CompTIA 220-1201 Dumps

The system date/time is maintained by the CMOS battery when the PC is powered off. If this battery fails, time resets will occur. Additionally, since the system is connected to a UPS, ensuring the UPS is functioning correctly (i.e., the backup power source) is essential.

A punchdown tool is specifically used to insert wires into a punchdown block in patch panels, which is typical for Cat 6 and similar cabling. It ensures a secure and correct connection by pushing the wire into a metal groove that slices the insulation.

When a Lightning cable works only when flipped a certain way or doesn’t function consistently, it is typically due to debris or damage in the charging port. Cleaning the port or inspecting it for wear resolves the issue.

Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.

Reasoning: Many docking stations provide power and functionality only when the laptop is properly powered on. If the laptop was powered off (e.g., during the vacation), docking it will not automatically turn it on. The technician should first ensure the laptop is powered on by pressing the power button.

This is a common troubleshooting step when laptops in docking stations appear non-functional.

Relevance to CompTIA A+ Core 1: This falls under Objective 5.2, which covers diagnosing and resolving common laptop and mobile device issues.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Ensure the docking station is plugged in:

While ensuring power to the docking station is important, the scenario specifies that the issue occurred after a vacation. The likelihood of the docking station losing power coincidentally during the vacation is low. Verifying the laptop's power state should be the first step.

C. Plug the laptop in and let it charge overnight:

There is no indication the laptop’s battery is drained. While charging could resolve a dead battery, the user is more likely experiencing an issue where the laptop is powered off but docked, so charging overnight is not the best first step.

D. Connect the laptop directly to the network:

A network connection will not resolve the primary issue of the keyboard and display not working. Addressing the laptop’s power state is a higher priority.

Practical Example:

If a user returns from a vacation and places a powered-off laptop into a docking station, it may not automatically power on. Pressing the power button ensures the laptop is operational and communicating with the docking station.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.2: Troubleshooting common laptop issues, including power, display, and peripheral connectivity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

When delivering 10Gbps speeds over long distances, fiber optic cables are the best choice. Here’s the breakdown:

A. Multimode Fiber (Correct Answer):

Multimode fiber is designed for relatively short to medium distances (up to 1,312 feet or 400 meters) while supporting high-speed data transfer (10Gbps and above).

It uses LED light sources and is cost-effective for environments like data centers or within buildings.

For the specified distance of over 328ft but under 1,312ft, multimode fiber is the most suitable option.

Incorrect Options:

B. Single-mode Fiber: While single-mode fiber supports much greater distances (up to several miles or kilometers) and higher speeds, it is more expensive and unnecessary for the specified range. Single-mode fiber is generally used for long-haul networking or telecommunications.

C. Cat 6a: Cat 6a is capable of 10Gbps speeds but only up to 328ft (100 meters). It cannot reliably handle the specified distance of over 328ft.

D. Cat 6: Cat 6 is also limited to 10Gbps speeds at distances up to 328ft (100 meters). Beyond this range, it is unsuitable.

Key Takeaway:

For delivering 10Gbps speeds over distances longer than 328ft (100m) but under 1,312ft (400m), Multimode Fiber is the best choice due to its ability to support high-speed data over medium distances at a reasonable cost.

TPM 2.0 (Trusted Platform Module) is often disabled by default in the UEFI BIOS. Enabling it is necessary to meet the requirements for certain Windows installations, including Windows 11.

Why Not B (Install an HSM): A Hardware Security Module (HSM) is a separate device used for cryptographic functions and is not related to TPM on the motherboard.

Why Not C (Perform a clean install): A clean installation will not bypass the TPM 2.0 requirement.

Why Not D (Implement BitLocker): BitLocker requires TPM but does not resolve its absence or lack of activation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, BIOS/UEFI configuration​.

A Storage Area Network (SAN) is primarily used for data archiving and large-scale storage. SANs provide high-speed, block-level storage for enterprise environments.

Why Not A (PAN): Personal Area Networks are for connecting personal devices like phones and smartwatches.

Why Not B (MAN): Metropolitan Area Networks are for city-wide data communication, not storage.

