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CISI UAE-Financial-Rules-and-Regulations Dumps

CISI UAE Financial Rules and Regulations Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Where a pledge request is submitted to the CSD Department, the details provided on the relevant form must include:

Options:

A.

The duration of the arrangement

B.

The reason for the arrangement

C.

The party entitled to the profits

D.

The agreed default option

Question 2

Why would a transaction to purchase securities be declared null and void?

Options:

A.

It was the result of a rumour being spread

B.

The individual is a former employee

C.

The Authority has levied a penalty for delay of payment

D.

The investor has a conviction of an offence of dishonour

Question 3

A public real estate investment fund must distribute at least what percentage of the achieved net profits every year, to the holders of its units?

Options:

A.

50%

B.

75%

C.

80%

D.

100%

Question 4

Financial institutions must retain all records, documents, data and statistics for all financial transactions and local or international commercial and cash transactions for a period of no less than:

Options:

A.

Three years from the date of completion of the transaction or five years from the termination of the relationship with the customer

B.

Five years from the date of completion of the transaction or ten years from the termination of the relationship with the customer

C.

Five years from the date of completion of the transaction or termination of the business relationship with the customer

D.

Ten years from the date of completion of the transaction or termination of the business relationship with the customer

Question 5

If the perpetrator of a money laundering crime is a repeat offender, what impact does this have on the minimum fine compared to a first offence?

Options:

A.

It is increased by 50%

B.

It is doubled

C.

It is tripled

D.

It is quadrupled

Question 6

A Special Purpose Acquisition Company which wants to make its shares available to the public intends to appoint a risk consultant, a listing consultant and a financial consultant. Which of these appointments is required under the regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk consultant and listing consultant only

B.

Listing consultant and financial consultant only

C.

Financial consultant and risk consultant only

D.

Risk consultant, listing consultant and financial consultant

Question 7

An applicant for a financial activities licence must have procedures in place to recover electronic records from the archive within what maximum period?

Options:

A.

Two calendar days

B.

Three business days

C.

Four calendar days

D.

Five business days

Question 8

There is a regulatory obligation placed on the evaluator of an investment fund's in-kind shares to indicate whether the shares:

Options:

A.

Were acquired at a discount or not

B.

Can be liquidated or not

C.

Represent short- or long-term assets

D.

Are capital-growth or income-orientated

Question 9

One of the financial activities included within "dealing in investment" and expected to be conducted by a Financial Analyst is:

Options:

A.

Administrative services for investment funds

B.

Trading brokerage

C.

Managing a portfolio of securities

D.

Securities dealing

Question 10

Which category of firm is required to provide accounts using a ‘Unified Centralised Back Office System’?

Options:

A.

Category 1 - Dealing in securities

B.

Category 2 - Dealing in investments

C.

Category 3 - Custody, clearing and recording

D.

Category 4 - Credit rating agencies

Question 11

Where an applicant for a financial activities licence uses a cloud-based server, they must set out provisions to ensure the outsourced party can operate with zero data loss for what stated period?

Options:

A.

Three years

B.

Five years

C.

Seven years

D.

Ten years

Question 12

When updating their money laundering compliance framework, firms involved in crypto assets are required to take into account the recommendations of which body?

Options:

A.

Bank for International Settlements

B.

Financial Action Task Force

C.

World Bank

D.

United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime

Question 13

When a firm applies to the Authority for a licence, an internal audit guide must be included setting out procedures which will ensure that:

Options:

A.

Internal audits are carried out at least quarterly

B.

Internal audits are registered with the correct accounting times

C.

The internal auditor can act independently

D.

The internal auditor is externally nominated

Question 14

The written agreement between a crypto asset custodian and the holders of these assets must set out the procedures that will be adopted to identify and prevent:

Options:

A.

The holding of keys by any of its employees

B.

The execution of multiple instructions in respect of the same transaction

C.

The assets being used to disproportionately benefit one investor over another

D.

