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CompTIA CS0-004 Dumps

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Total 82 questions

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CySA+ V4 (New Version) Questions and Answers

Question 1

A vulnerability analyst conducts a web application scan on an asset sitting behind a load balancer configured as a pass through:

The analyst launches the Zed Attack Proxy (ZAP) utility, conducts a scan, and receives the following alert:

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Which of the following should the analyst propose as a remediation to the finding while keeping the site operational?

Options:

A.

Ensure the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) endpoint is protected with a network firewall with geo-blocking.

B.

Ensure the load balancer is configured with online certificate status protocol (OCSP) stapling.

C.

Ensure the web application is configured to suppress the "Server" header.

D.

Ensure the web server host-based firewall is configured to block HTTP incoming traffic.

Question 2

An incident response team investigates a possible data leak. Various IT systems collect evidence.

Which of the following processes is required to ensure that evidentiary artifacts are properly recorded?

Options:

A.

Packaging and labeling

B.

Chain of custody

C.

Post incident reporting

D.

Storage and containment

Question 3

An analyst reviews a summarized vulnerability report through a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) reporting tool.

The following report correlates asset information from the configuration management database (CMDB) against detected vulnerabilities:

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Which of the following servers should the analyst prioritize based on the target value, the risk, and the likelihood of exploitation?

Options:

A.

PRODWEB-02

B.

MPC-Control

C.

DEVWIN11-01

D.

PRODWEB-01

Question 4

Which of the following occurs during the analysis phase of the incident response process?

Options:

A.

Triage

B.

Alert writing

C.

Reimaging

D.

Isolation

Question 5

An analyst prepares an after action report following an incident in which multiple systems were compromised over several days.

The analyst provides raw event logs from each compromised system in the report and determines that a patient-zero system cannot be found.

Which of the following should the analyst do to determine the patient-zero system?

Options:

A.

Establish an accurate timeline of events.

B.

Enable monitoring on the compromised systems.

C.

Isolate the compromised systems before remediation.

D.

Improve the content for incident updates during shift handoff.

E.

Perform a reverse composition analysis on malware packages.

Question 6

Which of the following is the main concept behind the use of an attack methodology framework?

Options:

A.

Implementing continuous monitoring and rapid deployment of system fixes over the traditional patch, test, and deploy approach

B.

Prioritizing vulnerabilities that can be exploited based on risk calculations and using the consequences and likelihood of the exploits to determine where resources should be allocated

C.

Approaching cybersecurity from the perspective of a threat actor and using their common behaviors and motivations to identify secure solutions

D.

Applying a Zero Trust environment by assuming networks and systems are vulnerable to malicious actions by both external, hostile adversaries and insider threats

Question 7

A cybersecurity analyst requests a paid subscription to a threat intelligence feed relevant to a company's industry.

Which of the following best describes this type of feed?

Options:

A.

Open-source intelligence

B.

Threat mapping

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Closed-source intelligence

Question 8

A security operations center (SOC) analyst investigates the results of a password spray test conducted by the vulnerability management team.

The analyst must:

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Identify Linux systems that have successful and unsuccessful logins with username "User1".

Create an output report named "linux-events" of all the events to a flat file.

The analyst issues the following console command:

ls /var/log/

The shortened output of the command is below:

Which of the following commands should the analyst use to meet the report output requirements?

Options:

A.

cat /var/log/sssd | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

B.

cat /var/log/faillog.log | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

C.

cat /var/log/syslog | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

D.

cat /var/log/auth.log | grep "User1" > linux-events.txt

Question 9

A public threat intelligence report includes indicators of compromise (IoCs) for threat actors. The threat actors are exploiting a zero-day vulnerability that the vendor has not fixed.

Which of the following techniques should be used until a patch is available?

Options:

A.

Sinkholing

B.

Eradication techniques

C.

Continuous monitoring

D.

Evidence acquisition

Question 10

An analyst receives an alert that a user clicked on a malicious link. The analyst verifies that the link is malicious and was intended to capture credentials. The analyst verifies that the user visited the website, but no evidence indicates that the credentials were used. The analyst recommends that the user take remedial training and closes the case.

