
VLAN 210: FINANCE
1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.
2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.
3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.
1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.
2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.
3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.


Topology:

Configure OSPF routing for the network by completing the following tasks:
Task 1
Configure OSPF on R2. Ensure that R1 and R3 become neighbors.
Use process ID 30.
Use 10.22.22.22 as the router ID.
Under the OSPF process, advertise the following specific prefixes:
10.0.23.0/28
10.0.12.0/30
Task 2
Ensure that R2 always becomes the designated router (DR).
Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?
Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
How will Link Aggregation be implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
What describes the operation of virtual machines?
What is a benefit of VRRP?
How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

Drag and drop the 802.11 wireless standards from the left onto the matching statements on the right

How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?
What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct configuration-management technologies on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration failed to work as intended Which two
changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20 0 26 from the 10.0.10 0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose
two )
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office/home office architecture?
Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface ' s configuration?
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
Drag the IPv6 DNS record types from the left onto the description on the right.

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture?
What is a similarity between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router Fa0/1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?
Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?
Which REST method updates an object in the Cisco DNA Center Intent API?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to configure router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:
• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.
• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.
• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.
• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.
Which configuration must be used?

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A)

B)

C)

D)

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements
• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20
• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone
Which command set must the engineer apply?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is the collapsed layer in collapsed core architectures?
Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?
Refer to the exhibit.

All interfaces are configured with duplex auto and ip ospf network broadcast. Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency and act as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?




An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?
What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?
A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the VLAN 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?
Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?
Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:
• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2
• R1 will never participate in DR elections
• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1
Which configuration must be used?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
How does authentication differ from authorization?
Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources?
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?
What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?
An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:
* It must be configured in the local database.
* The username is engineer.
* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor Discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?
Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?
An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?
What is a function performed by a web server?
R1 as an NTP server must have:
• NTP authentication enabled
• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0
• NTP stratum 2
• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165.200.225
How should R1 be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

What is the difference between 1000BASE-LX/LH and 1000BASE-ZX interfaces?
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right.

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?
What is a function of Cisco Advanced Malware Protection for a Next-Generation IPS?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?
A)

B)

C)

D)

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?
Refer to the exhibit.

The network administrator must prevent the switch Cat9K-2 IP address from being visible in LLDP without disabling the protocol. Which action must be taken must be taken to complete the task?
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?
Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?
Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.


Refer to the exhibit. How will router R1 handle packets destined to 192.168.64.22?
What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?
Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects, keys and JSDN list values are present?
How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?
A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)
What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?
Which type of DNS record is used to specify the mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient ' s domain?
Why does an administrator choose to implement a remote access IPsec VPN?
Which security element uses a combination of one-time passwords, a login name, and a personal smartphone?
Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 address for the LAN segment on router R1 must be configured using the EUI-64 format. When configured which ipv6 address is produced by the router?
What is a characteristic of encryption in wirelesss networks?
What is the operating mode and role of a backup port on a shared LAN segment in Rapid PVST+?
An engineer requires a switch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
When deploying a new network that includes both Cisco and third-party network devices, which redundancy protocol avoids the interruption of network traffic if the default gateway router fails?
Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?
In which circumstance would a network architect decide to implement a global unicast subnet instead of a unique local unicast subnet?
Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?
A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.
Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?
Refer to the exhibit.

Packets are flowing from 192.168.10.1 to the destination at IP addressss 192.168.20.75. Which next hop will the router select for the packet?

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?
Which selections must be used on the WLC when implementing a RADIUS server for wirelesss authentication?

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?
An on-site service desk technician must verify the IP addressss and DNS server information on a users Windows computer. Which command must the technician enter at the command prompt on the user ' s computer?

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks froin the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.


Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN routing is configured on SW1. Client A is running Linux as an OS in VLAN 10 with a default gateway IP 10.0.0.1 but cannot ping client B in VLAN 20 running Windows. What action must be taken to verify that client A has the correct IP settings?
Which cable type must be used when connecting a router and switch together using these criteria?
• Pins 1 and 2 are receivers and pins 3 and 6 are transmitters
• Auto detection MDi-X is unavailable
In which way does generative AI aid network simulations?

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 R2 and R3 use a protocol to identify their neighbors ' IP addresssses hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement?
What is the RFC 4627 default encoding for JSDN text?

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
10.90.207.87/26 [110/1912] via F0/7
10.90.207.87/26 [110/28968] via F0/6
10.90.207.87/26 [120/14] via F0/4
10.90.207.87/26 [120/11] via F0/5
Which two capabilities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two.)
Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?
What are two benefits for using private IPv4 addresssing? (Choose two.)
What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?
Why is UDP more suitable than TCP for applications that require low latency, such as VoIP?
What is the role of syslog level 7 in network device health monitoring?
What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?
Which IP addressss is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 is added to the network and configured with the 10.0.0.64/26 and 10.0.20.0/24 subnets. However, traffic destined for the LAN on R3 is not accessible. Which command when executed on R1 defines a static route to reach the R3 LAN?
How does MAC learning function?
Refer to the exhibit.

Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?
Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?
Drag and drop the AAA terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

How does automation affect network management processes?

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must connect SW_1 and the printer to the network. SW_2 requires DTP to be used for the connection to SW_1. The printer is configured as an access port with VLAN 5. Which set of commands completes the connectivity?

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?
What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

What are two reasons lo configure PortFast on a switch port attached to an end host? (Choose two.)
Which QoS feature drops traffic that exceeds the committed access rate?
What is a benefit of a point-to-point leased line?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A)

B)

C)

D)


Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?
What is an enhancement implemented in WPA3?

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?
Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?
O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17
O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20
R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8
R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12
Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC?
The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements
• Create 8 new subnets
• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts
• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet
• A Layer 3 interface is used
Which configuration must be applied to the interface?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?
Drag and drop the characteristics of transport layer protocols from the left onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

A network engineer must configure an interface with IIP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?
Which IP header field is changed by a Cisco device when QoS marking is enabled?
Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue?
What is a specification for SSIDS?
Refer to the exhibit

A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met:
* MAC addresses must be learned dynamically
* Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen
Which two commands must be configuredd to complete this task " ? (Choose two)

A)

B)

C)

D)


A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?
Which type of address is shared by routers in a HSRP implementation and used by hosts on the subnet as their default gateway address?
Drag and drop the characteristics of device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding deployment types on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure R1 so that it sends all packets destined to the 10.0.0.0/24 network to R3, and all packets destined to PCI to R2. Which configuration must the engineer implement?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a preshared key for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to PC 10?
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?
Refer to the exhibit.

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must enable a floating default route on router A?
What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?
Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different?
Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?
What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment?
Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?
By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?
Refer to the exhibit.

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Refer to the exhibit. Local access for R4 must be established and these requirements must be met:
• Only Telnet access is allowed.
• The enable password must be stored securely.
• The enable password must be applied in plain text.
• Full access to R4 must be permitted upon successful login.
Which configuration script meets the requirements?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?
In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?
Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure router R2 so it is elected as the DR on the WAN subnet. Which command sequence must be configured?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined 10.10.10.16?
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected?
Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatical togged out?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new Cisco switch NewSW, to replace SW2 The details have been provided
• Switches SW1 and SW2 are third-party devices without support for trunk ports
• The existing connections must be maintained between PC1 PC2 and PC3
• Allow the switch to pass traffic from future VLAN 10. Which configuration must be applied?
A)

B)

C)

D)

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?
Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented?
Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?
A)

B)

C)

D)

What is a function of an endpoint?
Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?
Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?
Which syslog severity level is considered the most severe and results in the system being considered unusable?
An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?
What is a function of MAC address learning?
Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?
Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?
Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.























































