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CSI CSC2 Dumps

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Total 232 questions

Canadian Securities Course Exam 2 Questions and Answers

Question 1

A bond with a duration of five is currently priced at $103. If Interest rates rise by 2%. approximately what win be me bond ' s price?

Options:

A.

$108.15

B.

$113.30

C.

$97.85

D.

$92.70

Question 2

What might cause a company to have a high dividend payout rate?

Options:

A.

Unstable earnings that allow a high payout

B.

A company policy of buying back shares

C.

Earnings based on resources that are being depleted

D.

Stronger than expected earnings growth

Question 3

Companies W, X, Y, and Z ail issue preferred shares and have experienced the following conditions

Over the last five years:

as

Based on the above, which company is most likely to experience an increase in the market price of its preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Company W.

B.

Company Z.

C.

Company Y.

D.

Company X.

Question 4

A young couple is looking to buy a house in the near future with a down payment. What type of investment should they consider for their portfolio?

Options:

A.

Corporate bonds

B.

Stable bank Stocks

C.

Diversified balanced portfolio.

D.

Government Treasury bills

Question 5

What method of trading claims to offer greater liquidity and lower transaction costs?

Options:

A.

Dark pool.

B.

High-frequency trading.

C.

Market timing.

D.

Algorithmic trading.

Question 6

Jenny contributed $5,000 each year for five years to a spousal RRSP in Albert ' s name. In the calendar year immediately following Jenny ' s last contribution, Albert withdrew $25,000 from the RRSP. What are the tax implications of the withdrawal for Albert and Jenny?

Options:

A.

Albert includes $10,000 in his taxable income and Jenny includes $15,000 in her taxable income.

B.

No effect on Jenny ' s taxable income and Albert includes $25,000 in his taxable income.

C.

Jenny includes $25,000 in her taxable income and Albert includes $0 in his taxable income.

D.

Jenny includes $10,000 in her taxable income and Albert includes $15,000 in his taxable income.

Question 7

Which is a typical feature of investing in a listed private equity company?

Options:

A.

Average levels of liquidity.

B.

Access to a wide range of skills and large number of personnel.

C.

Controls and limits on private equity management to protect existing investors.

D.

Ability to act on legitimate insider information.

Question 8

A portfolio manager is reviewing the current asset mix of a portfolio. Some securities have done really well, while others have experienced poor returns. How can the portfolio manager rebalance the portfolio to ensure it remains aligned with the client’s long-term goals?

Options:

A.

Reallocate assets back to their target weights by buying securities that have performed well and selling securities that have done poorly.

B.

Create cash reserves for future potential investment opportunities by selling securities that have performed well.

C.

Create cash reserves for future potential investment opportunities by selling securities that have done poorly.

D.

Reallocate assets back to their target weights by selling securities that have performed well and buying securities that have done poorly.

Question 9

Which ratio, when showing a decreasing trend, suggests declining operating efficiency?

Options:

A.

Price-earnings

B.

Return on common equity

C.

Dividend payout

D.

Debt/equity

Question 10

A client who seeks advice from an investment advisor but does not require financial planning guidance.

Which platform is most appropriate for this client?

Options:

A.

Family office

B.

Self-directed brokerage.

C.

Exchanged-traded fund.

D.

Discount brokerage.

Question 11

A company has the following earnings per share figures: Year 1 (base period): $2.12; Year 2: $2.26; Year 3: $2.42; Year 4: $2.56; and Year 5: $2.71. What is the trend ratio at the end of Year 3 for this company?

Options:

A.

88.

B.

114.

C.

242.

D.

106.

Question 12

What is the requirement regarding the discretionary authority in managed accounts?

Options:

A.

The IA can implement the transaction upon approval from the client, or by any person on a client’s behalf.

B.

The discretionary authority must be given by the client in writing and accepted by the IA verbally.

C.

The IA must use a model portfolio due to the short-term nature of these types of accounts.

D.

The discretionary authority must specify the client’s investment objectives in the trading authorization.

Question 13

A business trust would typically purchase the underlying company assets of which type of operation?

Options:

A.

Senior housing

B.

Restaurants

C.

Industrial rentals

D.

Shopping centres

Question 14

What document must be provided to an investor before they purchase a mutual fund?

Options:

A.

The annual information form.

B.

A simplified prospectus.

C.

A Fund Facts document.

D.

The annual audited statements.

Question 15

What is the bottom price of a security ' s trading range at which most investors would sense value and be willing to buy it?

Options:

A.

Reversal pattern.

B.

Sentiment indicator.

C.

Support level.

D.