Which of the following steps in the incident response process did the analyst neglect?

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Containment

C.

Recovery

D.

Post-incident

Question 11

Which of the following best describes why operational technology (OT) devices use compensating controls?

Options:

A.

Industrial control systems use significant network bandwidth.

B.

Outage windows are usually scheduled.

C.

Traditional IT security solutions may not be compatible.

D.

OT devices are typically not encrypted.

Question 12

A security analyst responds to an alert regarding identity and access management activity within the cloud environment. The attacker is currently trying to gain access from one isolated cloud subscription to another via a compromised user role.

Which of the following aspects of the MITRE ATT & CK framework is the attacker trying to perform?

Options:

A.

Privilege escalation

B.

Lateral movement

C.

Persistence

D.

Execution

E.

Credential access

Question 13

Which of the following is the most likely reason an organization might implement compensating controls?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability does not have a patch, and the system is mission critical.

B.

A vulnerability has been fixed, tested, and deployed to production.

C.

A vulnerability is being actively exploited in the wild, but the organization does not use the affected system.

D.

A vulnerability was detected, but the organization has determined the result is a false positive.

Question 14

A security operations center manager is concerned that after action reporting is not being completed in a timely manner.

Which of the following will allow the manager to quantify this concern?

Options:

A.

Mean time to remediate

B.

Mean time to close

C.

Mean time between failures

D.

Mean time to respond

Question 15

The Chief Information Security Officer wants to improve internal security measures by continuously validating and verifying access to the production environment.

Which of the following concepts best describes this practice?

Options:

A.

Secure access service edge

B.

Next-generation firewall

C.

Zero Trust

D.

Privileged access management

Question 16

A binary file that might contain malicious code is hosted on an isolated machine. An analyst wants to quickly detect the malicious code.

Which of the following should the analyst use?

Options:

A.

strings

B.

VirusTotal

C.

WHOIS

D.

Yet Another Recursive Acronym (YARA)

Question 17

Which of the following allows an organization to leverage AI in various forms while protecting business objectives and data?

Options:

A.

Usage policies

B.

Prompt engineering

C.

Non-disclosure agreement

D.

Incident response policy

Question 18

A security analyst must identify documents that contain encoded ActiveMime payloads in a directory containing thousands of files. The analyst runs the following command: grep -rail ActiveMime *

The command returns no output.

Which of the following Yet Another Recursive Acronym (YARA) rules should the analyst use to find the suspicious files?

A)

as

B)

as

C)

as

D)

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 19

An analyst reviews the following system logs from a recent breach attempt:

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Which of the following techniques did the attacker attempt to use?

Options:

A.

Exfiltration

B.

Remote code execution

C.

Privilege escalation

D.

Spoofing

Question 20

Which of the following describes the main benefits of MITRE ATT & CK Navigator?

Options:

A.

Replicating adversary behavior and blocking gaps in defenses

B.

Monitoring adversary behavior and performing malware reverse engineering

C.

Responding to adversary behavior and building security defense tools

D.

Understanding adversary behavior and identifying gaps in defenses

Question 21

A security analyst receives a notice about a possible data breach. The report identifies unapproved, current access dates for files found in the following personnel archives:

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Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

Options:

A.

Perform log correlation.

B.

Reset user credentials.

C.

Restore files from backup.

D.

Establish a timeline.

E.

Establish a legal hold.

Question 22

Which of the following is the best reason to heavily segment business-critical assets from within the network?

Options:

A.

Legacy systems

B.

Degraded functionality

C.

Asset obfuscation

D.

Proprietary server

Question 23

A security analyst reruns infrastructure as code (IaC) to tear down and rebuild a new environment after a ransomware attack.

Which of the following describes this phase?

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Post-incident

C.

Detection

D.

Containment

E.

Recovery

Question 24

A security operations center (SOC) manager reviews a document signed by the Chief Financial Officer (CFO), the sales director, and a customer to decide whether a contract breach occurred.

Which of the following best describes the document that includes key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs)

B.

Return on investment report

C.

Service-level agreement (SLA)

D.

Risk management plan

E.

Memorandum of understanding

Page: 1 / 8
Total 82 questions