CompTIA FC0-U71 Dumps

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“A router is a highly intelligent network connectivity device that can connect multiple network types to each other. Routers use routing tables to store network addresses and route packets based on the best path available.”

It further clarifies:

“Wireless routers are common in homes and offices. Functionally, wireless routers work just like their wired cousins.”

The default gateway in a home network is the router, as it serves as the device that connects the internal local area network (LAN) to the external Internet.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Router” section (pp. 446–447).

Figure 8.8 — “A wireless router.”

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025), one of the five critical steps when configuring a wireless router is to change the administrator username and password:

“The Wi-Fi Alliance lists five critical keys to setting up a secured wireless router:

Change the router’s SSID.

Change the administrator username and password. Make sure that it’s a strong password.

Enable WPA3 or WPA2 Personal.

Choose a strong security passphrase.

Connect clients using the same security mode.”

This ensures unauthorized users cannot log in to the router’s settings.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Setting Up a Small Wireless Network” (pp. 463–467).

Interference or poor signal strength is a common issue in Wi-Fi networks, especially in distant or obstructed locations like basements.

“Physical obstructions and electronic interference can weaken wireless signals, leading to connectivity issues in areas like basements.” — CompTIA ITF+ Networking Fundamentals

Correct answer: A

The units from smallest to largest are:

MB (Megabyte)

GB (Gigabyte)

TB (Terabyte)

PB (Petabyte)

Thus, PB (Petabyte) is the largest unit listed.

“Data storage is measured in bytes, with increasing units from kilobytes (KB) to megabytes (MB), gigabytes (GB), terabytes (TB), and petabytes (PB).” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: C

A byte consists of exactly 8 bits. Bits (binary digits) are the smallest unit of data, and eight of them grouped together form one byte, which is used to represent characters and numbers in digital systems.

“A byte is made up of 8 bits and is the standard unit of data used to represent information such as characters in computing.” — CompTIA ITF+ Fundamentals

Correct answer: C

A touch screen functions as both an input and output device. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

"A touchscreen display is a hybrid device combining input and output. It shows visual output like a standard monitor but also allows the user to interact directly by touching the screen."

"Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals (e.g., keyboard, mouse, touchscreen)."

"Output devices show results from the computer's processing (e.g., monitor, printer, touchscreen)."

Touchscreens display information (output) and receive user input through touch (input). They do not perform storage, networking, processing, or logging.

Installing software typically requires elevated permissions that standard user accounts do not have. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“An administrator account provides full system access, including installing or removing software, changing system settings, and managing user accounts.”

The user account does not have these privileges by default.

Least privilege refers to granting only the minimum permissions necessary (which would not typically include software installation for regular users).

Single factor refers to authentication methods, not access levels.

Since the employee is denied installation due to insufficient privileges, administrator access is needed to complete the installation.

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“The rules and structure of the database are called its schema. It defines the tables, forms, reports, queries, data types allowed, and pretty much everything else about the database.”

It also clarifies:

“The logical schema outlines the structure of the database, such as the tables and their fields (columns), and relationships between tables.”

Thus, an outline of a database’s structure is called a schema.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Schema” (pp. 392–393).

Task management utilities like Task Manager in Windows are used to monitor and manage running applications and processes, including ending unresponsive ones.

“Task Manager is used to view and end processes or applications that are not responding.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

Web browsers store cached data to improve loading speeds and remember form inputs. If outdated credentials are appearing, clearing the cache ensures that old stored data is removed and the page loads fresh content.

“Cached data can include stored form data, which may result in outdated information being auto-filled. Clearing the browser cache resolves this.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Curriculum

Correct answer: C

The correct order for creating a network cable:

Measure and cut with wire cutter

Strip the wires

Attach Ethernet connector using a crimper

Finally, test the cable with a cable tester to ensure connectivity and proper pinout.

“After crimping the RJ-45 connectors, a cable tester is used to validate the electrical continuity and correct wiring order.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Correct answer: A

Browsers store previously loaded pages in their cache to improve performance. If outdated content is cached, clearing the cache forces the browser to load the latest version from the server.

“Clearing the browser cache removes stored versions of web pages and resolves display issues caused by outdated content.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly states:

“If you need to have multiple concurrent users accessing data, you need a database. Flat files don’t do well when several people try to access them at once. In the vast majority of cases, one user might be able to write to the file, but all users will be limited to a read-only copy.”

It further explains that:

“Databases generally lock only on a record level (or individual line of data), so multiple people can actively use the database at one time.”

Therefore, the best reason to convert a large spreadsheet to a database is to allow multiple concurrent users to access and update the data simultaneously without conflicts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “When to Use Databases” (pp. 389–391).

Account logs provide details about authentication attempts and can confirm whether a user successfully logged in or was denied access.