The ownership of the assets by persons who are not qualified investors

Question 15

Which of the following financial activities comes under the fifth category licence?

Options:

A.

Arrangement and advice

B.

Credit rating agencies

C.

Dealing in securities

D.

Dealing in investments

Question 16

A failure to report suspicions, or gross negligence in implementing processes and procedures in relation to suspicions of money laundering, can result in a fine of:

Options:

A.

no less than AED 50,000 and no more than AED 1,000,000

B.

no less than AED 100,000 and no more than AED 1,000,000

C.

no less than AED 100,000 and no more than AED 5,000,000

D.

no less than AED 1,000,000 and no more than AED 10,000,000

Question 17

Where an existing public company wants to issue further shares via a rights issue, this must be announced at least what minimum period before the start date of the subscription?

Options:

A.

20 business days

B.

28 calendar days

C.

40 business days

D.

56 calendar days

Question 18

If a Special Purpose Acquisition Company fails to complete a business combination, measures to return the funds to investors must be taken within what maximum number of business days?

Options:

A.

10

B.

15

C.

20

D.

25

Question 19

In what circumstances may representatives of a broker or employees of brokerage firms trade for their own accounts?

Options:

A.

Only through the account of a spouse or family member, with written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

B.

Only through their own firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

C.

Only through their own firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the DFM

D.

Only through other firms and upon written approval of the brokerage firm manager and the Authority

Question 20

A Special Purpose Acquisition Company deposited 95% of its public subscription proceeds into an escrow account. It is permitted to use this money to:

Options:

A.

Meet recovery requests by the investors

B.

Finance an internal restructuring programme

C.

Hedge against adverse market movements

D.

Fund the issue of additional shares

Question 21

Brokers have a number of obligations in relation to client orders, including:

Options:

A.

Processing all sell orders on a short-selling basis

B.

Avoiding conflicts when the firm has an interest in a transaction

C.

Reselling or repurchasing securities where orders breach regulations

D.

Ensuring a buy order is processed before the client has paid

Question 22

The regulations regarding Key Investor Information Documents for self-managed funds will be breached if the document includes:

Options:

A.

Reference to any guarantees

B.

Reference to any evaluation

C.

Disposal information

D.

Complaints information

Question 23

What is the maximum term of imprisonment that can be imposed on a person who attempts to commit the crime of money laundering?

Options:

A.

Three years

B.

Five years

C.

Seven years

D.

Ten years

Question 24

During a trading session, if an order is not fully executed, then:

Options:

A.

the order will be dealt with at the next trading session

B.

the transaction is executed at the price set on the other side of the transaction

C.

the remaining unexecuted volume is cancelled and a new order is placed, at the last executed price

D.

the remaining unexecuted volume stays on the trading system, at the last executed price

Question 25

Designated non-financial businesses and professions are banned under the regulations from dealing with which type of organisation?

Options:

A.

Shell banks

B.

Mutual co-operatives

C.

Benefit corporations

D.

Non-profit organisations

Question 26

A firm which intends to send advertising material directly to a client has been correctly advised that many of the financial promotion rules are inapplicable. This is because:

Options:

A.

The firm has fewer than five full-time employees

B.

The client is a politically exposed person

C.

The firm offers purely execution-only services

D.

The client is an eligible counterparty

Question 27

The Authority is permitted to cancel the licence of a licensed body if it fails to practise any financial activity within what prescribed period after obtaining the category licence?

Options:

A.

6 months

B.

12 months

C.

18 months

D.

24 months

Question 28

The whistleblowing policy submitted by an applicant for a financial activities licence must include a mechanism for:

Options:

A.

protecting the reporting employee

B.

escalating any reports to board level

C.

disciplining staff proven to have breached rules

D.

ensuring all staff have a named reporting contact

Question 29

Where a private equity fund is to be incorporated, the incorporation agreement must include a statement indicating:

Options:

A.

who will be appointed auditor for the fund

B.

who bears main responsibility for regulatory compliance

C.

whether the investment management will be outsourced

D.

whether the limited partners can influence investment management

Question 30

What is the minimum fine that can be levied on a person found guilty of financing an illegal organisation?

