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Cisco 350-701 Dumps

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Total 726 questions

Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

B.

The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

C.

The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

D.

The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E.

When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA's own IP address as the HTTP request destination.

Question 2

An organization wants to use Cisco FTD or Cisco ASA devices. Specific URLs must be blocked from being

accessed via the firewall which requires that the administrator input the bad URL categories that the

organization wants blocked into the access policy. Which solution should be used to meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

Cisco ASA because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco FTDdoes not

B.

Cisco ASA because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not

C.

Cisco FTD because it includes URL filtering in the access control policy capabilities, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco FTD because it enables URL filtering and blocks malicious URLs by default, whereas Cisco ASA does not

Question 3

What is a difference between a DoS attack and a DDoS attack?

Options:

A.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where multiple systems target a single system with a DoS attack

B.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP and UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood multiple servers that are distributed over a LAN

C.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets

D.

A DoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with TCP packets whereas a DDoS attack is where a computer is used to flood a server with UDP packets

Question 4

Which role is a default guest type in Cisco ISE?

Options:

A.

Monthly

B.

Yearly

C.

Contractor

D.

Full-Time

Question 5

Which ESA implementation method segregates inbound and outbound email?

Options:

A.

one listener on a single physical Interface

B.

pair of logical listeners on a single physical interface with two unique logical IPv4 addresses and one IPv6 address

C.

pair of logical IPv4 listeners and a pair Of IPv6 listeners on two physically separate interfaces

D.

one listener on one logical IPv4 address on a single logical interface

Question 6

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console?

Options:

A.

Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

B.

Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.

C.

Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal.

D.

Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal.

Question 7

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco Secure Email Gateway?

Options:

A.

outbreakconfig

B.

websecurityconfig

C.

webadvancedconfig

D.

websecurityadvancedconfig

Question 8

Which component of Cisco umbrella architecture increases reliability of the service?

Options:

A.

Anycast IP

B.

AMP Threat grid

C.

Cisco Talos

D.

BGP route reflector

Question 9

When a transparent authentication fails on the Web Security Appliance, which type of access does the end user get?

Options:

A.

guest

B.

limited Internet

C.

blocked

D.

full Internet

Question 10

Which DevSecOps implementation process gives a weekly or daily update instead of monthly or quarterly in the applications?

Options:

A.

Orchestration

B.

CI/CD pipeline

C.

Container

D.

Security

Question 11

A Cisco Firepower administrator needs to configure a rule to allow a new application that has never been seen

on the network. Which two actions should be selected to allow the traffic to pass without inspection? (Choose

two)

Options:

A.

permit

B.

trust

C.

reset

D.

allow

E.

monitor

Question 12

Which Cisco DNA Center Intent API action is used to retrieve the number of devices known to a DNA Center?

Question 13

Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.

as

Options:

Question 14

An engineer recently completed the system setup on a Cisco WSA Which URL information does the system send to SensorBase Network servers?

Options:

A.

Summarized server-name information and MD5-hashed path information

B.

complete URL,without obfuscating the path segments

C.

URL information collected from clients that connect to the Cisco WSA using Cisco AnyConnect

D.

none because SensorBase Network Participation is disabled by default

Question 15

Which endpoint solution protects a user from a phishing attack?

Options:

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine

B.

Cisco AnyConnect with ISE Posture module

C.

Cisco AnyConnect with Network Access Manager module

D.

Cisco AnyConnect with Umbrella Roaming Security module

Question 16

Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

phishing

B.

brute force

C.

man-in-the-middle

D.

DDOS

E.

teardrop

Question 17

Which threat intelligence standard contains malware hashes?

Options:

A.

advanced persistent threat

B.

open command and control

C.

structured threat information expression

D.

trusted automated exchange of indicator information

Question 18

An organization must add new firewalls to its infrastructure and wants to use Cisco ASA or Cisco FTD.

The chosen firewalls must provide methods of blocking traffic that include offering the user the option to bypass the block for certain sites after displaying a warning page and to reset the connection. Which solution should the organization choose?

Options:

A.

Cisco FTD because it supports system rate level traffic blocking, whereas Cisco ASA does not

B.

Cisco ASA because it allows for interactive blocking and blocking with reset to be configured via the GUI, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

C.

Cisco FTD because it enables interactive blocking and blocking with reset natively, whereas Cisco ASA does not

D.

Cisco ASA because it has an additional module that can be installed to provide multiple blocking capabilities, whereas Cisco FTD does not.

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

Options:

A.

privilege level for an authorized user to this router

B.

access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

C.

interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

D.

number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

Question 20

An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUI into a new endpoint group. Which

probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

NMAP

C.

SNMP

D.

DHCP

Question 21

What provides the ability to program and monitor networks from somewhere other than the DNAC GUI?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

desktop client

C.

ASDM

D.

API

Question 22

An administrator wants to ensure that all endpoints are compliant before users are allowed access on the

corporate network. The endpoints must have the corporate antivirus application installed and be running the

latest build of Windows 10.

What must the administrator implement to ensure that all devices are compliant before they are allowed on the

network?

Options:

A.

Cisco Identity Services Engine and AnyConnect Posture module

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch and Cisco Identity Services Engine integration

C.

Cisco ASA firewall with Dynamic Access Policies configured

D.

Cisco Identity Services Engine with PxGrid services enabled

Question 23

Which portion of the network do EPP solutions solely focus on and EDR solutions do not?

Options:

A.

server farm

B.

perimeter

C.

core

D.

East-West gateways

Question 24

An organization wants to secure users, data, and applications in the cloud. The solution must be API-based and

operate as a cloud-native CASB. Which solution must be used for this implementation?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Cloud Email Security

C.

Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Firewall

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 25

What are two DDoS attack categories? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

sequential

B.

protocol

C.

database

D.

volume-based

E.

screen-based

Question 26

An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to

prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

Options:

A.

Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails

B.

Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails

C.

Configure policies to stop and reject communication

D.

Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection

Question 27

An organization is selecting a cloud architecture and does not want to be responsible for patch management of the operating systems. Why should the organization select either Platform as a Service or Infrastructure as a Service for this environment?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

B.

Infrastructure as a Service because the customer manages the operating system

C.

Platform as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

D.

Infrastructure as a Service because the service provider manages the operating system

Question 28

Which VPN provides scalability for organizations with many remote sites?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

site-to-site iPsec

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GRE over IPsec

Question 29

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device

B.

provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users

C.

native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or on-premises environments

D.

encrypts data that is stored on endpoints

E.

allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations

Question 30

Which security solution uses NetFlow to provide visibility across the network, data center, branch

offices, and cloud?

Options:

A.

Cisco CTA

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch

C.

Cisco Encrypted Traffic Analytics

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 31

How does Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud provide security for cloud environments?

Options:

A.

It delivers visibility and threat detection.

B.

It prevents exfiltration of sensitive data.