Why Not D (LAN): Local Area Networks are for general connectivity, not dedicated storage.

Why Not WAN: Wide Area Networks are for connecting geographically dispersed networks, not storage.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.7, network types and purposes​.

Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.

Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.

Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.

Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer types​.

Physical damage from dropping a tablet may often affect ports or connectors. Before taking deeper diagnostic or replacement steps, it's important to visually inspect the USB-C charging port for damage or debris. If the port is damaged, charging issues can occur regardless of battery health.

To allow multiple users to print to networked printers:

Printer shares enable users to access printers shared on the network.

Print servers manage print jobs and provide centralized control of printing.

Why Not B (DHCP server): DHCP is unrelated to print management.

Why Not D (Printer subnet): Subnets group devices but don’t manage printing.

Why Not E (SMB configuration): SMB is for file sharing, not specifically print management.

Why Not F (Printer Wi-Fi settings): These settings are irrelevant since the printers use Ethernet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer configuration​.

Intermittent connectivity issues with network printers are commonly caused by changing IP addresses when using DHCP. Assigning a static IP address ensures that the printer is always reachable at the same IP address by client machines.

D. POST Code Beeps:

During the Power-On Self-Test (POST), the BIOS performs checks on system hardware, including RAM. If the RAM is faulty, POST may produce a series of beep codes indicating memory issues.

These beep codes are often the first sign of RAM-related problems, especially if the BSOD occurs randomly.

Incorrect Options:

A. Wrong BIOS configurations: Incorrect BIOS settings may cause boot errors, but they are less likely to cause random BSODs.

B. Continuous reboots: Continuous reboots could result from multiple hardware or software issues but do not specifically point to RAM.

C. Distended capacitors: Faulty capacitors typically affect the motherboard, not the RAM.

Key Takeaway: POST beep codes are a common diagnostic tool for identifying RAM-related issues.

Identifying changes made to the system is the next step to troubleshoot why an application no longer launches, as recent changes often cause such issues.

Why Not A (Research the symptoms): Research is broader and should come after identifying changes.

Why Not C (Determine which steps need to be performed): This comes after identifying the issue.

Why Not D (Check the vendor's website): This is a later step if further guidance is needed.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, troubleshooting methodology​.

Excessive heat buildup due to insufficient cooling is a primary cause of unexpected shutdowns. A high-performance heat sink improves thermal transfer, dissipates more heat, and helps maintain CPU temperature within safe limits. When CPU temperatures reach levels like 208°F (98°C), the system may shut down to prevent damage.

Tethering refers to sharing a mobile phone’s internet connection with another device, such as a laptop, either through USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi. Tethering effectively turns the mobile phone into a personal hotspot for internet access.

Option A (IR): Incorrect. Infrared (IR) is used for short-range communication, such as remote controls, but it does not support internet sharing.

Option B (NFC): Incorrect. Near-field communication (NFC) is used for close-proximity data transfer, not for internet sharing.

Option C (Wi-Fi Direct): Incorrect. Wi-Fi Direct enables device-to-device communication but does not inherently provide internet sharing.

Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for remote desktop connections in Windows environments. This port allows remote control and management of systems across the network.

AVLAN (Virtual LAN)is used to logically segment a network without requiring physical separation. It enables grouping devices based on function or department regardless of their physical location.

Option A (DHCP):Assigns IP addresses dynamically but doesn’t create network segments.

Option C (DNS):Resolves domain names to IP addresses, not used for network segmentation.

Option D (VPN):Provides secure remote access but does not relate to logical segmentation within a local network.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.3: Explain common logical networking concepts.

Dot matrix printersuse aninked ribbonthat physically contacts the paper through tiny pins. Over time, the ribbon wears out or dries up, resulting infaded or light print output. Replacing the ribbon restores print quality.

Option A:Cleaning helps with image clarity, not ink density.

Option C:Maintenance kits apply to laser printers, not dot matrix.

Option D:Calibration affects print position, not darkness.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

===========

Badging is a form of authentication that requires employees to use a badge or ID card to release print jobs. This solution reduces unnecessary printing by ensuring only authorized users print.

