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DAMA DMF-1220 Dumps

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Total 666 questions

Data Management Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Achieving near-real-time data replication, using a source accumulation technique,

triggers on:

Options:

A.

Posting of messages on the enterprise bus

B.

Arrival of streaming data

C.

Daily batch loads

D.

Reaching a threshold or frequency schedule

E.

Request from a target system to pull data

Question 2

Adoption of a Data Governance program is most likely to succeed:

Options:

A.

When the CDO is a charismatic leader

B.

In 1 or 2 months with a large consulting team

C.

When the entire enterprise is partaking at once

D.

When dictated by senior executives

E.

With an incremental rollout strategy

Question 3

Taxonomies can have different structures, including:

Options:

A.

Polyhierarchy

B.

Application

C.

Facet taxonomy

D.

Network taxonomy

E.

Flat taxonomy

F.

All of the above

Question 4

Data profiling is a form of data analysis used to inspect data and assess quality.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 5

Type of Reference Data Changes include:

Options:

A.

Row level changes to internal Reference Data sets

B.

Row level changes to external Reference Data sets

C.

Creation of new Reference Data sets

D.

Business model changes on column level

E.

Structural changes to external Reference Data sets

F.

None of the above

Question 6

A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 7

As part of its transformation, the organization must identify and respond to different kinds of roadblocks. Please select the answer that is not a roadblock:

Options:

A.

Active resistance

B.

Psychological

C.

Systematic

D.

Structural

Question 8

Modeling Bid data is a non-technical challenge but critical if an organization that want to describe and govern its data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 9

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

B.

Stewardship

C.

Monitoring the resistance

D.

Ownership

E.

Addressing all queries

F.

Controlled change

Question 10

Data replication is useful as it provides:

Options:

A.

The ability to spread the workload across multiple databases

B.

Opportunities to secure sensitive data

C.

An alternative to backups

D.

Enables different table structures to be built

E.

Insights into customer retention

Question 11

Looking at the DMBoK definition of Data Governance, and other industry definitions, what are some of the common key elements of Data Governance?

Options:

A.

Exercise of authority, formalization of reporting lines, implementation of supporting technology, definition of common glossaries

B.

Alignment of Business and IT strategies, definition of data standards, implementation of Data Governance and metadata software tools

C.

Agreed models for decision making and decision rights, defined authority and escalation paths, structures for assigning accountability and delegating responsibility, alignment with business objectives

D.

Agreed architectures, transparent policies, shared language, effective tools, delegated authority, stewardship

E.

Agreed models for data design and definition, decision rights regarding standards and controls, delegation of accountability

Question 12

Data Integration and Interoperability (DII) describes processes related to the movement and consolidation of data within and between data stores, applications and organizations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 13

RACI is an acronym that is made up of the following terms.

Options:

A.

Control

B.

Responsible

C.

Accountable

D.

Informed

E.

Reliable

F.

Consulted

Question 14

Business requirements is an input in the Data Warehouse and Business Intelligence context diagram.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 15

Please select the correct definition of Data Management from the options below.

Options:

A.

Data Management is the strict control of all plans, policies, programs and practices that enable the business strategy to be successfully executed.

B.

Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of data and information assets throughout their lifecycles.

C.

Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of data assets throughout their lifecycles.

D.

Data Management is the development, execution and supervision of plans, policies, programs and practices that deliver, control, protect and enhance the value of information assets throughout their lifecycles.

Question 16

Data and text mining use a range of techniques, including:

Options:

A.

Profiling

B.

Application reduction

C.

Association

D.

Data reduction

E.

Clustering

F.

All of the above

Question 17

Deliverables in the document and content management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata and reference data

B.

Policy and procedure

C.

Data governance

D.

Content and records management strategy

E.

Audit trail and log

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 18

Big Data and Data Science Governance should address such data questions as:

Options:

A.

What the data means on the source side and how to interpret the results on the on the output side

B.

What the data means on the source side but no assessment needed for the interpretation of results

C.

Whether to enrich the data and benefits of enrichment

D.

Terms for data obtained from vendors and outside organizations

E.

The approach for alignment of data visualization tools to the user community

Question 19

A goal of metadata management is to manage data related business terminology in

order toc

Options:

A.

Successfully size the database

B.

Ensure accurate data requirements are gathered for reporting

C.

Ensure people understand data content and can use data consistently

D.

Ensure people understand data definition in Bl systems

E.

Ensure the business processes align to the data model

Question 20

What result(s) is/are Data Handling Ethics trying to avoid?

Options:

A.

Loss of reputation for the organization and loss of customers

B.

Unethical use of information by staff to achieve business outcomes; customers trust so they are willing to pay more

C.

Increased Risk for people whose data is exposed and criminal proceedings

D.

Ensure that Data Governance is in line with Corporate Governance and ethic business statements

E.

Ensure that organizations are adhering to ethical standards set by industry and bodies such as the World Economic Forum

Question 21

Business metadata focuses largely on the content and condition of the data and includes details related to data governance.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 22

When developing a Data Governance operating framework, what areas should be considered?

Options:

A.

Impacts of regulations, the value of data to the organization, data modelling skills, & third-party data policies

B.

Data inputs, context diagrams, methods and procedures

C.

Data management skills, budget considerations & organization strategy

D.

Cultural factors, the role of a data steward, & third-party data policies

E.

A model that documents the business, cultural factors, the impacts of regulations, and the value of data to the organization

Question 23

Sample value metrics for a data governance program include:

Options:

A.