C.

It assigns Internet-based DNS protection for clients and servers.

D.

It facilitates secure connectivity between public and private networks.

Question 32

Which interface mode does a Cisco Secure IPS device use to block suspicious traffic?

Options:

A.

Passive

B.

Inline

C.

Promiscuous

D.

Active

Question 33

Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the device?

Options:

A.

aaa server radius dynamic-author

B.

aaa new-model

C.

auth-type all

D.

ip device-tracking

Question 34

Which functions of an SDN architecture require southbound APIs to enable communication?

Options:

A.

SDN controller and the network elements

B.

management console and the SDN controller

C.

management console and the cloud

D.

SDN controller and the cloud

Question 35

What is a benefit of performing device compliance?

Options:

A.

Verification of the latest OS patches

B.

Device classification and authorization

C.

Providing multi-factor authentication

D.

Providing attribute-driven policies

Question 36

A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on

four different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further

violations? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DHCP Snooping

B.

802.1AE MacSec

C.

Port security

D.

IP Device track

E.

Dynamic ARP inspection

F.

Private VLANs

Question 37

Which technology provides a combination of endpoint protection endpoint detection, and response?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP

B.

Cisco Talos

C.

Cisco Threat Grid

D.

Cisco Umbrella

Question 38

An organization wants to reduce their attach surface for cloud applications. They want to understand application communications, detect abnormal application Behavior, and detect vulnerabilities within the applications. Which action accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Configure Cisco Secure Workload to detect anomalies and vulnerabilities.

B.

Use Cisco ISE to provide application visibility and restrict access to them.

C.

Implement Cisco Umbrella lo control the access each application is granted.

D.

Modify the Cisco Duo configuration to restrict access between applications.

Question 39

A large organization wants to deploy a security appliance in the public cloud to form a site-to-site VPN

and link the public cloud environment to the private cloud in the headquarters data center. Which Cisco

security appliance meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloud Orchestrator

B.

Cisco ASAV

C.

Cisco WSAV

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 40

A company discovered an attack propagating through their network via a file. A custom file policy was created in order to track this in the future and ensure no other endpoints execute the infected file. In addition, it was discovered during testing that the scans are not detecting the file as an indicator of compromise. What must be done in order to ensure that the created is functioning as it should?

Options:

A.

Create an IP block list for the website from which the file was downloaded

B.

Block the application that the file was using to open

C.

Upload the hash for the file into the policy

D.

Send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

Question 41

How is DNS tunneling used to exfiltrate data out of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

It corrupts DNS servers by replacing the actual IP address with a rogue address to collect information or start other attacks.

B.

It encodes the payload with random characters that are broken into short strings and the DNS serverrebuilds the exfiltrated data.

C.

It redirects DNS requests to a malicious server used to steal user credentials, which allows further damageand theft on the network.

D.

It leverages the DNS server by permitting recursive lookups to spread the attack to other DNS servers.

Question 42

What are two list types within AMP for Endpoints Outbreak Control? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

blocked ports

B.

simple custom detections

C.

command and control

D.

allowed applications

E.

URL

Question 43

When wired 802.1X authentication is implemented, which two components are required? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

authentication server: Cisco Identity Service Engine

B.

supplicant: Cisco AnyConnect ISE Posture module

C.

authenticator: Cisco Catalyst switch

D.

authenticator: Cisco Identity Services Engine

E.

authentication server: Cisco Prime Infrastructure

Question 44

as

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZ_inside zone once the configuration is deployed?

Options:

A.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection.

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not.

C.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted.

D.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection.

Question 45

For which two conditions can an endpoint be checked using ISE posture assessment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Windows service

B.

computer identity

C.

user identity

D.

Windows firewall

E.

default browser

Question 46

Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NetFlow Version 9.

B.

Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.

C.

Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

D.

Create a class map to match interesting traffic.

E.

Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command

Question 47

What is a benefit of using Cisco AVC (Application Visibility and Control) for application control?

Options:

A.

management of application sessions

B.

retrospective application analysis

C.

zero-trust approach

D.

dynamic application scanning

Question 48

When NetFlow is applied to an interface, which component creates the flow monitor cache that is used

to collect traffic based on the key and nonkey fields in the configured record?

Options:

A.

records

B.

flow exporter

C.

flow sampler

D.

flow monitor

Question 49

Which two Cisco ISE components must be configured for BYOD? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

local WebAuth

B.

central WebAuth

C.

null WebAuth

D.

guest

E.

dual

Question 50

as

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration item makes it possible to have the AAA session on the network?

Options:

A.

aaa authorization exec default ise

B.

aaa authentication enable default enable

C.

aaa authorization network default group ise

D.

aaa authorization login console ise

Question 51

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be

authenticated and authorized. Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data. There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default. Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

Options:

A.

Virtual routing and forwarding

B.

Microsegmentation

C.

Access control policy

D.

Virtual LAN

Question 52

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

Options:

A.

Integration

B.

Intent

C.

Event

D.

Multivendor

Question 53

Which factor must be considered when choosing the on-premise solution over the cloud-based one?

Options:

A.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation and maintenance of the product, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the customer is responsible for it

B.

With a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

C.

With an on-premise solution, the provider is responsible for the installation, but the customer is responsible for the maintenance of the product.

D.

With an on-premise solution, the customer is responsible for the installation and maintenance of theproduct, whereas with a cloud-based solution, the provider is responsible for it.

Question 54

Which form of attack is launched using botnets?

Options:

A.

EIDDOS

B.

virus

C.

DDOS

D.

TCP flood

Question 55

An engineer must modify a policy to block specific addresses using Cisco Umbrella. The policy is created already and is actively used by devices, using many of the default policy elements.

What else must be done to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Modify the application settings to allow only applications to connect to required addresses.

B.

Create a destination list for addresses to be allowed or blocked.

C.

Add the specified addresses to the identities list and create a block action.

D.

Use content categories to block or allow specific addresses.

Question 56

Which two actions does the Cisco ISE posture module provide that ensures endpoint security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A centralized management solution is deployed.

B.

Patch management remediation is performed.

C.

The latest antivirus updates are applied before access is allowed.

D.

Assignments to endpoint groups are made dynamically, based on endpoint attributes.

E.

Endpoint supplicant configuration is deployed.

Question 57

Which system performs compliance checks and remote wiping?

Options:

A.

MDM

B.

ISE

C.

AMP

D.

OTP

Question 58

Which type of dashboard does Cisco DNA Center provide for complete control of the network?

Options:

A.

service management

B.

centralized management

C.

application management

D.

distributed management

Question 59

Which ASA deployment mode can provide separation of management on a shared appliance?

Options:

A.

DMZ multiple zone mode

B.

transparent firewall mode

C.

multiple context mode

D.

routed mode

Question 60

Which Cisco firewall solution supports configuration via Cisco Policy Language?

Options:

A.

CBAC

B.