Options:

A.

AED 150,000

B.

AED 200,000

C.

AED 250,000

D.

AED 300,000

Question 31

What are brokerage firms able to do during the closing session?

Options:

A.

Adjust orders

B.

Enter new orders

C.

Make enquiries

D.

Cancel orders

Question 32

For all local funds, a semi-annual report on the public fund’s performance must be prepared no later than:

Options:

A.

45 days from the end of the semi-annual period

B.

30 days from the end of the financial year

C.

2 months from the end of the semi-annual period

D.

2 months from the end of the financial year

Question 33

The watch list, which is monitored by an Authority-established committee, consists of which group of companies?

Options:

A.

Companies in the first category

B.

Companies in the second category

C.

All private companies which have declared losses in the last 12 months

D.

All public companies which have declared losses in the last 12 months

Question 34

A vote carried out by the board of the Authority resulted in a tie. What happens in these circumstances?

Options:

A.

The vote for the resolution is automatically carried

B.

The vote against the resolution is automatically carried

C.

The chairman or their deputy is granted the casting vote

D.

The decision is postponed until another vote can be taken

Question 35

When applying for an Authority licence to operate a crypto fundraising platform, the need to demonstrate the independence of its fundraising functions is required only if the operator:

Options:

A.

Intends conducting other financial services activities

B.

Plans to issue security tokens

C.

Is a subsidiary of another financial institution

D.

Owns crypto assets as a separate entity

Question 36

A joint-stock company applying for a licence to conduct clearing activities in a commodity market recently appointed a new chairman and a new CEO. Why did this lead to the application being refused?

Options:

A.

Only the chairman held a tranche of the company’s shares

B.

Only the CEO’s compensation had been approved by the Authority

C.

They were supported by just three other board members

D.

They had been employed by the company during the previous year

Question 37

What additional provision is made by the market in relation to trading in shares of public joint-stock companies that are in the second category of listing?

Options:

A.

They will appear on a separate dedicated screen

B.

They can be bought and sold only by qualified investors

C.

Deals are subject to an additional transaction levy

D.

Deals can take place only on specified dates

Question 38

Brokers must pay the value of securities sold on behalf of their clients, after deducting commissions and fees, before:

Options:

A.

The end of one day or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

B.

The end of two days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

C.

The end of three days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

D.

The end of four days or the end of the settlement period set by the DFM

Question 39

In order to deal in securities, what minimum level of paid-up capital must a firm have?

Options:

A.

AED 10 million

B.

AED 20 million

C.

AED 30 million

D.

AED 50 million

Question 40

Within what maximum period following approval of the listing of a security must the Depository Centre install a terminal device giving the listing entity access to the register?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

1 week

C.

15 days

D.

3 weeks

Question 41

Following a public subscription, what must a Special Purpose Acquisition Company do with the proceeds?

Options:

A.

Deposit not less than 90% of the public subscription proceeds within one business day of receipt

B.

Deposit not less than 90% of the public subscription proceeds within two business days of receipt

C.

Deposit not less than 100% of the public subscription proceeds within one business day of receipt

D.

Deposit not less than 100% of the public subscription proceeds within two business days of receipt

Question 42

Which of the following does the Authority require licensed bodies to do in respect of close ties with other firms?

Options:

A.

Notify the Authority of any close ties and make sure that these ties will not impede the Authority's supervision and control

B.

Seek prior approval from the Authority for any close ties and make sure that these ties will not impede the Authority's supervision and control

C.

Ensure that any close ties are limited to other capital-market firms which are also under the Authority's supervision and control

D.