Why Not A (Access control list): While ACLs manage permissions, they are not used for physical authentication at printers.

Why Not B (Audit logging): Audit logs track actions but do not restrict printer access.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but doesn’t enforce authentication.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, authentication mechanisms​.

The appropriate network type for this scenario is a Local Area Network (LAN), which is designed for small, localized networks, such as within a single building or room. LANs are ideal for gaming because they provide high-speed, low-latency connections.

Option A (SAN): Incorrect. A Storage Area Network is used for data storage, not for gaming or general networking.

Option B (MAN): Incorrect. A Metropolitan Area Network covers a city or campus, far exceeding the scope needed for a gaming setup in a single room.

Option D (PAN): Incorrect. A Personal Area Network is designed for a single user, such as Bluetooth devices, and would not support multiple devices connecting to a game server.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment ensures that mobile devices meet security and access policies required by the corporate network. By enrolling the device in MDM, the technician can apply necessary configurations and enable corporate app access.

A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.

Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.

Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically implement ACLs.

Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts​.

A PoE injector is used to add power to an Ethernet cable, enabling the cable to deliver both power and data. This is crucial when connecting to PoE-enabled devices like IP cameras or wireless access points that are far from power outlets.

Reasoning: A docking station is designed to provide a central connection point for multiple peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, mice, and network cables. It allows users to quickly connect or disconnect all devices by simply docking or undocking their laptop, improving mobility and reducing wear and tear on individual ports.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Serial interfaces:

Serial interfaces are outdated and rarely used in modern laptops or peripherals. They are not practical for facilitating the connection of multiple devices.

C. Network switch:

A network switch is used to connect multiple devices to a network, but it does not simplify the connection of peripherals to a laptop.

D. USB hub:

A USB hub can extend the number of available USB ports but lacks the full functionality of a docking station, such as video output or Ethernet connectivity.

Practical Example:

A user with a laptop, external monitors, keyboard, and mouse can use a docking station to connect all devices with a single action, instead of plugging in each device manually.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.2: Explain device interfaces, connection types, and usage of docking stations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

LC Connector (Lucent Connector):

LC is a type of fiber optic connector commonly used in optical networking cables. It is small, compact, and widely used for high-speed data transfer over fiber optic networks.

LC connectors are specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making them the correct answer.

Incorrect Options:

A. RJ45: RJ45 connectors are used for Ethernet cables (twisted-pair copper cabling) and are not compatible with optical networking cables.

C. USB-C: USB-C is a connector type used for general-purpose data transfer, charging, and video output, not for optical networking.

D. Lightning: Lightning connectors are proprietary to Apple devices and are not used in optical networking.

Key Takeaway:

The LC connector is specifically designed for fiber optic cables, making it the correct answer for optical networking.

Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It's four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.

Option A (1920x1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.

Option B (2048x1080):DCI 2K — used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.

Option D (7680x4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.7: Compare and contrast display technologies and their features.

===========

An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.

Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.

Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.

Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types​.

USB-Cis a versatile connector capable oftransmitting data, video, audio, and power. With standards likeDisplayPort over USB-C or Thunderbolt 3/4, it can be used for external displays, file transfers, charging, and more — all through one cable.

Option B (HDMI):Supports video and audio but not general data transfer.

Option C (DisplayPort):Similar to HDMI — supports video/audio but not general file transfer.

Option D (VGA):Legacy analog video only — no data or audio support.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.1: Identify common connector types.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Wi-Fi Analyzer:

A Wi-Fi analyzer is a tool used to detect and analyze wireless networks, even those that are not broadcasting their SSIDs (hidden networks).

It provides detailed information about nearby networks, including signal strength, channel usage, and security protocols.

In this case, the Wi-Fi analyzer can identify the hidden networks that users are connected to, which are not visible on the standard user interface.

Incorrect Options:

A. Cable tester: A cable tester is used to test the integrity of physical network cables. It does not detect wireless networks or SSIDs.

B. Toner probe: A toner probe is used to trace and identify cables within a wiring system. It is not applicable to wireless network analysis.