Reduction of risk

B.

Improved efficiency in operations

C.

Effectiveness of education

D.

Achievements of goals and objectives

E.

Contributions to business objectives

F.

Effectiveness of communication

Question 24

Differentiating between data and information. Please select the correct answers based on the sentence below: Here is a marketing report for the last month [1]. It is based on data from our data warehouse[2]. Next month these results [3] will be used to generate our month-over-month performance measure [4].

Options:

A.

[1] Information, [2] Information, [3] Data, [4] Information

B.

[1] Data, [2] Information, [3] Data, [4] Data

C.

[1] Data, [2] Data, [3] Data, [4] Information

D.

[1] Information, [2] Data, [3] Data, [4] Information

Question 25

Match rules for different scenarios require different workflows, including:

Options:

A.

Consistency rules

B.

Duplicate identification match rules

C.

Match-merge rules

D.

Match-split rules

E.

Match-link rules

F.

All of the above

Question 26

When recovering from multiple system failures, what is the biggest difficulty faced

by a DBA?

Options:

A.

Determining where the corrupt pages exist in the database file system

B.

Determining what point to recover to using backups taken at different points intime

C.

Reseting active directory to reapply the security policies

D.

Organising for the tapes to be delivered to the main data center

E.

Determining what version of the DBMS to recover - considering incrementalPatches

Question 27

An enterprise's organisation chart has multiple levels, each with a single reporting

line. This is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Ecological taxonomy

B.

Hierarchical taxonomy

C.

Flat taxonomy

D.

Compound taxonomy

E.

Hybrid taxonomy

Question 28

Data lineage is useful to the development of the data governance strategy.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 29

No recorded negative ethical outcomes does not mean that the organization is processing data ethically. Legislation cannot keep up with the evolution of the data environment so how do we stay compliant?

Options:

A.

Constant attention to ethical legislation and legal proceedings and international ethical bodies will enable the organization to recognize potential compliancy issues that can be addressed

B.

An active data quality and privacy assessment program can be used to detect ethical risks. Once identified, we can reduce the associated risks according to the organizations ethical values

C.

A healthy internal governance, risk and compliance function, including internal data audits will identify potential ethical issues

D.

An organization must develop and sustain a culture of ethical data handling to detect potential ethical risks. On identifying ethical risks, the onus is on the organization to modifying the processing to achieve acceptable data handling

E.

The best way to keep up with the evolution is to survey communities, customers and employees and what they consider to be appropriate use of the information

Question 30

To push up the urgency level requires adding of the sources of complacency or increasing of their impact.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 31

Every DMM and Data Governance assessment must define how the assessment team will interact with its subjects (after defining the subject/stakeholder list). This is important because:

Options:

A.

Each type of stakeholder may need a different form of interaction, and each process evaluation may lend itself to a different form of information gathering

B.

Data management and Data Governance assessments will have different types of stakeholders

C.

The definition of stakeholder interaction depends on the executive sponsor

D.

Assessment teams may not know what a stakeholder is

E.

Each type of stakeholder may need a different form of data and security

Question 32

Data Governance includes developing alignment of the data management approach with organizational touchpoints outside of the direct authority of the Chief Data Officer. Select the example of such a touchpoint.

Options:

A.

Content Management

B.

Requirements

C.

Business Glossary

D.

Records Management

E.

Regulatory Compliance

Question 33

There are three basic approaches to implementing a Master Data hub environment, including:

Options:

A.

Transaction hub

B.

Distributed hub

C.

Registry

D.

Consolidated approach

E.

Eventual consistency

F.

Transparent hub

Question 34

In Resource Description Framework (RDF) terminology, a triple store is composed of a subject that denotes a resource, the predicate that expresses a relationship between the subject and the object, and the object itself.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 35

Which of these is NOT a component of an enterprise wide data strategy?

Options:

A.

A business Case for better data management

B.

A description of data management roles & organizations

C.

An outline of 'as is' and 'to be' technical architectures

D.

A data management roadmap, highlighting major activities

E.

A vision statement for data management

Question 36

The key architecture domains include:

Options:

A.

Business, data, infrastructure and technology architectures

B.

Process, database, software and technology architectures

C.

Zachmann, TOGAF, Cobit, and Heath architectures

D.

Business, data, application and technology architectures

E.

Business, strategy, application and technology architectures

Question 37

What are the three characteristics of effective Data Governance communication?

Options:

A.

It must be clear, unambiguous, and consistent

B.

It must be consistent, unambiguous, engaging

C.

It must be viral, vital, and have volume

D.

It must be colorful, engaging, using multi-media

E.

It must be clear, structured, repetitive

Question 38

Different types of product Master Data solutions include:

Options:

A.

People Lifecycle Product Management (PLPM)

B.

Product data in Manufacturing Execution Systems (MES)

C.

None of the above

D.

Product Data in Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP)

E.

Product Lifecycle Management (PLM)

Question 39

A successful Data Governance program requires that all enterprise data be certified.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 40

Reference and Master data definition: Managing shared data to meet organizational goals, reduce risks associated with data redundancy, ensure higher quality, and reduce the costs of data integration.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 41

Data Integration and Interoperability is dependent on these other areas of data management:

Options:

A.

Metadata

B.

Data architecture

C.

Data governance

D.

Data security

E.

Data modelling and design

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 42

MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 43

The library of Alexandria was one of the largest collection of books in the ancient

world. Which DMBoK knowledge area is most aligned with managing the collection?

Options:

A.