“Authentication events are recorded in system and application logs, helping verify login success or failure.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Concepts

Correct answer: A

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“A compiled programming language is one that requires the use of a compiler to translate it into machine code. Creating and using a program using a compiled language consists of three steps:

Write the source code.

Use a compiler to translate the source code into machine code.

Execute the program file, which usually has an .exe extension.”

Compiled languages package programs into executable files.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Compiled Languages” (pp. 361–363).

Privacy involves protecting personal or sensitive information from being disclosed without consent. Sharing individuals’ birthdays and home addresses—even if they are public figures—violates the privacy principle.

“Privacy ensures that personal data is collected, used, and shared responsibly and legally. Exposing personal information in public forums can breach this principle.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Objectives

Correct answer: C

Pop-up blockers prevent new windows or tabs from opening, which can block reports that open in pop-up windows:

“If a web page uses pop-up windows to present information, a pop-up blocker may prevent the new content from loading.”

Cache clearing, accessibility options, or private browsing don’t directly affect hyperlink behavior.

After identifying the issue, implementing a solution, and verifying functionality (test page), the next step in the troubleshooting process is to document the solution for future reference.

“The final step in the troubleshooting methodology is to document findings, actions, and outcomes to ensure organizational learning and continuity.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide defines:

“Devices that use radio frequency (RF) transmit a very limited range, typically only a few inches or so. This technology is fairly common in mobile payment applications. Because of the short distances involved, a related term you’ll see is near-field communication (NFC).”

NFC allows devices such as smartphones to securely transmit payment data over short distances—precisely the method used in vending machine purchases.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Wireless Connections: NFC” (p. 99).

Wireless interference is often caused by environmental factors such as proximity to kitchens, which may contain microwaves and other electronic devices operating on the same 2.4 GHz frequency used by many Wi-Fi networks. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“Wireless signals are subject to interference from physical objects, walls, appliances, and other electronic devices operating on the same frequency.”

“Microwave ovens and cordless phones are common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks.”

In this case, the user's proximity to the kitchen is causing interference, not access control or standards issues.

An open-source license allows users to access, modify, and redistribute the software’s source code. It supports user customization and community contributions.

“Open-source software provides access to the source code, allowing users to inspect, modify, and enhance the software.” — CompTIA ITF+ Licensing and Software Concepts

Correct answer: C

A hypervisor is the software or hardware platform that enables virtualization. It allows multiple operating systems (guest OSes) to run on a single physical machine.

“A hypervisor manages virtual machines on a single physical system. It enables the creation and management of guest OS environments.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: D

For locations without cable or cellular towers, satellite internet is the most viable solution. Satellite does not require terrestrial infrastructure beyond a dish and has global coverage.

“Satellite is often used in remote or rural locations where wired and cellular connectivity is not available. It uses a dish to communicate with orbiting satellites for internet access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Fiber optic and IDSL require ground cabling.

Cellular requires nearby towers, which the scenario rules out.

Correct answer: D. Satellite

Although the values look numeric, the sequence “1, 10, 2...” suggests they are being treated as strings (text values), especially if they are not sorted numerically. In programming, strings are sequences of characters—even if those characters are digits.

“String data type is used to store alphanumeric characters, including numeric characters represented as text rather than numbers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: D

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly states:

“Assembly language is the lowest level of code in which people can write. It allows the developer to provide instructions directly to the hardware.”

Furthermore, in the Exam Essentials section of the same chapter, it emphasizes:

“Know which programming language is best for direct hardware access. For direct hardware access, a low-level programming language such as assembly is the best.”

Therefore, assembly (assembled) languages offer the highest level of hardware optimization because they operate closest to machine code and interact directly with CPU instructions.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Assembly Language” (pp. 356–357).

Chapter 6: Exam Essentials (p. 378).

Anti-malware software is specifically designed to detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software from a system. It is the most appropriate tool for protecting a computer after a suspicious or infected file is downloaded.

“Anti-malware software scans downloaded files and running processes to identify and remove malicious software, providing real-time protection against viruses, trojans, and spyware.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Firewall – Prevents unauthorized access but doesn’t clean infections

C. Patching – Prevents exploitation of known vulnerabilities, not infection removal

D. Permissions – Limit access but do not remove malware

Correct answer: A

When a new vulnerability is discovered in software, the best way to secure it is by applying updates (patches) released by the software vendor. According to the CompTIA ITF+ objectives:

“Vendors regularly release software updates and security patches to fix vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers. Installing these patches promptly is crucial for maintaining system security.”

Although configuring a firewall and authentication improves overall security, they do not directly patch or fix the vulnerability. Uninstalling may be an option only if a patch is unavailable or the software is no longer needed. Therefore, the best and most proactive response is B: Apply updates.

Input devices allow users to interact with the computer by sending data to it. The most common input devices for a desktop PC setup are:

Mouse – allows the user to point, click, and interact with the GUI.

Keyboard – used to enter text and commands.