D. Loopback plug: A loopback plug is used to test the functionality of a network port or NIC. It is unrelated to identifying hidden wireless networks.

Key Takeaway:

The most effective tool for identifying hidden wireless networks is a Wi-Fi analyzer, as it can detect networks that are not broadcasting their SSIDs.

A managed switch allows an administrator to enable or disable individual ports as part of network security and management. If a port on a managed switch has been disabled, the device connected to that port will lose connectivity, which matches the scenario described.

When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.

Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.

Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.

Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

An A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address in a DNS server.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – DNS records:

“A records map hostnames to IPv4 addresses, while AAAA records map to IPv6 addresses.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: DNS Records

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6

============

Cellular networks offer broad coverage in rural or less populated areas where laying fiber, cable, or DSL lines may not be feasible or cost-effective. Cellular broadband (4G LTE/5G) provides fast speeds using existing mobile network infrastructure.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.7 – Compare and contrast Internet connection types:

"Cellular connections offer high speed and extensive coverage, especially in areas where other wired infrastructure may not exist or be practical."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Internet Connections

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.7

============

Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

Dedicated resources (sometimes called single-tenant or bare metal) guarantee that physical hardware is allocated exclusively to one customer and not shared.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud deployment models:

“Dedicated resources ensure data isolation at the hardware level for compliance and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Deployment

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

============

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 – Security features:

“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5

============

A hard disk drive (HDD), especially if it's older or nearly full, is the most common cause of slow startup times in laptops. HDDs are much slower than SSDs and can significantly bottleneck the boot process.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

“A slow startup or sluggish system performance is commonly due to a failing or fragmented hard disk drive (HDD). Replacing with an SSD can greatly improve boot times and overall system responsiveness.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting PC Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

============

Containers provide lightweight virtualization, ideal for deploying microservices because they are isolated, portable, and require fewer resources than traditional VMs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization and cloud computing:

“Containers package applications and their dependencies, making them ideal for running microservices efficiently and independently.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud and Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

============

If newly installed RAM is not fully recognized, the most likely cause is incorrect installation or incompatible slots. Reseating or reinstalling the RAM modules in the correct slots can quickly resolve the issue without extra cost.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Install and configure PC components:

"If memory is not detected, check installation and reseat modules. Ensure they are placed in the correct, matched slots for dual-channel operation."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Installation

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

============

A hypervisor is software or firmware that allows multiple operating systems (virtual machines) to run on a single physical host. It manages the allocation of resources and isolation of each VM.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization concepts:

“A hypervisor is the key component of virtualization, enabling a physical server to host multiple virtual machines (VMs), each with its own OS and resources.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

============

solution as

A screenshot of a network settings AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

A screenshot of a computer AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Firewalls are specifically designed to monitor, filter, and control network traffic using Access Control Lists (ACLs). ACLs define which traffic is allowed or denied based on parameters like IP address, protocol, or port.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware and security:

“Firewalls use access control lists (ACLs) to allow or deny traffic based on rules. Unmanaged switches and PoE injectors do not support ACLs.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Security Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

============

NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 – Network services and protocols:

“NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6

============

Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

A close-up of several cables AI-generated content may be incorrect.

Part 2

A group of different colored rectangular objects AI-generated content may be incorrect.

When port issues persist after moving to a different switch port, the next logical troubleshooting step is to test the patch cable. Faulty or damaged cables are a common cause of network connectivity problems. Using a cable tester between the computer and the network closet verifies the integrity of the cable and rules out a physical layer issue.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.2 – Troubleshoot wired and wireless networks:

“If a device continues to experience connectivity issues after switching ports, test the cabling with a cable tester to check for continuity, shorts, or pinout issues before replacing hardware.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Network Connectivity

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.2

============

Unmanaged switches require no configuration—they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.

Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

============

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Types of RAM:

“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

============

If only one print job fails and others succeed, it is often due to a paper type or tray selection mismatch for that specific job. If a print job is configured to use a tray that is empty or set to manual feed, it will not be released until resolved.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Printer troubleshooting:

“If a specific print job stalls while others succeed, check the job settings for specific tray or paper type configurations that do not match the printer’s current setup.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

============

When a technician encounters a burning smell, it is a critical safety issue. The first response must be to immediately power down and disconnect the device from all power sources to prevent electric shock, fire, or further hardware damage.