Ensure that any close ties are limited to branches of the firm which also practise financial activity, after obtaining the Authority's approval

Question 43

In which of the following circumstances is a brokerage company, which is both a trading and clearing member, allowed to freeze a client's securities?

Options:

A.

The client's account has been inactive for over two years

B.

The company has reasonable grounds to suspect money laundering

C.

The client no longer has a permanent residence inside the State

D.

The action is taken in accordance with the market procedures

Question 44

If an issuer provides its shareholders with bonus shares, then the CSD Department will deposit the bonus shares issued in the account and will register them as a whole, round number. What happens in the case that there are fractions of shares?

Options:

A.

These are also added to the shareholder's account

B.

They are totalled up and put in a suspense account

C.

The issuing company must sell them within 30 days

D.

The issuing company must sell them within 45 days

Question 45

A fund manager is considering investing in medium-term bonds, commercial papers, and deposit certificates. Under the regulations, which of these can be held under a cash investment fund?

Options:

A.

Medium-term bonds and commercial papers only

B.

Commercial papers and deposit certificates only

C.

Deposit certificates and medium-term bonds only

D.

Medium-term bonds, commercial papers and deposit certificates

Question 46

The approved job for conducting securities dealing is:

Options:

A.

Trading Manager

B.

Operations Manager

C.

Broker Representative

D.

Category Manager

Question 47

The disclosure of a licensed body’s legal status, including the fact that it is licensed by the Authority, is important because:

Options:

A.

it ensures that no clients suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm which is regulated

B.

it enables those that might suffer from perceived or actual misbehaviour at the hands of a firm to raise their concerns with the regulator

C.

it forces firms to disclose their regulatory status and that they are subject to the Authority’s control and supervision

D.

it allows third party firms to use, utilise, or copy the Authority’s logo for any reason and this reassures clients

Question 48

If an offering person arranges the issuance of crypto assets for which funds have been subscribed by investors, controls must be set up to avoid:

Options:

A.

subscriptions being taken at excessive levels from non-qualified investors

B.

subscriptions being taken at different threshold levels

C.

prices being determined at the discretion of the issuer

D.

prices being allowed to fluctuate during the opening offer period

Question 49

Each licence applicant must submit a risk management guide that includes:

Options:

A.

development and implementation of policies and procedures

B.

the mechanisms required to enable the compliance officer to have access to sufficient resources

C.

the procedures and mechanisms required to enable the internal auditor to act independently

D.

the procedures and mechanisms that ensure that the responsible officer shall have access to all records

Question 50

Firms providing investment management services must provide periodic statements to retail clients, in normal circumstances at least every:

Options:

A.

month

B.

3 months

C.

6 months

D.

12 months

Question 51

The compliance regulation guide, submitted by an applicant for a license from the Authority, must set out procedures and mechanisms which will ensure that the compliance officer:

Options:

A.

is able to suspend operations in an emergency

B.

can appoint a deputy during an unplanned absence

C.

has access to sufficient resources

D.

can report confidentially to the regulator

Question 52

How long must licence applicants keep back-up copies of records?

Options:

A.

For as long as the firm is in existence

B.

For as long as each client chooses

C.

Not less than five years

D.

Not less than ten years

Question 53

A licensed body submitted a requested document to the Authority and a short time later noticed that it was incomplete. How soon must it notify the Authority of this issue?

Options:

A.

Immediately

B.

Within a maximum of 48 hours

C.

Within a maximum of 72 hours

D.

By the end of that working week

Question 54

What action will the CSD Department take shortly after uploading a shareholders' register onto the ADX's electronic systems?

Options:

A.

Issue e-registration slips to all the shareholders

B.

Notify the Authority that this process has been completed

C.

Send a copy of the e-register to the issuer for reconciliation purposes

D.

Place a back-up copy off-site for disaster-recovery purposes

Question 55

Which of the following is one of the prescribed financial activities for which the Authority can issue a license?

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Promotion

C.

Corporate planning

D.

Risk management

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Total 186 questions