Data Integration and Interoperability

B.

Reference and Master Data

C.

Data Security

D.

Document and Content Management

E.

Data Govemance

Question 44

Oversight for the appropriate handling of data falls under both Data Governance and Legal Counsel. What are they NOT required to do?

Options:

A.

Data Governance and Legal Counsel are required to reduce the risk of ethical impropriety by making sure employees know of their obligations

B.

Data Governance must set standards and policies for and provide insight of data handling practices

C.

Data Governance is required to review plans and decisions proposed by Business Intelligence, Analytics, and Data Science studies

D.

Data Governance and Legal Counsel are required to keep up-to-date on legal changes

E.

Legal Counsel is required to audit their organizations on ethical compliance

Question 45

Controlling data availability requires management of user entitlements and of structures that technically control access based on entitlements.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 46

Developing complex event processing solutions require:

Options:

A.

Preparation of historical data and pre-population of a predictive model

B.

Integration testing for subsequent logging requirements

C.

Processing of real-time data stream to fully populate a predictive model and identify meaningful events

D.

Executing the triggered action in response to the prediction

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 47

Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, escalating issues to higher level of authority.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 48

ANSI standard 859 has three levels of control of data, based on the criticality of the data and the perceived harm that would occur if data were corrupt or otherwise unavailable, including:

Options:

A.

Basic

B.

Formal

C.

Informal

D.

Custody

E.

Revision

F.

None of the above

Question 49

GDPR and PIPEDA are examples of:

Options:

A.

Global data modelling standards

B.

Content management systems

C.

Data program rules

D.

Primary information parsing algorithms

E.

Data protection regulations

Question 50

Big data is often defined by three characteristics. They are:

Options:

A.

Size, Speed and Sensitivity

B.

Volume, Variety and Velocity

C.

Direction, Depth and Details

D.

Expansive, Engaged and Enormous

E.

Complexity, Compliance and Completeness

Question 51

Please select the correct principles of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) of the EU.

Options:

A.

Purpose Limitation

B.

Data Minimisation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Storage Limitation

E.

Accountability

F.

All of the above

Question 52

Content management includes the systems for organizing information resources so that they can specially be stored.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 53

There are three techniques for data-based change data capture, namely:

Options:

A.

The source system populates specific data elements.

B.

Application automated interfaces

C.

The source system processes copy data that has changed into a separate object as part of the transaction, which is then used for the extract process.

D.

The source systems send binary code through ASCI that makes the process rapid.

E.

The source system processes add to a simple list of objects and identifiers when changing data, which is then used to control selection of data extraction.

F.

None of the above

Question 54

Reference and master data require governance processes, including:

Options:

A.

The data sources to be integrated

B.

Emotions matrix

C.

Compliance framework

D.

The priority and response levels of data stewardship efforts

E.

The conditions of use rules to be followed

F.

None of the above

Question 55

Business glossaries have the following objectives:

Options:

A.

Improve the alignment between technology assets and the business organization

B.

All of the above

C.

Cultural factors that might improve the concepts and terminology

D.

Maximise search capability and enable access to documented institutional knowledge

E.

Enable common understanding of the core business concepts and terminology

F.

Reduce the risk that data will be misused due to inconsistent understanding of the business concepts.

Question 56

Release management is critical to batch development processes that grows new capabilities.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 57

Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range; and rule-based.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 58

Emergency contact phone number would be found in which master data

management program?

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Asset

C.

Service

D.

Employee

E.

Product

Question 59

The Belmont principles that may be adapted for Information Management disciplines, include:

Options:

A.

Respect for Persons

B.

Respect for Machines

C.

Beneficence

D.

Criminality

E.

Justice

Question 60

Please select the correct general cost and benefit categories that can be applied consistently within an organization.

Options:

A.

Cost of erasing data from servers

B.

Cost of improving data

C.

What the data could be sold for

D.

Benefit of higher quality data

E.

Cost of replacing data if it were lost

F.

What competitors would pay for data

Question 61

An input in the Metadata management context diagram does not include:

Options:

A.

Business requirements

B.

Business metadata

C.

Technical metadata

D.

Metadata standards

E.

Process Metadata

Question 62

Coupling describes the degree to which two systems are intertwined.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 63

What key components make up the Data Governance Charter?

Options:

A.

Vision/Mission Statement, Data Governance data principles, Business drivers

B.

Data Stewardship Metrics, Data Governance, Business Drivers

C.

Vision/Mission statement, Data quality framework, Data stewardship metrics

D.

Data processes, data principles and the timeframe for implementation

E.

The Enterprise data architecture, data security practices and industry regulations

Question 64

The failure to gain acceptance of a business glossary may be due to ineffective:

Options:

A.

Metadata Management

B.

Business Architecture

C.

Content and Document Management

D.

Data Governance

E.

Data Security

Question 65

Technical metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of data.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 66

Creating the CDM involves the following steps:

Options:

A.

Select Scheme

B.

Obtain Sign-off

C.

Complete Initial CDM

D.

Select Notation

E.

Incorporate Enterprise Technology

F.

All of the above

Question 67

Issues caused by data entry processes include:

Options:

A.

Data entry interface issues

B.

List entry placement

C.

Field overloading

D.

None of the above

E.

Training issues

F.

Changes to business processes

Question 68

Business activity information is one of the types of data that can be modelled.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 69

Please select the four domains of enterprise architecture:

Options:

A.

Enterprise software architecture

B.

Enterprise technology architecture

C.

Enterprise business architecture

D.