ZFW

C.

IPS

D.

NGFW

Question 61

Which two preventive measures are used to control cross-site scripting? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable client-side scripts on a per-domain basis.

B.

Incorporate contextual output encoding/escaping.

C.

Disable cookie inspection in the HTML inspection engine.

D.

Run untrusted HTML input through an HTML sanitization engine.

E.

Same Site cookie attribute should not be used.

Question 62

Which cryptographic process provides origin confidentiality, integrity, and origin authentication for packets?

Options:

A.

IKEv1

B.

AH

C.

ESP

D.

IKEv2

Question 63

What is the benefit of integrating Cisco ISE with a MDM solution?

Options:

A.

It provides compliance checks for access to the network

B.

It provides the ability to update other applications on the mobile device

C.

It provides the ability to add applications to the mobile device through Cisco ISE

D.

It provides network device administration access

Question 64

What are two features of NetFlow flow monitoring? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Can track ingress and egress information

B.

Include the flow record and the flow importer

C.

Copies all ingress flow information to an interface

D.

Does not required packet sampling on interfaces

E.

Can be used to track multicast, MPLS, or bridged traffic

Question 65

With which components does a southbound API within a software-defined network architecture communicate?

Options:

A.

controllers within the network

B.

applications

C.

appliances

D.

devices such as routers and switches

Question 66

Where are individual sites specified to be blacklisted in Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

application settings

B.

content categories

C.

security settings

D.

destination lists

Question 67

A network administrator has configured TACACS on a network device using the key Cisc0467380030 tor authentication purposes. However, users are unable to authenticate. TACACS server is reachable, but authentication is tailing. Which configuration step must the administrator complete?

Options:

A.

Implement synchronized system clock on TACACS server that matches the network device.

B.

Install a compatible operating system version on the TACACS server.

C.

Configure the TACACS key on the server to match with the network device.

D.

Apply an access control list on TACACS server to allow communication with the network device.

Question 68

What is the Cisco API-based broker that helps reduce compromises, application risks, and data breaches in an environment that is not on-premise?

Options:

A.

Cisco Cloudlock

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco AMP

D.

Cisco App Dynamics

Question 69

What is a benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?

Options:

A.

Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.

B.

Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.

C.

Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.

D.

Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices

Question 70

In which two ways does the Cisco Advanced Phishing Protection solution protect users? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It prevents use of compromised accounts and social engineering.

B.

It prevents all zero-day attacks coming from the Internet.

C.

It automatically removes malicious emails from users' inbox.

D.

It prevents trojan horse malware using sensors.

E.

It secures all passwords that are shared in video conferences.

Question 71

Which telemetry data captures variations seen within the flow, such as the packets TTL, IP/TCP flags, and payload length?

Options:

A.

interpacket variation

B.

software package variation

C.

flow insight variation

D.

process details variation

Question 72

What is the function of the Context Directory Agent?

Options:

A.

maintains users’ group memberships

B.

relays user authentication requests from Web Security Appliance to Active Directory

C.

reads the Active Directory logs to map IP addresses to usernames

D.

accepts user authentication requests on behalf of Web Security Appliance for user identification

Question 73

What does Cisco ISE use to collect endpoint attributes that are used in profiling?

Options:

A.

probes

B.

posture assessment

C.

Cisco AnyConnect Secure Mobility Client

D.

Cisco pxGrid

Question 74

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client?

Options:

A.

The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats.

B.

The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity

C.

AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity.

D.

AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats.

Question 75

An administrator is establishing a new site-to-site VPN connection on a Cisco IOS router. The organization

needs to ensure that the ISAKMP key on the hub is used only for terminating traffic from the IP address of

172.19.20.24. Which command on the hub will allow the administrator to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

crypto ca identity 172.19.20.24

B.

crypto isakmp key Cisco0123456789 172.19.20.24

C.

crypto enrollment peer address 172.19.20.24

D.

crypto isakmp identity address 172.19.20.24

Question 76

Drag and drop the cryptographic algorithms for IPsec from the left onto the cryptographic processes on the right.

as

Options:

Question 77

An engineer is configuring device-hardening on a router in order to prevent credentials from being seen

if the router configuration was compromised. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

service password-encryption

B.

username privilege 15 password

C.

service password-recovery

D.

username < username> password

Question 78

What is a difference between GRE over IPsec and IPsec with crypto map?

Options:

A.

Multicast traffic is supported by IPsec with crypto map.

B.

GRE over IPsec supports non-IP protocols.

C.

GRE provides its own encryption mechanism.

D.

IPsec with crypto map oilers better scalability.

Question 79

Which technology enables integration between Cisco ISE and other platforms to gather and share

network and vulnerability data and SIEM and location information?

Options:

A.

pxGrid

B.

NetFlow

C.

SNMP

D.

Cisco Talos

Question 80

Which benefit does DMVPN provide over GETVPN?

Options:

A.

DMVPN supports QoS, multicast, and routing, and GETVPN supports only QoS.

B.

DMVPN is a tunnel-less VPN, and GETVPN is tunnel-based.

C.

DMVPN supports non-IP protocols, and GETVPN supports only IP protocols.

D.

DMVPN can be used over the public Internet, and GETVPN requires a private network.

Question 81

Drag and drop the concepts from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right

as

Options:

Question 82

What is a required prerequisite to enable malware file scanning for the Secure Internet Gateway?

Options:

A.

Enable IP Layer enforcement.

B.

Activate the Advanced Malware Protection license

C.

Activate SSL decryption.

D.

Enable Intelligent Proxy.

Question 83

What are two Detection and Analytics Engines of Cognitive Threat Analytics? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

data exfiltration

B.

command and control communication

C.

intelligent proxy

D.

snort

E.

URL categorization

Question 84

A network administrator is setting up Cisco FMC to send logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging (SaaS). The network administrator is anticipating a high volume of logging events from the firewalls and wants lo limit the strain on firewall resources. Which method must the administrator use to send these logs to Cisco Security Analytics and Logging?

Options:

A.

SFTP using the FMCCLI

B.

syslog using the Secure Event Connector

C.

direct connection using SNMP traps

D.

HTTP POST using the Security Analytics FMC plugin

Question 85

What is a benefit of using telemetry over SNMP to configure new routers for monitoring purposes?

Options:

A.

Telemetry uses a pull mehod, which makes it more reliable than SNMP

B.

Telemetry uses push and pull, which makes it more scalable than SNMP

C.

Telemetry uses push and pull which makes it more secure than SNMP

D.

Telemetry uses a push method which makes it faster than SNMP

Question 86

An organization is using Cisco Firepower and Cisco Meraki MX for network security and needs to centrally

manage cloud policies across these platforms. Which software should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

Cisco Defense Orchestrator

B.

Cisco Secureworks

C.

Cisco DNA Center

D.

Cisco Configuration Professional

Question 87

Which technology must be used to implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a

private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

DMVPN

B.