Moving average.

Question 16

What client’s characteristics and investment priorities would lead an advisor to recognize that liquid alternatives are unsuitable for this client?

Options:

A.

Short-term time horizon.

B.

Focused on specific outcomes.

C.

Good understanding of portfolio theory.

D.

Short-term liquidity needs.

Question 17

What type of investment has the ability to bypass probate?

Options:

A.

Segregated fund.

B.

Mutual fund.

C.

Exchange-traded fund.

D.

Structured product.

Question 18

When considering management accounts, what is most accurate regarding model-based account management?

Options:

A.

It is only intended for short-term use.

B.

It requires solicitation.

C.

It permits tax loss selling.

D.

It requires client permission before executing trades.

Question 19

The XYZL mutual fund distributes realized capital gains of $1.50. What is the effect of this distribution?

Options:

A.

Investors will reduce the adjusted cost base of their holdings in the fund.

B.

Each investor will have to report taxable income of $1.50 per share.

C.

The net asset value per share will drop $1.50 as a result of the distribution.

D.

The mutual fund will have to declare taxable income of $0.75 per share.

Question 20

An investment analyst at a bank is reviewing the high, low and closing prices of a financial services stock. What type of analysis is this analyst conducting?

Options:

A.

Quantitative analysis

B.

Moving average analysis

C.

Chart analysis

D.

Cycle analysis

Question 21

What event would trigger an amendment of the account application while monitoring a portfolio?

Options:

A.

When a new market cycle is formed.

B.

When the advisor ' s views are influenced by a recent news headline.

C.

When a client ' s job situation has changed.

D.

The annual client meeting.

Question 22

Which carrying charge is tax deductible?

Options:

A.

Interest paid on funds borrowed to buy dividend-paying shares.

B.

Fees paid for a safety deposit box.

C.

Trustee fees for an RRIF.

D.

Interest paid on an RRSP loan.

Question 23

Anwar is placing a market order to purchase 100 shares of AJL when the bid/ask is $10.25. " $ 10.75. Before the trade is complete, the bid/ask moves to $10.207S1Q70. What is the share price that Anwar will pay on the purchase transaction?

Options:

A.

$10.70

B.

$10.75

C.

$10.29

D.

$10.20

Question 24

What is the likely outcome at the end of a five-year term of a rate-reset preferred share if the issuer does not redeem the shares?

Options:

A.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a specified number of common shares.

B.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a fixed-rate preferred share.

C.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for an unsecured bond

D.

The shareholder exchanges the rate-reset preferred share for a floating-rate preferred share

Question 25

Which will taxed at the taxpayer’ marginal tax rate?

Options:

A.

Dividends from foreign corporations.

B.

Domestic property valued over $100,00.

C.

Dividends not eligible for the divided tax credit.

D.

Foreign property valued under $100,000

Question 26

Melanie has RRSP contribution room of $17,500 for the current tax year. Her husband, Jack, has RRSP contribution room of $5,000. What is the maximum tax-deductible contribution Melanie can make to her RRSP and/or a spousal RRSP?

Options:

A.

$17,500.

B.

$20,000.

C.

$5,000.

D.

$22,500.

Question 27

What types of product would be immune to the effects to tracking error?

Options:

A.

Exchange-traded notes

B.

Mutual funds.

C.

Exchanged-traded funds.

D.

Segregated funds

Question 28

What is a characteristic of provincial savings bonds that distinguishes them from other provincial bonds?

Options:

A.

They are backed by provincial assets pledged an security.

B.

They can & e purchased only by residents of the province.

C.

They can be purchased at any time of the year.

D.

They do not have redemption rules.

Question 29

What is the meaning of ex-ante return?

Options:

A.

The real return on the security.

B.

The return of the security based on the risk-free rate.

C.

The historical return of the security.

D.

The expected return of the security.

Question 30

Where would the description d a company ' s fixed assets normally be found?

Options:

A.

In the auditor report

B.

In the annual report

C.

In the notes to the financial statements

D.

In the statement of financial position.

Question 31

What is typically discussed during the establishment of the client-advisor relationship step?

Options:

A.

The client ' s investment goals.

B.

The current financial and personal status.

C.

By what means does the client prefer to communicate with the advisor.

D.

What services will the advisor provide.

Question 32

When acting as a principal, how do investment dealers generate revenue?

Options:

A.

Through commissions

B.

Thrown tracers.

C.

Through brokerage changes.

D.

Through spreads on buy/sell prices.

Question 33

What type of equity analysis tracks the moving average in an attempt to identify buy or sell signals?

Options:

A.