Enterprise data architecture

E.

Enterprise hardware architecture

F.

Enterprise application architecture

Question 70

The business glossary application is structured to meet the functional requirements of the three core audiences:

Options:

A.

Data users

B.

Application users

C.

Innovation users

D.

Business users

E.

Data stewards

F.

Technical users

Question 71

Well prepared records have characteristics such as:

Options:

A.

Context

B.

Content

C.

Compliance

D.

Timeliness

Question 72

Business people must be fully engaged in order to realize benefits from the advanced analytics.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 73

Defining quality content requires understanding the context of its production and use, including:

Options:

A.

Producers

B.

Timing

C.

None of the above

D.

Delivery

E.

Consumers

F.

Format

Question 74

ISO 8000 will describe the structure and the organization of data quality management, including:

Options:

A.

Data Quality Availability

B.

Data Quality Planning

C.

Data Quality Control

D.

Data Quality Assurance

E.

Data Quality Improvement

Question 75

Drivers for data governance most often focus on reducing risk or improving processes. Please select the elements that relate to the improvement of processes:

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Data quality improvements

C.

Metadata management

D.

Efficiency in development projects

E.

Vendor management

F.

All of the above

Question 76

The target of organizational change is expedition.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 77

In a data warehouse, where the classification lists for organisation type are

inconsistent in different source systems, there is an indication that there is a lack of

focus on:

Options:

A.

Metadata Management

B.

Data Storage

C.

Data Modelling

D.

Master Data

E.

Reference data

Question 78

Please select the answers that correctly describes where the costs of poor quality data comes from.

Options:

A.

Scrap and rework

B.

Organizational conflict

C.

High job satisfaction

D.

High productivity

E.

Reputational costs

F.

Compliance costs

Question 79

Some document management systems have a module that may support different types of workflows such as:

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance Testing (QA)

B.

Manual workflows that indicate where the user send the document

C.

User Acceptance Testing (UAT)

D.

Dynamic rules that allow for different workflows based on content

E.

All of the above

F.

None of the above

Question 80

Data warehouses are often loaded and serviced by a nightly batch window.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 81

The DW encompasses all components in the data staging and data presentation areas, including:

Options:

A.

Operational source system

B.

Data access tools

C.

Data presentation area

D.

Data staging area

E.

All of the above

F.

Technology source system

Question 82

When presenting a case for an organization wide Data Governance program to your Senior Executive Board, which of these potential benefits would be of LEAST importance?

Options:

A.

Better corporate compliance with legal and regulatory demands, especially in relation to data protection, security and privacy

B.

Lower operational costs resulting from better data quality and a reduced need for cost of failure and rework activities

C.

The current corporate information policy states that company data must be managed and effectively governed

D.

Enhanced customer perceptions of your company's brand and enhanced customer acquisition, retention and loyalty

E.

New sales and revenue opportunities that better managed data will enable

Question 83

What is the most critical task for a new Data Governance team?

Options:

A.

To begin developing the Business Data Glossary

B.

To identify metrics for data quality issues in the organisation

C.

To define the requirements for technologies to support DG activities

D.

To collate an Information Risk Register

E.

To establish its purpose, process, and measures of team progress

Question 84

Data stewardship is the least common label to describe accountability and responsibility for data and processes to ensure effective control and use of data assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 85

Repositories facilitate the collection, publishing and distribution of data in a centralized and possibly standardized way. Data is most often used to:

Options:

A.

Make sure the DBAs are not creating new tables and columns

B.

Document and organize the provided data

C.

To support the business users not the technical users

D.

Give developers all the data they will need for programming

E.

Find new initiatives for the business to pursue

Question 86

Data modelling tools and model repositories are necessary for managing the enterprise data model in all levels.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 87

Effective data management involves a set of complex, interrelated processes that disable an organization to use its data to achieve strategic goals.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 88

A goal of data architecture is to identify data storage and processing requirements.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 89

The term data quality refers to both the characteristics associated with high quality data and to the processes used to measure or improve the quality of data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 90

All metadata management solutions include architectural layers including:

Options:

A.

Metadata Quality Assurance Testing

B.

Metadata integration

C.

Metadata usage

D.

Metadata delivery

E.

Metadata control and management

F.

None of the above

Question 91

Three data governance operating models types include:

Options:

A.

Centralized

B.

Decentralized

C.

Feathered

D.

Federated

E.

Replicated

F.

Duplicated

Question 92

The acroymn ACID stands for.

Options:

A.

Atomicity, completeness, independence and durability

B.

Actual, created, identifled and deleted

C.

Avallable, completeness, isolation and dangerous

D.

Atomicity, consistency, isolation and durability

E.

Available, corrupt, isolation and durable

Question 93

The best way to validate that a database backup is working, is to:

Options:

A.

Periodically recover from the backup file

B.

Appoint a special DBA in charge of backups

C.

Check the size of the backup file

D.

Check the backup logs every day

E.

Check for the automatic email notification of backup success

Question 94

Gathering and interpreting results from a DMM or Data Governance assessment are important because:

Options:

A.

Lack of results gathered can indicate a lack of assessment performance

B.

The assessments are done by different teams within the organization and may have different results

C.

Interpreting these results is difficult

D.

Data Management and Data Governance results are gathered and interpreted differently, depending on the organization being evaluated

E.

Performing these activities objectively can ensure the success of the assessment and affect the acceptance and implementation of the data management and/or Data Governance program

Question 95

Types of metadata include:

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Business

C.

Column-orientated

D.