FlexVPN

C.

IPsec DVTI

D.

GET VPN

Question 88

An engineer needs to configure a Cisco Secure Email Gateway (SEG) to prompt users to enter multiple forms of identification before gaining access to the SEG. The SEG must also join a cluster using the preshared key of cisc421555367. What steps must be taken to support this?

Options:

A.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

B.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI.

C.

Enable two-factor authentication through a RADIUS server, and then join the cluster via the SEG CLI

D.

Enable two-factor authentication through a TACACS+ server, and then join the cluster via the SEG GUI.

Question 89

Refer to the exhibit.

as

An engineer must configure a Cisco switch to perform PPP authentication via a TACACS server located at IP address 10.1.1.10. Authentication must fall back to the local database using the username LocalUser and password C1Sc0451069341l if the TACACS server is unreachable.

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the corresponding configuration steps on the right.

as

Options:

Question 90

What is a difference between weak passwords and missing encryption?

Options:

A.

Weak passwords allow programs to be renamed, and missing encryption hides .exe extensions.

B.

Weak passwords cause programs to crash, and missing encryption sends data to a memory location.

C.

Weak passwords consume bandwidth, and missing encryption allows user information to be hijacked.

D.

Weak passwords are guessed easily, and missing encryption allows information to be decrypted.

Question 91

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint loC feature?

Options:

A.

It provides stealth threat prevention.

B.

lt is a signature-based engine.

C.

lt is an incident response tool

D.

It provides precompromise detection.

Question 92

Which term describes when the Cisco Secure Firewall downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Tables?

Options:

A.

analysis

B.

sharing

C.

authoring

D.

consumption

Question 93

Which type of API is being used when a security application notifies a controller within a software-defined network architecture about a specific security threat?

Options:

A.

westbound AP

B.

southbound API

C.

northbound API

D.

eastbound API

Question 94

Which cloud model is a collaborative effort where infrastructure is shared and jointly accessed by several organizations from a specific group?

Options:

A.

Hybrid

B.

Community

C.

Private

D.

Public

Question 95

What is a characteristic of a bridge group in ASA Firewall transparent mode?

Options:

A.

It includes multiple interfaces and access rules between interfaces are customizable

B.

It is a Layer 3 segment and includes one port and customizable access rules

C.

It allows ARP traffic with a single access rule

D.

It has an IP address on its BVI interface and is used for management traffic

Question 96

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

FireSIGHT

D.

ASA

Question 97

For a given policy in Cisco Umbrella, how should a customer block websites based on a custom list?

Options:

A.

By adding the websites to a blocked type destination list

B.

By specifying blocked domains in the policy settings

C.

By adding the website IP addresses to the Cisco Umbrella blocklist

D.

By specifying the websites in a custom blocked category

Question 98

What is the term for having information about threats and threat actors that helps mitigate harmful events that would otherwise compromise networks or systems?

Options:

A.

trusted automated exchange

B.

Indicators of Compromise

C.

The Exploit Database

D.

threat intelligence

Question 99

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address /capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Disable the proxy setting on the browser

B.

Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead

C.

Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser

D.

Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy

Question 100

A network engineer must monitor user and device behavior within the on-premises network. This data must be sent to the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud analytics platform for analysis. What must be done to meet this

requirement using the Ubuntu-based VM appliance deployed in a VMware-based hypervisor?

Options:

A.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send syslogs to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

B.

Deploy the Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM sensor that sends data to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

C.

Deploy a Cisco FTD sensor to send network events to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

D.

Configure a Cisco FMC to send NetFlow to Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud

Question 101

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Which command was used to display this output?

Options:

A.

show dot1x all

B.

show dot1x

C.

show dot1x all summary

D.

show dot1x interface gi1/0/12

Question 102

An engineer enabled SSL decryption for Cisco Umbrella intelligent proxy and needs to ensure that traffic is inspected without alerting end-users. Which action accomplishes this goal?

Options:

A.

Restrict access to only websites with trusted third-party signed certificates.

B.

Modify the user’s browser settings to suppress errors from Cisco Umbrella.

C.

Upload the organization root CA to Cisco Umbrella.

D.

Install the Cisco Umbrella root CA onto the user’s device.

Question 103

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is implementing a certificate-based VPN. What is the result of the existing configuration?

Options:

A.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is encrypted when the OU is set to MANGLER.

B.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is used as the identity when matching an IKEv2 authorization policy.

C.

Only an IKEv2 peer that has an OU certificate attribute set to MANGLER establishes an IKEv2 SA successfully.

D.

The OU of the IKEv2 peer certificate is set to MANGLER.

Question 104

In which two customer environments is the Cisco Secure Web Appliance Virtual connector traffic direction method selected? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Customer needs to support roaming users.

B.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Transparent Redirection (WCCP).

C.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and Virtual Form Factor is required.

D.

Customer does not own Cisco hardware and needs Explicit Proxy.

E.

Customer owns ASA Appliance and SSL Tunneling is required.

Question 105

Which two behavioral patterns characterize a ping of death attack? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 16 octets before transmission.

B.

The attack is fragmented into groups of 8 octets before transmission.

C.

Short synchronized bursts of traffic are used to disrupt TCP connections.

D.

Malformed packets are used to crash systems.

E.

Publicly accessible DNS servers are typically used to execute the attack.

Question 106

An engineer adds a custom detection policy to a Cisco AMP deployment and encounters issues with the

configuration. The simple detection mechanism is configured, but the dashboard indicates that the hash is not 64 characters and is non-zero. What is the issue?

Options:

A.

The engineer is attempting to upload a hash created using MD5 instead of SHA-256

B.

The file being uploaded is incompatible with simple detections and must use advanced detections

C.

The hash being uploaded is part of a set in an incorrect format

D.

The engineer is attempting to upload a file instead of a hash

Question 107

What is a benefit of an endpoint patch management strategy?

Options:

A.

Patches are deployed without a testing phase.

B.

Fewer staff is needed to manage the endpoints.

C.

Endpoints are resistant to vulnerabilities.

D.

Ensures adherence to regulatory and compliance standards.

Question 108

Which type of data exfiltration technique encodes data in outbound DNS requests to specific servers

and can be stopped by Cisco Umbrella?

Options:

A.

DNS tunneling

B.

DNS flood attack

C.

cache poisoning

D.

DNS hijacking

Question 109

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

TACACS+

B.

CHAP

C.

NTLMSSP

D.

RADIUS

E.

Kerberos

Question 110

Which Cisco Advanced Malware protection for Endpoints deployment architecture is designed to keep data

within a network perimeter?

Options:

A.

cloud web services

B.

network AMP

C.

private cloud

D.

public cloud

Question 111

An administrator needs to configure the Cisco ASA via ASDM such that the network management system

can actively monitor the host using SNMPv3. Which two tasks must be performed for this configuration?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Specify the SNMP manager and UDP port.