Quantitative.

B.

Sentiment indicators.

C.

Cycle.

D.

Fundamental.

Question 34

According to the Bank of Canada, approximately how many months does it take for the effect of changes in monetary policy to be felt through the whole economy?

Options:

A.

18

B.

6

C.

3

D.

36

Question 35

What is the main benefit of investing in preferred shares?

Options:

A.

Priority to receive fixed dividends ahead of common shareholders.

B.

Priority to claim assets ahead of debt holders.

C.

Higher potential for capital appreciation than common shares.

D.

Guaranteed dividend payment.

Question 36

Which type of industry typically has a high inventory turnover ratio?

Options:

A.

Wineries.

B.

Distillers.

C.

Steel manufacturers.

D.

Cosmetics.

Question 37

Which type of ETF could incur roll yield loss?

Options:

A.

Index-based.

B.

Futures-based.

C.

Physical-based.

D.

Equity-based.

Question 38

An investor wants to gain exposure to the Canadian stock market with minimal risk exposure. What is the test financial instrument for this investor?

Options:

A.

Canadian bank preferred shares.

B.

Index exchange-trace fund.

C.

Call option.

D.

Index-linked guaranteed investment certificate.

Question 39

For institutional investors, what occurs during the clearing process?

Options:

A.

Irrevocable exchange of securities and cash.

B.

Confirming and matching trade details.

C.

Matching a buyer with a seller.

D.

Trade orders are filled at the exchange.

Question 40

What is one advantage of implementing indexing investing style?

Options:

A.

Provides preferential tax treatment to distributions in the form of derive-based income.

B.

Simple for investors to understand.

C.

Offers opportunity to outperform the market at a low cost.

D.

Suitable for short-term investing.

Question 41

What is an important consideration when developing an investment policy statement?

Options:

A.

Is the result of a few simple inputs in the KYC process.

B.

Follows a standardized list of components.

C.

Only lists prohibited investments, as the portfolio manager has discretionary authority for acceptable investments.

D.

Includes operating rules and guidelines.

Question 42

What is one type of linked PPN in Canada?

Options:

A.

Participation

B.

Zero-coupon plus option

C.

Performance

D.

Stock basket

Question 43

The following financial information is available for fund SKE:

as

What is SKE fund’s net asset value per share?

Options:

A.

$9,90

B.

$11, 90

C.

$12,00

D.

$10, 00

Question 44

What is the most accurate feature of a Canada Education Savings Grant (CESG)?

Options:

A.

CESG payments are made directly to the RESP firm.

B.

CESG may be earned until the beneficiary is 21 years of age.

C.

The maximum CESG per beneficiary is $2,500 annually.

D.

The maximum lifetime CESG per beneficiary is $8,500.

Question 45

Which fiscal policy measure was designed to encourage individuals to save?

Options:

A.

First Home Savings Account.

B.

Capital gain inclusion rate.

C.

Dividend tax credit.

D.

Tax Free Savings Account.

Question 46

Which ratio helps compare the shares of companies within the same industry?

Options:

A.

Price-to-earnings.

B.

Asset coverage.

C.

Debt-to-equity.

D.

Working capital.

Question 47

What is a characteristic of an investment firm’s liability traders?

Options:

A.

They are responsible for managing the dealer’s trading capital to encourage market flows.

B.

They have a limited amount of flexibility in the strategies they employ.

C.

They improve liquidity to the market and increase trading volumes.

D.

They have large client commitments.

Question 48

Which type of mutual funds tend to have the lowest management fees?

Options:

A.

Asset allocation

B.

Small cap

C.

Bond

D.

Index

Question 49

Which individual is most likely to have income as an investment objective?

Options:

A.

Elaine, who is contributing to an RRSP with a plan to use the funds for the Lifelong Learning Plan in seven years.

B.

Naveed, who plans to use his investments to buy a house in five years.

C.

Hira, who is investing in her RRSP in anticipation of retirement in 15 years.

D.

Andrew, who is retired and needs to supplement his retirement pension.

Question 50

What is a characteristic of the FTSE Canada Universe Bond Index?

Options:

A.

It measures the total price return on bonds including realized and unrealized gains

B.

It represents a full cross-section of government and corporate bonds.

C.

It Includes Canadian investment-grade bonds with a term to maturity of one year or less.

D.

It is an equal-weighted bond Index with each bond representing the same weight within the index.

Question 51

Jerry sells Company A’s regular bond because the thinks it is overvalued. Using the proceeds from the sale, jerry then busy Company A’s convertible bond because the thinks that the equity component is undervalued and that he convertible bond’s coupon rate is relatively attractive given his forecast of falling interest rates. What fixed-come management style is jerry most likely using?