Operational

E.

Graph

F.

Technical

Question 96

A ‘Golden Record’ means that it is always a 100% complete and accurate representation of all entities within the organization.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 97

In an information management context, the short-term wins and goals often arise from the resolution of an identified problem.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 98

Where is the best place to find the following metadata: database table names,

column names and indexes?

Options:

A.

Logical data model

B.

Security access authorisation

C.

Database catalogue

D.

Enterprise data model

E.

Detailed business processes

Question 99

Improving data quality requires a strategy that accounts for the work that needs to be done and the way people will execute it.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 100

Enterprise data architecture description must include both [1] as well as [2]

Options:

A.

[1] Data Flow Design [2] Data Context Diagram

B.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Architecture Diagram

C.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Flow Design

D.

[1] Enterprise Data Model [2] Data Context Diagram

Question 101

The CAP theorem asserts that the distributed system cannot comply with all the parts of the ACID. A distributed system must instead trade-off between the following properties:

Options:

A.

Consistency

B.

Utilization

C.

Availability

D.

System development

E.

Partition tolerance

F.

All of the above

Question 102

The loading of country codes into a CRM is a classic:

Options:

A.

Reference data integration

B.

Fact data integration

C.

Master data integration

D.

Analytics data integration

E.

Transaction data integration

Question 103

Which of the following provides the strongest tangible reason for driving initiation of a Data Governance process in an enterprise?

Options:

A.

Each division of an enterprise may have its own way to describe its business and associated metrics

B.

There is disagreement among divisions on the meaning of key metrics

C.

There is typically significant waste in an enterprise through duplication of reports and metrics

D.

Increasing regulation in industry can impose real penalties in terms of substantial fines or jail terms for non-compliance to properly managed data (e.g. accurate reporting/accounting)

E.

I've been to a conference and found that lots of our competitors are doing it

Question 104

Please select the 2 frameworks that show high-level relationships that influence how an organization manages data.

Options:

A.

Strategic Alignment Model

B.

DAMA DMBOK Hexagon

C.

DAMA Wheel

D.

Amsterdam Information Model

Question 105

Examples of transformation in the ETL process onclude:

Options:

A.

De-duping

B.

Structure changes

C.

Hierarchical changes

D.

Re-ordering

E.

Semantic conversions

F.

None of the above

Question 106

Poorly managed Metadata leads to, among other, redundant data and data management processes.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 107

A "Data Governance strategy" usually includes the following deliverables:

Options:

A.

A Statement of Intent, a Decision Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Governance Toolkit

B.

A Charter, a Data Architecture, a Program Data Model, and a Plan for Operational Success

C.

A Program Plan, a Resource Plan, an Implementation Plan, and a Test Plan

D.

A Charter, an Operating Framework, an Implementation Roadmap, and a Plan for Operational Success

E.

A Charter, a Security Strategy, a Solution Roadmap, and a User Experience Plan

Question 108

Integrating data security with document and content management knowledge areas.

guides the implementation of:

Options:

A.

Appropriate access and authorization to unstructured data

B.

Fitness for purpose metrics for unstructured data

C.

Appropriate privacy controls on data marts

D.

Appropriate access and authorization to structured data

E.

Straight-through processing for NoSQL queries

Question 109

When doing reference data management, there many organizations that have standardized data sets that are incredibly valuable and should be subscribed to. Which of these organizations would be least useful?

Options:

A.

The company registration organization

B.

Wikipedia

C.

ISO

D.

IEEE

E.

The national post office

Question 110

The steps followed in managing data issues include:

Options:

A.

Standardization, Allocation, Assignment, and Correction

B.

Standardization, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion

C.

Read, Guess, Code, Release

D.

Standardization, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion

E.

Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion

Question 111

Three classic implementation approaches that support Online Analytical Processing include:

Options:

A.

QOLAP

B.

ROLAP

C.

OLAP2

D.

HOLAP

E.

MOLAP

F.

None of the above

Question 112

Security Risks include elements that can compromise a network and/or database.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 113

A goal of reference and master data is to provide authoritative source of reconciled and quality-assessed master and reference data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 114

A Metadata repository contains information about the data in an organization, including:

Options:

A.

Hierarchical

B.

Data structure

C.

Warped

D.

Business rules for managing data

E.

Content

F.

None of the above

Question 115

Examples of the ‘Who’ entity category include: employee; patient; player; and suspect.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 116

Most document programs have policies related to:

Options:

A.

Scope and compliance audits

B.

Proper destruction of records

C.

Proper construction of records

D.

Identification and protection of vital records

E.

Partition tolerance

F.

All of the above

Question 117

What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data

assets?

Options:

A.

Data Architect

B.

Data Steward

C.

Data Scientist

D.

Chief Information Officer

E.

Data Modeler

Question 118

Device security standard include:

Options:

A.

Installation of anti-malware and encryption software

B.

Relational security policies

C.

Access policies regarding connections using mobile devices

D.

Regulation compliance standards

E.

None of the above

F.

Awareness of security vulnerabilities

Question 119

Which of the following is not a step in the 'document and content management

lifecycle'?

Options:

A.

Capture records and content

B.

Manage versions and control

C.

Audit documents and records

D.

Create a content strategy

E.

Manage retention and disposal

Question 120

Operationality and interoperability depends on the data quality. In order to measure the efficiency of a repository the data quality needs to be:

Options:

A.

Stored in a Cloud for easy access

B.

Quantified by some type of metrics

C.

Be certified by a Data Governance team

D.

