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ECCouncil 712-50 Dumps

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Total 494 questions

EC-Council Certified CISO (CCISO) Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following conditions would be the MOST probable reason for a security project to be rejected by the executive board of an organization?

Options:

A.

The Net Present Value (NPV) of the project is positive

B.

The NPV of the project is negative

C.

The Return on Investment (ROI) is larger than 10 months

D.

The ROI is lower than 10 months

Question 2

Which of the following is used to lure attackers into false environments so they can be monitored, contained, or blocked from reaching critical systems?

Options:

A.

Segmentation controls.

B.

Shadow applications.

C.

Deception technology.

D.

Vulnerability management.

Question 3

A CISO decides to analyze the IT infrastructure to ensure security solutions adhere to the concepts of how

hardware and software is implemented and managed within the organization. Which of the following principles

does this best demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Effective use of existing technologies

B.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

C.

Proper budget management

D.

Leveraging existing implementations

Question 4

Bob waits near a secured door, holding a box. He waits until an employee walks up to the secured door and

uses the special card in order to access the restricted area of the target company. Just as the employee opens

the door, Bob walks up to the employee (still holding the box) and asks the employee to hold the door open so

that he can enter. What is the best way to undermine the social engineering activity of tailgating?

Options:

A.

Post a sign that states, “no tailgating” next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

B.

Issue special cards to access secure doors at the company and provide a one-time only brief description of

use of the special card

C.

Educate and enforce physical security policies of the company to all the employees on a regular basis

D.

Setup a mock video camera next to the special card reader adjacent to the secure door

Question 5

Scenario: As you begin to develop the program for your organization, you assess the corporate culture and determine that there is a pervasive opinion that the security program only slows things down and limits the performance of the “real workers.”

What must you do first in order to shift the prevailing opinion and reshape corporate culture to understand the value of information security to the organization?

Options:

A.

Cite compliance with laws, statutes, and regulations – explaining the financial implications for the company for non-compliance

B.

Understand the business and focus your efforts on enabling operations securely

C.

Draw from your experience and recount stories of how other companies have been compromised

D.

Cite corporate policy and insist on compliance with audit findings

Question 6

Which of the following best describes the sensors designed to project and detect a light beam across an area?

Options:

A.

Smoke

B.

Thermal

C.

Air-aspirating

D.

Photo electric

Question 7

When creating contractual agreements and procurement processes why should security requirements be included?

Options:

A.

To make sure they are added on after the process is completed

B.

To make sure the costs of security is included and understood

C.

To make sure the security process aligns with the vendor’s security process

D.

To make sure the patching process is included with the costs

Question 8

Scenario: You are the newly hired Chief Information Security Officer for a company that has not previously had a senior level security practitioner. The company lacks a defined security policy and framework for their Information Security Program. Your new boss, the Chief Financial Officer, has asked you to draft an outline of a security policy and recommend an industry/sector neutral information security control framework for implementation.

Your Corporate Information Security Policy should include which of the following?

Options:

A.

Information security theory

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Incident response contacts

D.

Desktop configuration standards

Question 9

The process to evaluate the technical and non-technical security controls of an IT system to validate that a given design and implementation meet a specific set of security requirements is called

Options:

A.

Security certification

B.

Security system analysis

C.

Security accreditation

D.

Alignment with business practices and goals.

Question 10

Which of the following best describes a portfolio?

Options:

A.

The portfolio is used to manage and track individual projects

B.

The portfolio is used to manage incidents and events

C.

A portfolio typically consists of several programs

D.

A portfolio delivers one specific service or program to the business

Question 11

Scenario: You are the CISO and have just completed your first risk assessment for your organization. You find many risks with no security controls, and some risks with inadequate controls. You assign work to your staff to create or adjust existing security controls to ensure they are adequate for risk mitigation needs.

You have identified potential solutions for all of your risks that do not have security controls. What is the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Get approval from the board of directors

B.

Screen potential vendor solutions

C.

Verify that the cost of mitigation is less than the risk

D.