B.

Specify an SNMP user group

C.

Specify a community string.

D.

Add an SNMP USM entry

E.

Add an SNMP host access entry

Question 112

An engineer needs a cloud solution that will monitor traffic, create incidents based on events, and integrate with

other cloud solutions via an API. Which solution should be used to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

CASB

C.

Adaptive MFA

D.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 113

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

flow-export event-type

B.

policy-map

C.

access-list

D.

flow-export template timeout-rate 15

E.

access-group

Question 114

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices The default management port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed What must be done to ensure that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Set the sftunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

B.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTD devices

C.

Set the sftunnel port to 8305.

D.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

Question 115

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B.

Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C.

Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D.

An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E.

Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Question 116

What is the term for the concept of limiting communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

container orchestration

B.

software-defined access

C.

microservicing

D.

microsegmentation

Question 117

An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed

through the Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.

B.

Enable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.

C.

Add the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.

D.

Browse to http://welcome.umbrella.com/ to validate that the new identity is working.

Question 118

A network administrator needs to find out what assets currently exist on the network. Third-party systems need to be able to feed host data into Cisco Firepower. What must be configured to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

a Network Discovery policy to receive data from the host

B.

a Threat Intelligence policy to download the data from the host

C.

a File Analysis policy to send file data into Cisco Firepower

D.

a Network Analysis policy to receive NetFlow data from the host

Question 119

An engineer is configuring 802.1X authentication on Cisco switches in the network and is using CoA as a mechanism. Which port on the firewall must be opened to allow the CoA traffic to traverse the network?

Options:

A.

TCP 6514

B.

UDP 1700

C.

TCP 49

D.

UDP 1812

Question 120

Which API technology with SDN architecture is used to communicate with a controller and network devices such as routers and switches?

Options:

A.

REST APIs

B.

Northbound APIs

C.

Unprotected APIs

D.

Southbound APIs

Question 121

When a next-generation endpoint security solution is selected for a company, what are two key

deliverables that help justify the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

signature-based endpoint protection on company endpoints

B.

macro-based protection to keep connected endpoints safe

C.

continuous monitoring of all files that are located on connected endpoints

D.

email integration to protect endpoints from malicious content that is located in email

E.

real-time feeds from global threat intelligence centers

Question 122

A network administrator is configuring SNMPv3 on a new router. The users have already been created;

however, an additional configuration is needed to facilitate access to the SNMP views. What must the

administrator do to accomplish this?

Options:

A.

map SNMPv3 users to SNMP views

B.

set the password to be used for SNMPv3 authentication

C.

define the encryption algorithm to be used by SNMPv3

D.

specify the UDP port used by SNMP

Question 123

Which cloud service offering allows customers to access a web application that is being hosted, managed, and maintained by a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

IaC

B.

SaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

PaaS

Question 124

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

Options:

A.

You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B.

It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C.

It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D.

It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Question 125

Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social

engineering attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Patch for cross-site scripting.

B.

Perform backups to the private cloud.

C.

Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.

D.

Install a spam and virus email filter.

E.

Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program

Question 126

An organization has noticed an increase in malicious content downloads and wants to use Cisco Umbrella to prevent this activity for suspicious domains while allowing normal web traffic. Which action will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Set content settings to High

B.

Configure the intelligent proxy.

C.

Use destination block lists.

D.

Configure application block lists.

Question 127

Which Cisco Secure Client module is integrated with Splunk Enterprise to provide monitoring capabilities to administrators to allow them to view endpoint application usage?

Options:

A.

Umbrella Roaming Security

B.

Network Visibility

C.

AMP Enabler

D.

ISE Posture

Question 128

Which feature within Cisco ISE verifies the compliance of an endpoint before providing access to the

network?

Options:

A.

Posture

B.

Profiling

C.

pxGrid

D.

MAB

Question 129

An engineer must implement a file transfer solution between a company's data center and branches. The company has numerous servers hosted in a hybrid cloud implementation. The file transfer protocol must support authentication, protect the data against unauthorized access, and ensure that users cannot list directories or remove files remotely. Which protocol must be used?

Options:

A.

SCP

B.

SSH

C.

FTPS

D.

SFTP

Question 130

Refer to the exhibit,

as

which command results in these messages when attempting to troubleshoot an iPsec VPN connection?

Options:

A.

debug crypto isakmp

B.

debug crypto ipsec endpoint

C.

debug crypto Ipsec

D.

debug crypto isakmp connection

Question 131

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What will occur when this device tries to connect to the port?

Options:

A.

802.1X will not work, but MAB will start and allow the device on the network.

B.

802.1X will not work and the device will not be allowed network access

C.

802 1X will work and the device will be allowed on the network

D.

802 1X and MAB will both be used and ISE can use policy to determine the access level

Question 132

as

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must enable secure SSH protocols and enters this configuration. What are two results of running this set of commands on a Cisco router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Labels the key pair to be used for SSH

B.

Uses the FQDN with the label command

C.

Generates AES key pairs on the router

D.

Generates RSA key pair on the router

E.

Enables SSHv1 on the router

Question 133

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

Options:

A.

AAA attributes

B.

CoA request

C.

AV pair

D.

carrier-grade NAT

Question 134

An engineer is configuring their router to send NetfFow data to Stealthwatch which has an IP address of 1 1 11 using the flow record Stea!thwatch406397954 command Which additional command is required to complete the flow record?

Options:

A.

transport udp 2055

B.

match ipv4 ttl

C.

cache timeout active 60

D.

destination 1.1.1.1

Question 135

Which CLI command is used to enable URL filtering support for shortened URLs on the Cisco ESA?

Options:

A.

webadvancedconfig

B.

websecurity advancedconfig

C.

outbreakconfig

D.

websecurity config

Question 136

Which ID store requires that a shadow user be created on Cisco ISE for the admin login to work?

Options:

A.

RSA SecureID

B.

Internal Database

C.

Active Directory

D.

LDAP

Question 137

A security engineer is tasked with configuring TACACS on a Cisco ASA firewall. The engineer must be able to access the firewall command line interface remotely. The authentication must fall back to the local user database of the Cisco ASA firewall. AAA server group named TACACS-GROUP is already configured with TACACS server IP address 192.168.10.10 and key C1sc0512222832!. Which configuration must be done next to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

aaa authentication ssh console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

B.

aaa authentication ssh console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

C.

aaa authentication serial console LOCAL TACACS-GROUP

D.

aaa authentication http console TACACS-GROUP LOCAL

Question 138

An engineer is trying to decide whether to use Cisco Umbrella, Cisco CloudLock, Cisco Stealthwatch, or Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring for visibility into data transfers as well as protection against data exfiltration Which solution best meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco CloudLock

B.

Cisco AppDynamics Cloud Monitoring

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Stealthwatch

Question 139

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What will happen when this Python script is run?