Have complete definitions

E.

Verified by the organization's legal department

Question 121

The accuracy dimension of data quality refers to the degree that data correctly respresents ‘real-life’ entities.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 122

A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

Options:

A.

Establishing data quality metrics

B.

Conflicting application requirements from data owners

C.

Choosing which content management software to use

D.

Identifying source databases

E.

Different data element names and formats

Question 123

A deliverable in the data security context diagram is the data security architecture.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 124

The process of building architectural activities into projects also differ between methodologies. They include:

Options:

A.

Waterfall methods

B.

Incremental methods

C.

Kanban method

D.

Agile iterative method

E.

Duck and dive method

F.

Pump and dump method

Question 125

Value is the difference between the cost of a thing and the benefit derived from that thing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 126

The implementation of a Data Warehouse should follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Managing performance of data assets

B.

Focus on the business goals

C.

Managing the availability of data throughout the data lifecycle

D.

Start with the end in mind

E.

Managing the performance of data transactions

F.

Collaborate

Question 127

Data security issues, breaches and unwarranted restrictions on employee access to data cannot directly impact operational success.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 128

A Global ID is the MDM solution-assigned and maintained unique identifier attached to reconciled records.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 129

Corrective actions are implemented after a problem has occurred and been detected.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 130

In the Information Management Lifecycle, the Data Governance Activity "Define the Data Governance Framework" is considered in which Lifecycle stage?

Options:

A.

Create & Acquire

B.

Maintain & Use

C.

Specify

D.

Enable

E.

Plan

Question 131

Data replication can be active or passive.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 132

Technical Metadata provides data about the technical data, the systems that store data, and the processes that move between systems.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 133

In data modelling practice, entities are linked by:

Options:

A.

Relationships

B.

Processes

C.

Cardinality

D.

Indexes

E.

Triggers

Question 134

Deliverables in the Metadata Management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata Strategy

B.

Metadata Standards

C.

Data Lineage

D.

Metadata Architecture

E.

Metadata design

F.

Data storage and operations

Question 135

The ISO 11179 Metadata registry, an international standard for representing Metadata in an organization, contains several sections related to data standards, including naming attributes and writing definitions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 136

Triplestores can be classified into these categories:

Options:

A.

Native triplestores

B.

All of the above

C.

None of the above

D.

RDMS-backed triplestores

E.

NoSQL triplestores

F.

MapReduce triplestores

Question 137

One common KPI of e-discovery is cost reduction.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 138

Input in the Big Data and data science context diagram include:

Options:

A.

IT standards

B.

Data sources

C.

Business strategy & goals

D.

Database standards

Question 139

What key components must be included in the Implementation Roadmap?

Options:

A.

Timeframes and resources for data quality requirements, policies and directives and testing standards

B.

Data metrics, physical data structures, and data model designs

C.

Timeframes and resources for Policies and Directives, a Business Glossary Architecture, Business and IT processes and role descriptions

D.

Testing requirements, risk assessment, data security and privacy policies and database design

E.

Timeframes and resources for policies and directives Architecture, Tools and Control Metrics

Question 140

Operational reports are outputs from the data stewards.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 141

Malware types include:

Options:

A.

Trojan horse

B.

Worm

C.

Weasel

D.

Virus

E.

Adware

F.

Camware

Question 142

Issue management is the process for identifying, quantifying, prioritizing and resolving data governance related issues, including:

Options:

A.

Contracts

B.

Authority

C.

Compliance

D.

All of the above

E.

Conflicts

F.

Data Efficiency

Question 143

Top down' and "bottom up' data analysis and profiling is best done in concert

because:

Options:

A.

It gets everyone involved

B.

It balances business relevance and the actual state of the data

C.

Data quality tools are more productive when they are effectively configured

D.

It gives something for the architects to do while the profilers get on with thework

E.

It allows the profiler to show the business the true state of the data

Question 144

The goals of Data Integration and Interoperability include:

Options:

A.

Provide data securely, with regulatory compliance, in the format and timeframe needed.

B.

Lower cost and complexity of managing solutions by developing shared models and interfaces.

C.

Managing the availability of data throughout the data lifecycle

D.

Provide the starting point for customizations, integration or even replacement of an application

E.

Identify meaningful events and automatically trigger alerts and actions.

F.

Support business intelligence, analytics, master data management and operational efficiency efforts.

Question 145

Inputs in the Data Integration and Interoperability context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Data needs & standards

B.

Data semantics

C.

Business goals & strategies

D.

Source data

Question 146

Business glossary is not merely a list of terms. Each term will be associated with other valuable metadata such as synonyms, metrics, lineage, or:

Options:

A.

Sanctioned rules

B.

Archive Rules

C.

Business Rules

D.

Database Type

E.

Data Length

Question 147

What are some of the business drivers for the ethical handling of data that Data Governance should satisfy?

Options:

A.

Develop Employee Awareness of the organizational risks on unethical data handling

B.

All of these

C.

Define what ethical handling of data means to the organization

D.

Achieve the preferred culture and actions in handling data

E.

Monitor, Measure and adjust the organizations approach to data ethics

Question 148

It is unwise to implement data quality checks to ensure that the copies of the attributes are correctly stored.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 149

Data science merges data mining, statistical analysis, and machine learning with the integration and data modelling capabilities, to build predictive models that explore data content patterns.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 150

CMA is an abbreviation for Capability Maturity Assessment.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 151

Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 152

Which of the following is a Data Quality principle?

Options:

A.