Create a risk metrics for all unmitigated risks

Question 12

A consultant is hired to do physical penetration testing at a large financial company. In the first day of his

assessment, the consultant goes to the company’s building dressed like an electrician and waits in the lobby for

an employee to pass through the main access gate, then the consultant follows the employee behind to get into

the restricted area. Which type of attack did the consultant perform?

Options:

A.

Shoulder surfing

B.

Tailgating

C.

Social engineering

D.

Mantrap

Question 13

Scenario: Your organization employs single sign-on (user name and password only) as a convenience to your employees to access organizational systems and data. Permission to individual systems and databases is vetted and approved through supervisors and data owners to ensure that only approved personnel can use particular applications or retrieve information. All employees have access to their own human resource information, including the ability to change their bank routing and account information and other personal details through the Employee Self-Service application. All employees have access to the organizational VPN.

Recently, members of your organization have been targeted through a number of sophisticated phishing attempts and have compromised their system credentials. What action can you take to prevent the misuse of compromised credentials to change bank account information from outside your organization while still allowing employees to manage their bank information?

Options:

A.

Turn off VPN access for users originating from outside the country

B.

Enable monitoring on the VPN for suspicious activity

C.

Force a change of all passwords

D.

Block access to the Employee-Self Service application via VPN

Question 14

Simon had all his systems administrators implement hardware and software firewalls to ensure network

security. They implemented IDS/IPS systems throughout the network to check for and stop any unauthorized

traffic that may attempt to enter. Although Simon and his administrators believed they were secure, a hacker

group was able to get into the network and modify files hosted on the company's website. After searching

through the firewall and server logs, no one could find how the attackers were able to get in. He decides that

the entire network needs to be monitored for critical and essential file changes. This monitoring tool alerts

administrators when a critical file is altered. What tool could Simon and his administrators implement to

accomplish this?

Options:

A.

They need to use Nessus.

B.

They can implement Wireshark.

C.

Snort is the best tool for their situation.

D.

They could use Tripwire.

Question 15

A CISO wants to change the defense strategy to ward off attackers. To accomplish this the CISO is looking to a strategy where attackers are lured into a zone of a safe network where attackers can be monitored, controlled, quarantined, or eradicated.

Options:

A.

Moderate investment

B.

Passive monitoring

C.

Integrated security controls

D.

Dynamic deception

Question 16

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Lack of risk management process

B.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

C.

IT security centric agenda

D.

Compliance centric agenda

Question 17

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

During initial investigation, the team suspects criminal activity but cannot initially prove or disprove illegal actions. What is the MOST critical aspect of the team’s activities?

Options:

A.

Regular communication of incident status to executives

B.

Eradication of malware and system restoration

C.

Determination of the attack source

D.

Preservation of information

Question 18

SCENARIO: Critical servers show signs of erratic behavior within your organization’s intranet. Initial information indicates the systems are under attack from an outside entity. As the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO), you decide to deploy the Incident Response Team (IRT) to determine the details of this incident and take action according to the information available to the team.

What phase of the response provides measures to reduce the likelihood of an incident from recurring?

Options:

A.

Response

B.

Investigation

C.

Recovery

D.

Follow-up

Question 19

Scenario: The new CISO was informed of all the Information Security projects that the section has in progress. Two projects are over a year behind schedule and way over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management, you determine that the project correctly aligns with the organization goals. What should be verified next?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Budget

C.

Resources

D.

Constraints

Question 20

You are just hired as the new CISO and are being briefed on all the Information Security projects that your section has on going. You discover that most projects are behind schedule and over budget.

Using the best business practices for project management you determine that the project correct aligns with the company goals. What needs to be verified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Scope of the project

B.

Training of the personnel on the project

C.

Timeline of the project milestones

D.

Vendor for the project

Question 21

As the Business Continuity Coordinator of a financial services organization, you are responsible for ensuring assets are recovered timely in the event of a disaster. Which is the BEST Disaster Recovery performance indicator to validate that you are prepared for a disaster?

Options:

A.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

B.

Disaster Recovery Plan

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Business Continuity Plan

Question 22

Which of the following provides an independent assessment of a vendor’s internal security controls and overall posture?