Options:

A.

The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP

B.

The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP

C.

The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP

D.

The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP

Question 140

Which network monitoring solution uses streams and pushes operational data to provide a near real-time view

of activity?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

SMTP

C.

syslog

D.

model-driven telemetry

Question 141

Which type of attack is social engineering?

Options:

A.

trojan

B.

phishing

C.

malware

D.

MITM

Question 142

A network engineer must migrate a Cisco WSA virtual appliance from one physical host to another physical host by using VMware vMotion. What is a requirement for both physical hosts?

Options:

A.

The hosts must run Cisco AsyncOS 10.0 or greater.

B.

The hosts must run different versions of Cisco AsyncOS.

C.

The hosts must have access to the same defined network.

D.

The hosts must use a different datastore than the virtual appliance.

Question 143

With regard to RFC 5176 compliance, how many IETF attributes are supported by the RADIUS CoA feature?

Options:

A.

3

B.

5

C.

10

D.

12

Question 144

What are two facts about WSA HTTP proxy configuration with a PAC file? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is defined as a Transparent proxy deployment.

B.

In a dual-NIC configuration, the PAC file directs traffic through the two NICs to the proxy.

C.

The PAC file, which references the proxy, is deployed to the client web browser.

D.

It is defined as an Explicit proxy deployment.

E.

It is defined as a Bridge proxy deployment.

Question 145

Which encryption algorithm provides highly secure VPN communications?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

AES 256

C.

AES 128

D.

DES

Question 146

An organization configures Cisco Umbrella to be used for its DNS services. The organization must be able to block traffic based on the subnet that the endpoint is on but it sees only the requests from its public IP address instead of each internal IP address. What must be done to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Set up a Cisco Umbrella virtual appliance to internally field the requests and see the traffic of each IP address

B.

Use the tenant control features to identify each subnet being used and track the connections within theCisco Umbrella dashboard

C.

Install the Microsoft Active Directory Connector to give IP address information stitched to the requests in the Cisco Umbrella dashboard

D.

Configure an internal domain within Cisco Umbrella to help identify each address and create policy from the domains

Question 147

Which risk is created when using an Internet browser to access cloud-based service?

Options:

A.

misconfiguration of infrastructure, which allows unauthorized access

B.

intermittent connection to the cloud connectors

C.

vulnerabilities within protocol

D.

insecure implementation of API

Question 148

What is the purpose of the Decrypt for Application Detection feature within the WSA Decryption options?

Options:

A.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for unauthenticated users.

B.

It alerts users when the WSA decrypts their traffic.

C.

It decrypts HTTPS application traffic for authenticated users.

D.

It provides enhanced HTTPS application detection for AsyncOS.

Question 149

Which security solution protects users leveraging DNS-layer security?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco FTD

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco ASA

Question 150

Which VPN technology supports a multivendor environment and secure traffic between sites?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN

B.

DMVPN

C.

SSL VPN

D.

GET VPN

Question 151

Which cloud service model offers an environment for cloud consumers to develop and deploy applications

without needing to manage or maintain the underlying cloud infrastructure?

Options:

A.

PaaS

B.

XaaS

C.

IaaS

D.

SaaS

Question 152

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

Options:

A.

To issue and revoke digital certificates

B.

To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C.

To create the private key for a digital certificate

D.

To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

Question 153

Which two products are used to forecast capacity needs accurately in real time? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Cisco Secure Workload

B.

Cisco Umbrella

C.

Cisco Workload Optimization Manager

D.

Cisco AppDynamics

E.

Cisco Cloudlock

Question 154

Which type of algorithm provides the highest level of protection against brute-force attacks?

Options:

A.

PFS

B.

HMAC

C.

MD5

D.

SHA

Question 155

How does a WCCP-configured router identify if the Cisco WSA is functional?

Options:

A.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longer transmitted to the router.

B.

If an ICMP ping fails three consecutive times between a router and the WSA, traffic is no longertransmitted to the WSA.

C.

The WSA sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the router acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

D.

The router sends a Here-l-Am message every 10 seconds, and the WSA acknowledges with an ISee-You message.

Question 156

Which solution for remote workers enables protection, detection, and response on the endpoint against known and unknown threats?

Options:

A.

Cisco AMP for Endpoints

B.

Cisco AnyConnect

C.

Cisco Umbrella

D.

Cisco Duo

Question 157

Which solution is more secure than the traditional use of a username and password and encompasses at least two of the methods of authentication?

Options:

A.

single-sign on

B.

RADIUS/LDAP authentication

C.

Kerberos security solution

D.

multifactor authentication

Question 158

Refer to the exhibit.

as

Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco ISE administrator adds a new switch to an 802.1X deployment and has difficulty with some endpoints gaining access.

Most PCs and IP phones can connect and authenticate using their machine certificate credentials. However printer and video cameras cannot base d on the interface configuration provided, what must be to get these devices on to the network using Cisco ISE for authentication and authorization while maintaining security controls?

Options:

A.

Change the default policy in Cisco ISE to allow all devices not using machine authentication .

B.

Enable insecure protocols within Cisco ISE in the allowed protocols configuration.

C.

Configure authentication event fail retry 2 action authorize vlan 41 on the interface

D.

Add mab to the interface configuration.

Question 159

Which firewall mode does a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance use to inspect Layer 2 traffic?

Options:

A.

Routed

B.

Passive

C.

Inline

D.

Transparent

Question 160

as

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must retrieve the interface configuration on a Cisco router by using the NETCONF API. The engineer uses a python script to automate the activity.

Which code snippet completes the script?

Options:

A.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+json

B.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data

C.

Content-Type: application/vnd.yang.data+api

D.

Content-Type: applications/json/vnd.yang.data

Question 161

A network engineer must create an access control list on a Cisco Adaptive Security Appliance firewall. The access control list must permit HTTP traffic to the internet from the organization's inside network 192.168.1.0/24. Which IOS command must oe used to create the access control list?

Options:

A.

B.

C.

D.

Question 162

What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the central code repository are merged and synchronized?

Options:

A.

CD

B.

EP

C.

CI

D.

QA

Question 163

An engineer is configuring web filtering for a network using Cisco Umbrella Secure Internet Gateway.

The requirement is that all traffic needs to be filtered. Using the SSL decryption feature, which type of

certificate should be presented to the end-user to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

third-party

B.

self-signed

C.

organization owned root

D.

SubCA

Question 164

A network engineer is tasked with configuring a Cisco ISE server to implement external authentication against Active Directory. What must be considered about the authentication requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

RADIUS communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

B.

The ISE account must be a domain administrator in Active Directory to perform JOIN operations.

C.

Active Directory only supports user authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

D.

LDAP communication must be permitted between the ISE server and the domain controller.

E.

Active Directory supports user and machine authentication by using MSCHAPv2.