Prevention

B.

Governance

C.

Criticality

D.

Standards Driven

E.

All of these

Question 153

The IT security policy provides categories for individual application, database roles, user groups and information sensitivity.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 154

There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:

Options:

A.

Virtual machine image

B.

Distributed machine image

C.

DAAS

D.

Managed database hosting on the cloud

Question 155

An input in the data architecture context diagram includes data governance.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 156

CIF stands for:

Options:

A.

Company Information Factory

B.

Corporate Information Floor

C.

Corporate Information Factories

D.

Corporate Information Factory

Question 157

The best DW/BI architects will design a mechanism to connect back to transactional level and operational level reports in an atomic DW.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 158

Document and content management is defined as planning, implementation and control activities for storage management of data and information found in any form or medium.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 159

The advantage of a decentralized data governance model over a centralized model is:

Options:

A.

The common metadata repository configurations

B.

Having a common approach to resolving data governance issues

C.

The easier implementation of industry data models

D.

An increased level of ownership from local decision making groups

E.

The cheaper execution of data governance operations

Question 160

Critical Data is most often used in

Options:

A.

Regulatory, financial, or management reporting

B.

Business operational needs

C.

Measuring product quality and customer satisfaction

D.

Business strategy, especially efforts at competitive differentiation.

E.

All of these

Question 161

Which of the following is a type of data steward?

Options:

A.

Divisional

B.

Tactical

C.

Enterprise

D.

Operating

E.

Profiling Analyst

Question 162

Enterprise service buses (ESB) are the data integration solution for near real-time sharing of data between many systems, where the hub is a virtual concept of the standard format or the canonical model for sharing data in the organization.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 163

The most important reason to implement operational data quality measurements is to inform data consumers about levels of data effectiveness.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 164

Identify indicative components of a Data Strategy.

Options:

A.

Vision, case studies, succession plans, functional requirements

B.

Vision, data invoice, payment receipts, confirmations

C.

Vision, business surveys, employee performance goals

D.

Vision, business case, data models, employee goals

E.

Vision, business case, principles, goals, and measures

Question 165

Data flows map and document relationships between data and locations where global differences occur.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 166

Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:

Options:

A.

Asset Principle

B.

Audit Principle

C.

Due Diligence Principle

D.

Going Concern Principle

E.

Ethical Principle

F.

All of the above

Question 167

The load step of the ETL is physically storing or presenting the results of the transformation into the source system.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 168

What is the best definition of Crowdsourced data collection?

Options:

A.

Crowdsourcing should not be used to gather data because there will be too many opinions and not enough facts

B.

Crowdsourcing is the process of obtaining needed data by soliciting contributions from a large group of people, and especially from an online community, rather than from traditional employees or suppliers  

C.

Crowdsourced data is the best way of finding data because so many people are contributing their definitions

D.

Crowdsourced data is the data that comes from using a company wiki to gather data because anyone in the crowd can contribute

E.

Crowdsourced data collection is only used by researchers to answer research, survey or feedback questions

Question 169

Improving an organization’s ethical behaviour requires an informal Organizational Change Management (OCM) process.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 170

In a global organization which must operate under many local jurisdictions, each with their own legislative and compliance laws, which type of Data Governance Operating Model Type would best apply?

Options:

A.

Centralized

B.

Globalized

C.

Replicated

D.

Federated

E.

Contemporary

Question 171

A metadata repository is essential to assure the integrity and consistent use of an enterprise data model across business processes.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 172

Please select the two classifications of database types:

Options:

A.

Centralized

B.

Generic

C.

Distributed

D.

MapReduce

Question 173

Data architect: A senior analyst responsible for data architecture and data integration.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 174

Consistent input data reduces the chance of errors in associating records. Preparation processes include:

Options:

A.

Standardization

B.

EnrichmentC Validation

C.

Database management

Question 175

Hierarchical database model is the newest database model

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 176

All DMM and Data Governance assessments should identify its objectives and goals for improvement. This is important because:

Options:

A.

There is always room for improvement

B.

An assessment without goals and objectives will not have a conclusion

C.

The assessment team has to be aware of the objectives to be successful

D.

Data management and Data Governance assessments have different goals and objectives

E.

Assessment objectives start at the business drivers (for funding), goals to describe focus, and objectives to provide specific expectations and criteria for evaluation for success

Question 177

Deliverables in the data quality context diagram include:

Options:

A.

DQM Procedures

B.

Data architecture

C.

Data governance

D.

DQ Policies and guidelines

E.

Analyses from data profiling

F.

Data quality Service Level Agreements

Question 178

Achieving security risk reduction in an organisation begins with developing what?

Options:

A.

A change management model, prioritising security changes and then updatingthe active directory

B.

An enterprise data model, rolling out data flow diagrams and enbedding securityinto the database

C.

A security model, classifying each organisational role and putting the physicaldata behind a firewall

D.

A classification model, classifying each data concept and locating the physicaldata

E.

A metadata model, locating the data and moving it into the metadata repository

Question 179

Metadata is described using three sets od categories, including:

Options:

A.

Structural Metadata

B.

Descriptive Metadata

C.

Generic Metadata

D.

Administrative metadata

E.

Conceptual Metadata

Question 180

Master data is an aggregation of:

Options:

A.

Transaction Structure Data

B.

Database Structure Data

C.

Reference Data

D.

Enterprise Structure Data

Question 181

The creation of overly complex enterprise integration over time is often a symptom

of:

Options:

A.

Multiple data warehouses

B.