Options:

A.

Alignment with business goals

B.

ISO27000 accreditation

C.

PCI attestation of compliance

D.

Financial statements

Question 23

File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is considered a

Options:

A.

Network based security preventative control

B.

Software segmentation control

C.

Security detective control

D.

User segmentation control

Question 24

Scenario: An organization has made a decision to address Information Security formally and consistently by adopting established best practices and industry standards. The organization is a small retail merchant but it is expected to grow to a global customer base of many millions of customers in just a few years.

The organization has already been subject to a significant amount of credit card fraud. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this fraud?

Options:

A.

Lack of compliance to the Payment Card Industry (PCI) standards

B.

Ineffective security awareness program

C.

Security practices not in alignment with ISO 27000 frameworks

D.

Lack of technical controls when dealing with credit card data

Question 25

What is meant by password aging?

Options:

A.

An expiration date set for passwords

B.

A Single Sign-On requirement

C.

Time in seconds a user is allocated to change a password

D.

The amount of time it takes for a password to activate

Question 26

SCENARIO: A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) recently had a third party conduct an audit of the security program. Internal policies and international standards were used as audit baselines. The audit report was presented to the CISO and a variety of high, medium and low rated gaps were identified.

After determining the audit findings are accurate, which of the following is the MOST logical next activity?

Options:

A.

Begin initial gap remediation analyses

B.

Review the security organization’s charter

C.

Validate gaps with the Information Technology team

D.

Create a briefing of the findings for executive management

Question 27

Which of the following is the MOST logical method of deploying security controls within an organization?

Options:

A.

Obtain funding for all desired controls and then create project plans for implementation

B.

Apply the simpler controls as quickly as possible and use a risk-based approach for the more difficult and

costly controls

C.

Apply the least costly controls to demonstrate positive program activity

D.

Obtain business unit buy-in through close communication and coordination

Question 28

What are the three stages of an identity and access management system?

Options:

A.

Authentication, Authorize, Validation

B.

Provision, Administration, Enforcement

C.

Administration, Validation, Protect

D.

Provision, Administration, Authentication

Question 29

Scenario: An organization has recently appointed a CISO. This is a new role in the organization and it signals

the increasing need to address security consistently at the enterprise level. This new CISO, while confident with

skills and experience, is constantly on the defensive and is unable to advance the IT security centric agenda.

From an Information Security Leadership perspective, which of the following is a MAJOR concern about the

CISO’s approach to security?

Options:

A.

Compliance centric agenda

B.

IT security centric agenda

C.

Lack of risk management process

D.

Lack of sponsorship from executive management

Question 30

Which type of physical security control scan a person’s external features through a digital video camera before

granting access to a restricted area?

Options:

A.

Iris scan

B.

Retinal scan

C.

Facial recognition scan

D.

Signature kinetics scan

Question 31

The process of identifying and classifying assets is typically included in the

Options:

A.

Threat analysis process

B.

Asset configuration management process

C.

Business Impact Analysis

D.

Disaster Recovery plan

Question 32

Which of the following is a symmetric encryption algorithm?

Options:

A.

3DES

B.

MD5

C.

ECC

D.

RSA

Question 33

What is the FIRST step in developing the vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Baseline the Environment

B.

Maintain and Monitor

C.

Organization Vulnerability

D.

Define Policy

Question 34

What type of attack requires the least amount of technical equipment and has the highest success rate?

Options:

A.

War driving

B.

Operating system attacks

C.

Social engineering

D.

Shrink wrap attack

Question 35

Which of the following is the MAIN security concern for public cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Unable to control physical access to the servers

B.

Unable to track log on activity

C.

Unable to run anti-virus scans

D.

Unable to patch systems as needed

Question 36

Which of the following statements about Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP) is true?

Options:

A.

It is an IPSec protocol.

B.

It is a text-based communication protocol.

C.

It uses TCP port 22 as the default port and operates at the application layer.

D.

It uses UDP port 22

Question 37

Your penetration testing team installs an in-line hardware key logger onto one of your network machines. Which of the following is of major concern to the security organization?