Question 165

Drag and drop the common security threats from the left onto the definitions on the right.

as

Options:

Question 166

What is a characteristic of Firepower NGIPS inline deployment mode?

Options:

A.

ASA with Firepower module cannot be deployed.

B.

It cannot take actions such as blocking traffic.

C.

It is out-of-band from traffic.

D.

It must have inline interface pairs configured.

Question 167

An engineer implements Cisco CloudLock to secure a Microsoft Office 365 application in the cloud. The engineer must configure protection for corporate files in case of any incidents. Which two actions must be taken to complete the implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Expire the public share URL

B.

Send Cisco Webex message to specified users when an incident is triggered

C.

Transfer ownership of the files to a specified owner and folder

D.

Remove all users as collaborators on the files

E.

Disable the ability for commenters and viewers to download and copy the files

Question 168

What are two workload security models? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

off-premises

D.

on-premises

E.

IaaS

Question 169

Which technology must De used to Implement secure VPN connectivity among company branches over a private IP cloud with any-to-any scalable connectivity?

Options:

A.

GET VPN

B.

IPsec DVTI

C.

DMVPN

D.

FlexVPN

Question 170

What is a commonality between DMVPN and FlexVPN technologies?

Options:

A.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use IS-IS routing protocol to communicate with spokes

B.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the new key management protocol

C.

FlexVPN and DMVPN use the same hashing algorithms

D.

IOS routers run the same NHRP code for DMVPN and FlexVPN

Question 171

An organization wants to provide visibility and to identify active threats in its network using a VM. The

organization wants to extract metadata from network packet flow while ensuring that payloads are not retained

or transferred outside the network. Which solution meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Cisco Umbrella Cloud

B.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PNM

C.

Cisco Stealthwatch Cloud PCM

D.

Cisco Umbrella On-Premises

Question 172

What are two things to consider when using PAC files with the Cisco WSA? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

If the WSA host port is changed, the default port redirects web traffic to the correct port automatically.

B.

PAC files use if-else statements to determine whether to use a proxy or a direct connection for traffic between the PC and the host.

C.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 9001 by default.

D.

The WSA hosts PAC files on port 6001 by default.

E.

By default, they direct traffic through a proxy when the PC and the host are on the same subnet.

Question 173

Which method must be used to connect Cisco Secure Workload to external orchestrators at a client site when the client does not allow incoming connections?

Options:

A.

source NAT

B.

reverse tunnel

C.

GRE tunnel

D.

destination NAT

Question 174

Which two descriptions of AES encryption are true? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

AES is less secure than 3DES.

B.

AES is more secure than 3DES.

C.

AES can use a 168-bit key for encryption.

D.

AES can use a 256-bit key for encryption.

E.

AES encrypts and decrypts a key three times in sequence.

Question 175

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It must include the current date.

B.

It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA.

C.

It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint.

D.

It must have been signed by an internal CA.

E.

it must contain a SAN.

Question 176

What is the concept of Cl/CD pipelining?

Options:

A.

The project is split into several phases where one phase cannot start before the previous phase finishes successfully.

B.

The project code is centrally maintained and each code change should trigger an automated build and test sequence

C.

The project is split into time-limited cycles and focuses on pair programming for continuous code review

D.

Each project phase is independent from other phases to maintain adaptiveness and continual improvement

Question 177

Which category includes DoS Attacks?

Options:

A.

Virus attacks

B.

Trojan attacks

C.

Flood attacks

D.

Phishing attacks

Question 178

Drag and drop the security responsibilities from the left onto the corresponding cloud service models on the right.

as

Options:

Question 179

Which Cisco solution integrates industry-leading artificial intelligence and machine learning analytics and an assurance database to review the security posture and maintain visibility of an organization’s cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Cisco CSR1000v

B.

Cisco Secure Workload

C.

Cisco DNA

D.

Cisco FTD

Question 180

How does DNS Tunneling exfiltrate data?

Options:

A.

An attacker registers a domain that a client connects to based on DNS records and sends malware throughthat connection.

B.

An attacker opens a reverse DNS shell to get into the client’s system and install malware on it.

C.

An attacker uses a non-standard DNS port to gain access to the organization’s DNS servers in order topoison the resolutions.

D.

An attacker sends an email to the target with hidden DNS resolvers in it to redirect them to a maliciousdomain.

Question 181

With Cisco AMP for Endpoints, which option shows a list of all files that have been executed in your

environment?

Options:

A.

Prevalence

B.

File analysis

C.

Detections

D.

Vulnerable software

E.

Threat root cause

Question 182

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to an enterprise owned storage?

Options:

A.

by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B.

by sending logs via syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based syslog server

C.

by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D.

by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Question 183

Which feature is used to restrict communication between interfaces on a Cisco ASA?

Options:

A.

VLAN subinterfaces

B.

Traffic zones

C.

Security levels

D.

VxLAN interfaces

Question 184

Which two features are used to configure Cisco ESA with a multilayer approach to fight viruses and malware?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

Sophos engine

B.

white list

C.

RAT

D.

outbreak filters

E.

DLP

Question 185

Which Dos attack uses fragmented packets to crash a target machine?

Options:

A.

smurf

B.

MITM

C.

teardrop

D.

LAND

Question 186

What is a difference between FlexVPN and DMVPN?

Options:

A.

DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, FlexVPN only uses IKEv1

B.

DMVPN uses only IKEv1 FlexVPN uses only IKEv2

C.

FlexVPN uses IKEv2, DMVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2

D.

FlexVPN uses IKEv1 or IKEv2, DMVPN uses only IKEv2

Question 187

vas

Refer to the exhibit When configuring this access control rule in Cisco FMC, what happens with the traffic destined to the DMZjnside zone once the configuration is deployed?

Options:

A.

All traffic from any zone to the DMZ_inside zone will be permitted with no further inspection

B.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone regardless of if it's trusted or not

C.

All traffic from any zone will be allowed to the DMZ_inside zone only after inspection

D.

No traffic will be allowed through to the DMZ_inside zone unless it's already trusted

Question 188

An engineer is configuring a Cisco ESA and wants to control whether to accept or reject email messages to a

recipient address. Which list contains the allowed recipient addresses?

Options:

A.

SAT

B.

BAT

C.

HAT

D.

RAT

Question 189

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data?

Options:

A.

It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella

B.

It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket

C.

No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket

D.

Data can be stored offline for 30 days.

Question 190

An engineer is configuring cloud logging on Cisco ASA and needs events to compress. Which component must be configured to accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

CDO event viewer

B.

SWC service

C.

Cisco analytics

D.

SDC VM

Question 191

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the correct order on the right to enable AppDynamics to monitor an EC2 instance in Amazon Web Services.

as

Options:

Question 192

An organization uses Cisco FMC to centrally manage multiple Cisco FTD devices. The default management

port conflicts with other communications on the network and must be changed. What must be done to ensure

that all devices can communicate together?