Options:

A.

Market timing.

B.

Interest rate anticipation.

C.

Bond swap

D.

Immunization

Question 52

What is a typical characteristic of managed fee-based accounts?

Options:

A.

They provide services to the client only on investment management.

B.

The fees are fixed and non-negotiable.

C.

The manager is a licensed portfolio manager with trading authority over the account.

D.

The fees for registered accounts are tax-deductible.

Question 53

Which type of commodity ETF is most suitable for an investor seeking to gain exposure to the spot price of a commodity?

Options:

A.

Physical-based

B.

Swap-based

C.

Futures-based.

D.

Equity-based

Question 54

What does a fundamental analyst believe that is contrary to the beliefs of a technical analyst?

Options:

A.

History repeats itself.

B.

Fiscal policy, monetary policy and inflation may be analyzed.

C.

The movements in price movements must be studied.

D.

The profitability of the issuer is paramount.

Question 55

What is a characteristic of provincial savings bonds?

Options:

A.

Backed by provincial assets

B.

Available only at a certain time

C.

Can be issued Internationally.

D.

Mature every six months

Question 56

When a company issues a number of common shares, some of which are held by institutional investors, what are the institutional investors ' shares known as?

Options:

A.

Market capitalization shares.

B.

Outstanding shares.

C.

issued shares

D.

Public float shares.

Question 57

Which asset allocation technique is used to shift the portfolio away from its policy mix to take advantage of market opportunities?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Tactical

C.

Strategic

D.

Event-driven

Question 58

The consumer price index was 125.9 in December of last year and 123.0 in December of the year before What was the inflation rate last year?

Options:

A.

2.36%

B.

2.30%

C.

0.98%

D.

1.02%

Question 59

What is the main advantage ETFs have over mutual funds?

Options:

A.

Flexible dividend reinvestment

B.

Improved tax efficiency

C.

Active management

D.

Ability to set up pre-authorized contributions

Question 60

An investor has the following separate stock transactions:

as

What is the investor ' s overall adjusted cost base per share? (Round two decimal points.)

Options:

A.

$16.38

B.

$15.72

C.

$15.83

D.

$15.95

Question 61

How do index-tracking ETFs differ from index mutual funds?

Options:

A.

ETFs have higher tracking errors

B.

Index mutual funds have higher implicit trading costs

C.

ETFs have higher administrative costs of record-keeping

D.

Index mutual funds only have initial investment and trading fees

Question 62

A shareholder receive rights from a company through direct ownership in shares. Not expecting to exercise them, she sells the right on the relevant exchange. What is her capital gain?

Options:

A.

The sale price of the rights.

B.

The sales price less the exercise price of the rights.

C.

The current price of the shares less the sale price of the rights.

D.

The current share price less the exercise price of the rights.

Question 63

What is the key objective for investors in alternative strategy funds?

Options:

A.

To match the performance of a reference index.

B.

To maximize risk-adjusted returns.

C.

To achieve absolute returns

D.

To exceed the current rate of inflation.

Question 64

When a futures contract is entered into, who sets the minimum initial margin rate?

Options:

A.

investment dealer

B.

Buyer

C.

Seller

D.

Exchange

Question 65

What happens if a company ' s dividend payout ratio exceeds 100%?

Options:

A.

The company will be unable to repay its debts

B.

Profits will be reduced

C.

Shareholders ' equity will be eroded

D.

The share price will increase

Question 66

Which method of technical analysis involves the use of devices for smoothing out fluctuating values in an individual stock or aggregate market over time?

Options:

A.

Moving average.

B.

Chart.

C.

Sentiment indicators.

D.

Cycle.

Question 67

The price of FMA common stock is set to break through its 200-day moving average line from below on heavy volume. How might a technical analyst interpret this information?

Options:

A.

A buy signal as FMA ' s price is set to rise.

B.

A sell signal as FMA ' s price is set to fall.

C.

The upward price trend is reversing.

D.

The declining price trend will continue.

Question 68

What risk of investing in split shares is specific to a preferred shareholder?

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Dividend cuts

C.

Leverage

D.

Reinvestment

Question 69

How is the ex-port real rate of return calculated?

Options:

A.

The ex-ante nominal rate of return adjusted by portfolio beta.

B.

The ex-post nominal rate of return minus the risk-free rate.

C.

The ex-ante nominal rate of return minus the annual inflation rate.

D.

The ex-post nominal rate of return minus the annual inflation rate.

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Total 232 questions