Options:

A.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t require physical access

B.

In-line hardware keyloggers don’t comply to industry regulations

C.

In-line hardware keyloggers are undetectable by software

D.

In-line hardware keyloggers are relatively inexpensive

Question 38

Physical security measures typically include which of the following components?

Options:

A.

Physical, Technical, Operational

B.

Technical, Strong Password, Operational

C.

Operational, Biometric, Physical

D.

Strong password, Biometric, Common Access Card

Question 39

SQL injection is a very popular and successful injection attack method. Identify the basic SQL injection text:

Options:

A.

‘ o 1=1 - -

B.

/../../../../

C.

“DROPTABLE USERNAME”

D.

NOPS

Question 40

An anonymity network is a series of?

Options:

A.

Covert government networks

B.

War driving maps

C.

Government networks in Tora

D.

Virtual network tunnels

Question 41

Security related breaches are assessed and contained through which of the following?

Options:

A.

The IT support team.

B.

A forensic analysis.

C.

Incident response

D.

Physical security team.

Question 42

One of your executives needs to send an important and confidential email. You want to ensure that the message cannot be read by anyone but the recipient. Which of the following keys should be used to encrypt the message?

Options:

A.

Your public key

B.

The recipient's private key

C.

The recipient's public key

D.

Certificate authority key

Question 43

Which of the following is MOST important when tuning an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Options:

A.

Trusted and untrusted networks

B.

Type of authentication

C.

Storage encryption

D.

Log retention

Question 44

The process of creating a system which divides documents based on their security level to manage access to private data is known as

Options:

A.

security coding

B.

data security system

C.

data classification

D.

privacy protection

Question 45

The process for identifying, collecting, and producing digital information in support of legal proceedings is called

Options:

A.

chain of custody.

B.

electronic discovery.

C.

evidence tampering.

D.

electronic review.

Question 46

Network Forensics is the prerequisite for any successful legal action after attacks on your Enterprise Network. Which is the single most important factor to introducing digital evidence into a court of law?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive Log-Files from all servers and network devices affected during the attack

B.

Fully trained network forensic experts to analyze all data right after the attack

C.

Uninterrupted Chain of Custody

D.

Expert forensics witness

Question 47

Your organization provides open guest wireless access with no captive portals. What can you do to assist with law enforcement investigations if one of your guests is suspected of committing an illegal act using your network?

Options:

A.

Configure logging on each access point

B.

Install a firewall software on each wireless access point.

C.

Provide IP and MAC address

D.

Disable SSID Broadcast and enable MAC address filtering on all wireless access points.

Question 48

Which wireless encryption technology makes use of temporal keys?

Options:

A.

Wireless Application Protocol (WAP)

B.

Wifi Protected Access version 2 (WPA2)

C.

Wireless Equivalence Protocol (WEP)

D.

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

Question 49

Which of the following backup sites takes the longest recovery time?

Options:

A.

Cold site

B.

Hot site

C.

Warm site

D.

Mobile backup site

Question 50

Which of the following is a countermeasure to prevent unauthorized database access from web applications?

Options:

A.

Session encryption

B.

Removing all stored procedures

C.

Input sanitization

D.

Library control

Question 51

An access point (AP) is discovered using Wireless Equivalent Protocol (WEP). The ciphertext sent by the AP is encrypted with the same key and cipher used by its stations. What authentication method is being used?

Options:

A.

Shared key

B.

Asynchronous

C.

Open

D.

None

Question 52

A customer of a bank has placed a dispute on a payment for a credit card account. The banking system uses digital signatures to safeguard the integrity of their transactions. The bank claims that the system shows proof that the customer in fact made the payment. What is this system capability commonly known as?

Options:

A.

non-repudiation

B.

conflict resolution

C.

strong authentication

D.

digital rights management

Question 53

You are having a penetration test done on your company network and the leader of the team says they discovered all the network devices because no one had changed the Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) community strings from the defaults. Which of the following is a default community string?

Options:

A.

Execute

B.

Read

C.

Administrator

D.

Public

Question 54

As a CISO you need to understand the steps that are used to perform an attack against a network. Put each step into the correct order.