✅ From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

"Signs of electrical issues such as burning smells, smoke, or sparks require an immediate shutdown of the system and disconnection from any power source."

After ensuring safety, the technician should inspect the hardware for visible signs of damage:

✅ From the same Objective (4.1):

"Inspect for foreign objects, liquid damage, or burnt components. These can cause short circuits or thermal events that may damage the motherboard or other internal components."

These steps are standard practice in the industry to ensure safe and accurate diagnosis of faulty devices. Trying a different adapter (Option F) may make the problem worse, and contacting vendors (Option D) comes after initial safety and inspection.

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Hardware Problems

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

A docking station allows users to connect multiple peripherals (monitor, keyboard, mouse, etc.) to a laptop with a single connection, reducing cable clutter and improving convenience.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:

“A docking station enables the use of multiple external devices with a laptop using only one or two connections, making it ideal for office environments.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

============

A hypervisor allows multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single physical host, making it the ideal solution for providing concurrent access to different test environments. Developers can use virtual machines (VMs) for testing and development.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts:

“A hypervisor is software that enables multiple operating systems to run on a single host as virtual machines. This is commonly used in development and testing environments for flexibility and isolation.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

An eSIM (embedded SIM) allows users to change carriers and provision new cellular service without installing any physical hardware. It is managed via software and is ideal for international travelers who need to switch providers quickly.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Install and configure mobile device network connectivity:

"eSIMs provide carrier flexibility by enabling remote provisioning and profile switching, making it possible to connect to different networks without a physical SIM card."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Devices

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

When a laser printer intermittently fails to feed paper, the most common hardware cause is worn or dirty pickup rollers. These rollers grab the paper from the tray and move it into the printer. Over time, dust, paper debris, or worn rubber reduces their effectiveness, causing feeding issues.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“If the printer is not picking up paper correctly or is experiencing paper jams, check and clean or replace the pickup rollers and separation pads as these are responsible for feeding paper into the print path.”

Other options like updating drivers, selecting paper size, or replacing toner will not resolve a mechanical paper feed problem.

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Printing Problems

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

============

A sandbox is an isolated virtual environment, often used for testing code or software safely without affecting the host system.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Virtualization:

“A sandbox provides an isolated environment, often implemented as a virtual machine, to safely test applications or code.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Virtualization

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

============

Assigning a static IP to network printers ensures the printer's address does not change after outages or DHCP lease expirations, preventing connectivity issues.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – Printer network configuration:

“Printers should use static IPs to ensure they remain reachable and do not change addresses after network events.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Printer Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far.

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power protection:

“A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges, ensuring system integrity.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

The first security step after deploying a new router is to change the default administrative password. Default credentials are well known and pose a security risk if left unchanged.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.3 – Secure a wireless network:

“Always change default administrative credentials before further configuration to prevent unauthorized access.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Security

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.3

============

An older HDMI cable version may not support 4K resolution. For 4K output, both the device and the cable must support HDMI 2.0 or higher.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display troubleshooting:

“Ensure the correct version of HDMI cable is used for high-resolution outputs like 4K. Older cables may be limited to 1080p.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display and Video

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

============

Overheating is a common cause of projectors shutting down after extended use. A clogged air filter can cause overheating, resulting in intermittent shutdowns.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshooting displays:

“If a projector shuts down after running for a period, clean or replace the filter to prevent overheating and automatic shutdown.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Display Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

============

A VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is a network technology used to logically segment a physical network into multiple distinct broadcast domains, even if they share the same hardware.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

“VLANs allow network administrators to segment a network logically, isolating broadcast traffic and improving security and management, regardless of the physical network layout.”

Other options explained:

MAC (Media Access Control) is a hardware address, not a segmentation method.

NIC (Network Interface Card) is network hardware, not for logical segmentation.

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) is an internet connection type.

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical barriers.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 – Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols:

“The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more easily absorbed by walls.”

NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances (a few centimeters).

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5

============