“Input devices such as the keyboard and mouse are essential for entering data into a computer.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options explained:

A. Printer – Output device

D. CPU – Core processing unit, not an input device

E. Speaker – Output device

F. SSD – Storage device

Correct answers: B and C

RAM allows multiple applications to run simultaneously. Insufficient RAM causes performance drops:

“When several applications are open, the system relies heavily on RAM for temporary storage of active processes.”

Storage, motherboard, or NIC do not directly handle temporary application memory while multitasking.

CPU speed is measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), indicating how many million or billion cycles the processor can execute per second.

“CPU performance is commonly measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), representing the processor’s clock speed.” — CompTIA ITF+

MB is for memory/storage size.

Mbps is for network speed.

MAC is a hardware address, not a performance metric.

Correct answer: A

Application data refers to user-generated or application-specific files that are critical to retain. This includes saved work, preferences, and databases. These must be included in backups to ensure continuity and recovery.

“Application data and user-generated content should be prioritized in backups to ensure critical information is retained during restoration.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Protection

Correct answer: B

Process management in an operating system is responsible for controlling the execution of applications, assigning CPU time, and prioritizing active processes to optimize performance.

“Process management allocates resources, prioritizes applications, and ensures multitasking is efficiently handled by the OS.” — CompTIA ITF+ Operating Systems Guide

Correct answer: B

Changing the router's password (particularly the Wi-Fi password) prevents unauthorized users from reconnecting to the network. It’s the most immediate and effective response.

“One of the most effective ways to secure a wireless network is by changing the default and existing passwords to prevent unauthorized access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Calling support may help but doesn’t address the issue directly.

Decreasing signal range may reduce but not eliminate access.

Resetting the router is more disruptive and unnecessary if the password can be changed.

Correct answer: C

When the network is unavailable, portable storage like a flash drive (USB storage device) is suitable for transferring large files:

“Flash drives provide portable storage solutions capable of handling large data files.”

NAS (network-attached storage) requires a functioning network. RAM is volatile memory not used for file transfer, and cloud storage requires internet connectivity.

A simple static web page is best created using a markup language, such as HTML. Markup languages describe the structure and formatting of content on a web page.

“Markup languages like HTML are used to design and structure static web content. They do not contain logic or interactivity like scripting languages.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

A loop is a programming construct that repeats a set of instructions while a condition is true. This is used to automate repetitive tasks in code.

“Loops are used in programming to execute the same block of code multiple times under specific conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: A

RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile memory, meaning its contents are erased when power is removed. According to the CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide:

“RAM is volatile storage, which means that it requires constant power to maintain the stored information. When power is turned off, all data in RAM is lost.”

BIOS (firmware), NIC (hardware interface), and CPU (hardware processor) remain unaffected by shutdowns regarding stored information.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide lists input devices explicitly:

“Input devices include keyboards, mice, scanners, and web cameras—any device that allows the user to enter data into the computer.”

In contrast, printers and speakers are output devices, while a motherboard is an internal component.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 2: Peripherals and Connectors — “Input and Output Devices” (pp. 102–104).

In flowcharts, a diamond represents a decision point — a place where the program branches based on a yes/no or true/false condition.

“A diamond shape in a flowchart is used to depict a decision, indicating that the flow can take different paths based on a condition.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: B

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025) clearly defines Platform as a Service (PaaS) as the most appropriate for developers seeking a managed coding environment:

“Platform as a Service (PaaS) adds a layer to IaaS that includes software development tools such as runtime environments. Because of this, it can be very helpful to software developers; the vendor manages the various hardware platforms. This frees up the software developer to focus on building their application and scaling it.”

It also provides examples:

“Examples of PaaS include Google App Engine, Microsoft Azure, Red Hat OpenShift, Amazon Web Services (AWS) Elastic Beanstalk, Engine Yard, and Heroku.”

This clearly shows that PaaS allows developers to focus on writing code without managing the underlying infrastructure—exactly what the question describes.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 9: Cloud Computing and Artificial Intelligence — Section “Cloud Services” and Table 9.1 (pp. 494–496).

This structure uses branching, which allows a program to make decisions based on conditions using "if," "else if," and similar statements.

“Branching allows the flow of execution in a program to change based on decisions or conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: D

A primary key is a unique identifier for each record in a database table. It must be unique and not null across all rows. In this table, the field ID is the only column that uniquely identifies each row and does not repeat.

“A primary key is a field (or a set of fields) that uniquely identifies a record in a table. It ensures that each record can be uniquely retrieved.” — CompTIA ITF+ Official Study Guide

Analysis of other options:

Month, Day, Year, and Name can have duplicate values across multiple records and therefore do not serve as unique identifiers.

Correct answer: A

The ID field contains unique values for each record and is typically used as a primary key in a database. A primary key uniquely identifies each row in a table.

Month, Day, Year, and Name may have duplicates and do not guarantee uniqueness.