Options:

A.

Manually change the management port on Cisco FMC and all managed Cisco FTD devices

B.

Set the tunnel to go through the Cisco FTD

C.

Change the management port on Cisco FMC so that it pushes the change to all managed Cisco FTDdevices

D.

Set the tunnel port to 8305

Question 193

Using Cisco Firepower’s Security Intelligence policies, upon which two criteria is Firepower block based?

(Choose two)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

protocol IDs

C.

IP addresses

D.

MAC addresses

E.

port numbers

Question 194

Which two capabilities of Integration APIs are utilized with Cisco DNA center? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Upgrade software on switches and routers

B.

Third party reporting

C.

Connect to ITSM platforms

D.

Create new SSIDs on a wireless LAN controller

E.

Automatically deploy new virtual routers

Question 195

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

Options:

A.

up to 2

B.

up to 4

C.

up to 8

D.

up to 16

Question 196

While using Cisco Secure Firewall's Security Intelligence policies, which two criteria is blocking based upon? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

URLs

B.

MAC addresses

C.

Port numbers

D.

IP addresses

E.

Protocol IDs

Question 197

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

NTP

C.

syslog

D.

DNS

Question 198

Which two services must remain as on-premises equipment when a hybrid email solution is deployed? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

antispam

C.

antivirus

D.

encryption

E.

DLP

Question 199

What is the result of running the crypto isakmp key ciscXXXXXXXX address 172.16.0.0 command?

Options:

A.

authenticates the IKEv2 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

B.

authenticates the IP address of the 172.16.0.0/32 peer by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

C.

authenticates the IKEv1 peers in the 172.16.0.0/16 range by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

D.

secures all the certificates in the IKE exchange by using the key ciscXXXXXXXX

Question 200

as

Refer to the exhibit. What function does the API key perform while working with

Options:

A.

imports requests

B.

HTTP authorization

C.

HTTP authentication

D.

plays dent ID

Question 201

A network administrator is using the Cisco ESA with AMP to upload files to the cloud for analysis. The network

is congested and is affecting communication. How will the Cisco ESA handle any files which need analysis?

Options:

A.

AMP calculates the SHA-256 fingerprint, caches it, and periodically attempts the upload.

B.

The file is queued for upload when connectivity is restored.

C.

The file upload is abandoned.

D.

The ESA immediately makes another attempt to upload the file.

Question 202

Which RADIUS attribute can you use to filter MAB requests in an 802.1 x deployment?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

6

D.

31

Question 203

An engineer is trying to decide between using L2TP or GRE over IPsec for their site-to-site VPN implementation. What must be un solution?

Options:

A.

L2TP is an IP packet encapsulation protocol, and GRE over IPsec is a tunneling protocol.

B.

L2TP uses TCP port 47 and GRE over IPsec uses UDP port 1701.

C.

GRE over IPsec adds its own header, and L2TP does not.

D.

GRE over IPsec cannot be used as a standalone protocol, and L2TP can.

Question 204

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B.

Define security group memberships.

C.

Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D.

Use antispyware software.

E.

Implement email filtering techniques.

Question 205

A network engineer has been tasked with adding a new medical device to the network. Cisco ISE is being used as the NAC server, and the new device does not have a supplicant available. What must be done in order to securely connect this device to the network?

Options:

A.

Use MAB with profiling

B.

Use MAB with posture assessment.

C.

Use 802.1X with posture assessment.

D.

Use 802.1X with profiling.

Question 206

Which Cisco platform onboards the endpoint and can issue a CA signed certificate while also automatically configuring endpoint network settings to use the signed endpoint certificate, allowing the endpoint to gain network access?

Options:

A.

Cisco ISE

B.

Cisco NAC

C.

Cisco TACACS+

D.

Cisco WSA

Question 207

Which service allows a user to export application usage and performance statistics with Cisco Application Visibility and Control?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

802.1X

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNORT

Question 208

What limits communication between applications or containers on the same node?

Options:

A.

microsegmentation

B.

container orchestration

C.

microservicing

D.

Software-Defined Access

Question 209

What are two ways that Cisco Container Platform provides value to customers who utilize cloud service providers? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Allows developers to create code once and deploy to multiple clouds

B.

helps maintain source code for cloud deployments

C.

manages Docker containers

D.

manages Kubernetes clusters

E.

Creates complex tasks for managing code

Question 210

as

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Secure Firewall Threat Defense appliance.

B.

Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

C.

The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

D.

Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

Question 211

An engineer is configuring Cisco Secure Endpoint to enhance security by preventing the execution of certain files by users. The engineer needs to ensure that the specific executable file name Cisco_Software_0505446151.exe is blocked from running while never being quarantined. What must the engineer configure to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Create advanced custom detection list.

B.

Configure application control blocked applications list.

C.

Implement simple custom detection list.

D.

Enable scheduled scans to detect and block the executable files.

Question 212

Which action configures the IEEE 802.1X Flexible Authentication feature lo support Layer 3 authentication mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Identity the devices using this feature and create a policy that allows them to pass Layer 2 authentication.

B.

Configure WebAuth so the hosts are redirected to a web page for authentication.

C.

Modify the Dot1x configuration on the VPN server lo send Layer 3 authentications to an external authentication database

D.

Add MAB into the switch to allow redirection to a Layer 3 device for authentication.

Question 213

as

Refer to the exhibit. Consider that any feature of DNS requests, such as the length of the domain name and the number of subdomains, can be used to construct models of expected behavior to which observed values can be compared. Which type of malicious attack are these values associated with?

Options:

A.

W32/AutoRun worm

B.

HeartBleed SSL Bug

C.

Spectre Worm

D.

Eternal Blue Windows

Question 214

Which feature within Cisco Umbrella allows for the ability to inspect secure HTTP traffic?

Options:

A.

File Analysis

B.

SafeSearch

C.

SSL Decryption

D.

Destination Lists

Question 215

A company recently discovered an attack propagating throughout their Windows network via a file named abc428565580xyz exe The malicious file was uploaded to a Simple Custom Detection list in the AMP for Endpoints Portal and the currently applied policy for the Windows clients was updated to reference the detection list Verification testing scans on known infected systems shows that AMP for Endpoints is not detecting the presence of this file as an indicator of compromise What must be performed to ensure detection of the malicious file?

Options:

A.

Upload the malicious file to the Blocked Application Control List

B.

Use an Advanced Custom Detection List instead of a Simple Custom Detection List

C.

Check the box in the policy configuration to send the file to Cisco Threat Grid for dynamic analysis

D.

Upload the SHA-256 hash for the file to the Simple Custom Detection List

Question 216

Elliptic curve cryptography is a stronger more efficient cryptography method meant to replace which current

encryption technology?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

RSA

C.

DES

D.

AES

Question 217

Drag and drop the solutions from the left onto the solution's benefits on the right.

as

Options:

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Total 726 questions