Multiple integration technologies

C.

Multiple metadata tags

D.

Multiple application coding languages

E.

Multiple data owners

Question 182

What are the business objectives for building a business glossary?

Options:

A.

To have a place to store physical schemas for the DBAs

B.

Make sure that the data stewards have valid work to perform, & justify that the budget for Data Governance

C.

Take all the core data elements from the data models and store them in the glossary

D.

Establish a common understanding of core business concepts and terminology & enable access to documented institutional knowledge

E.

Create a place to manage metadata and lineage

Question 183

Once the most critical business needs and the data that supports them have been identified, the most important part of the data quality assessment is actually looking data, querying it to understand data content and relationships, and comparing actual data to rules and expectations.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 184

The impact of the changes from new volatile data must be isolated from the bulk of the historical, non-volatile DW data. There are three main approaches, including:

Options:

A.

All of the above

B.

Streaming

C.

Messaging

D.

Technology

E.

Data

F.

Trickle Feeds

Question 185

Examples of technical metadata include:

Options:

A.

Access permission

B.

Recovery and backup rules

C.

Colum properties

D.

Data subject properties

Question 186

Various Regulations require evidence of clear data lineage and accuracy. How can we as data managers best serve our enterprises in achieving this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform a one off review of data quality

B.

Create a new data store for regulator required metrics

C.

Capture and document all metrics and store in a central repository

D.

Undertake an audit of current process and produce a report

E.

Provide the framework and guidance to enable a business led ongoing Data Governance process

Question 187

The ethics of data handling are complex, but is centred on several core concepts. Please select the correct answers.

Options:

A.

Impact on machines

B.

Impact on people

C.

Potential for data management

D.

Potential for misuse

E.

Economic value of ethics

F.

Economics value of data

Question 188

One of the key differences between operational systems and data warehouses is:

Options:

A.

Operational systems focus on data quality: data warehouses focus on datasecurity

B.

Operational systems focus on historical data; data warehouses contain currentdata

C.

Operational systems are available 24x7; data warehouses are available duringbusiness hours

D.

Operational systems focus on current data; data warehouses contain historicaldata

E.

Operational systems focus on business processes: data warehouses focus onbusiness strategies

Question 189

According to the DMBoK, Data Governance is central to Data Management. In practical terms, what other functions of Data Management are required to ensure that your Data Governance programme is successful?

Options:

A.

Master Data, Data Quality, and Data Development

B.

Data Quality, Content and Document Management, and Data Development

C.

Data Modelling, Data Architecture and Master Data Management

D.

Data Quality, Data Architecture, and Metadata Management

E.

Data Architecture, Data Security, and Metadata Management

Question 190

Examples of transformation include:

Options:

A.

Format changes, structure changes, replication conversion, re-duplication anddata ordering

B.

Application changes, infrastructure changes, software conversion, de-duplicationand re-ordering

C.

Data modelling changes, structure changes, metric conversion, de-duplicationand reordering

D.

Format changes, structure changes, semantic conversion, de-duplication and re-ordering

E.

Organisation changes, location changes, business strategy conversion, down-sizing and outsourcing

Question 191

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Stewardship

C.

Authority

D.

Ownership

E.

Exclusivity

F.

Inclusivity

Question 192

The advantage of a decentralised Data Governance model over a centralised model is:

Options:

A.

An increased level of ownership from local decision making groups

B.

The cheaper execution of Data Governance operations

C.

Having a common approach to resolving Data Governance issues

D.

The common metadata repository configurations

E.

The easier implementation of industry data models

Question 193

A synonym for transformation in ETL is mapping. Mapping is the process of developing the lookup matrix from source to target structures, but not the result of the process.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 194

How can the Data Governance process in an organisation best support the requirements of various Regulatory reporting needs?

Options:

A.

By creating a map of where the enterprise data is located in IT systems.

B.

By providing a Business Glossary based look up facility for data definitions.

C.

By ensuring that data is properly categorized, owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

D.

By highlighting the challenges of multiple data definitions within the enterprise

E.

By performing an as-is data audit

Question 195

To mitigate risks, implement a network-based audit appliance, which can address most of the weaknesses associated with the native audit tools. This kind of appliance has the following benefits:

Options:

A.

Granular transaction tracking

B.

High performance

C.

Transaction time

D.

Separation of duties

Question 196

Your organization has many employees with official roles as data stewards and data custodians, but they don't seem to know exactly what they're supposed to be doing. Which of the following is most likely to be a root cause of this problem?

Options:

A.

There has been too much investment in Data Governance and data management tools without improving the data

B.

The people who were new to the organization were assigned to Data Governance

C.

People were assigned roles based on a somewhat random connection to the data, and without a clear purpose

D.

The Data Governance initiative leaders are using outdated vocabulary

E.

The data standards are too general and high level for proper enforcement

Question 197

Data parsing is the process of analysing data using pre-determined rules to define its content or value.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

Question 198

Typically, DW/BI have three concurrent development tracks:

Options:

A.

Data mart

B.

Business Intelligence tools

C.

Data

D.

System development

E.

Techonology

F.

None of the above

Question 199

The 'Data Governance Steering Committee' is best described as:

Options:

A.

The community of interest, focused on specific subject areas or projects

B.

A burden to the agile delivery in a modern enterprise

C.

The local or divisional council, working under auspices of the CDO

D.

The representatives of data use on project steering committees

E.

The primary and highest authority responsible for the oversight and support of Data Governance activities

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Total 666 questions