1.Covering tracks

2.Scanning and enumeration

3.Maintaining Access

4.Reconnaissance

5.Gaining Access

Options:

A.

4, 2, 5, 3, 1

B.

2, 5, 3, 1, 4

C.

4, 5, 2, 3, 1

D.

4, 3, 5, 2, 1

Question 55

The general ledger setup function in an enterprise resource package allows for setting accounting periods. Access to this function has been permitted to users in finance, the shipping department, and production scheduling. What is the most likely reason for such broad access?

Options:

A.

The need to change accounting periods on a regular basis.

B.

The requirement to post entries for a closed accounting period.

C.

The need to create and modify the chart of accounts and its allocations.

D.

The lack of policies and procedures for the proper segregation of duties.

Question 56

Your incident handling manager detects a virus attack in the network of your company. You develop a signature based on the characteristics of the detected virus. Which of the following phases in the incident handling process will utilize the signature to resolve this incident?

Options:

A.

Containment

B.

Recovery

C.

Identification

D.

Eradication

Question 57

While designing a secondary data center for your company what document needs to be analyzed to determine to how much should be spent on building the data center?

Options:

A.

Enterprise Risk Assessment

B.

Disaster recovery strategic plan

C.

Business continuity plan

D.

Application mapping document

Question 58

The ability to hold intruders accountable in a court of law is important. Which of the following activities are needed to ensure the highest possibility for successful prosecution?

Options:

A.

Well established and defined digital forensics process

B.

Establishing Enterprise-owned Botnets for preemptive attacks

C.

Be able to retaliate under the framework of Active Defense

D.

Collaboration with law enforcement

Question 59

In terms of supporting a forensic investigation, it is now imperative that managers, first-responders, etc., accomplish the following actions to the computer under investigation:

Options:

A.

Secure the area and shut-down the computer until investigators arrive

B.

Secure the area and attempt to maintain power until investigators arrive

C.

Immediately place hard drive and other components in an anti-static bag

D.

Secure the area.

Question 60

What is the term describing the act of inspecting all real-time Internet traffic (i.e., packets) traversing a major Internet backbone without introducing any apparent latency?

Options:

A.

Traffic Analysis

B.

Deep-Packet inspection

C.

Packet sampling

D.

Heuristic analysis

Question 61

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) requires an agreement between Cloud Service Providers (CCSP) and the covered entity. Based on HIPAA. which document must be completed between the covered entity and the CCSP?

Options:

A.

Business Associate Agreement (BAA]

B.

Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

Interconnection Security Agreement (ISA)

Question 62

Which of the following is the MOST effective method to counter phishing attacks?

Options:

A.

User awareness and training

B.

Host based Intrusion Detection System (IPS)

C.

Acceptable use guide signed by all system users

D.

Antispam solution

Question 63

Which of the following strategies provides the BEST response to a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Real-time off-site replication

B.

Daily incremental backup

C.

Daily full backup

D.

Daily differential backup

Question 64

An auditor is reviewing the security classifications for a group of assets and finds that many of the assets are not correctly classified.

What should the auditor’s NEXT step be?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify the board of directors of the organization as to the finding

B.

Correct the classifications immediately based on the auditor’s knowledge of the proper classification

C.

Document the missing classifications

D.

Identify the owner of the asset and induce the owner to apply a proper classification

Question 65

The primary responsibility for assigning entitlements to a network share lies with which role?

Options:

A.

CISO

B.

Data owner

C.

Chief Information Officer (CIO)

D.

Security system administrator

Question 66

When performing a forensic investigation, what are the two MOST common data sources for obtaining evidence from a computer and mobile devices?

Options:

A.

RAM and unallocated space

B.

Unallocated space and RAM

C.

Slack space and browser cache

D.

Persistent and volatile data

Question 67

While Cost Benefit Analysis (CBA) is the easiest calculation among financial tools, what is its main weakness?

Options:

A.

it is not effective for smaller investments

B.

It is not accepted by many accounting rules

C.

lt is the least precise

D.

positive result is an indication that the effort should be pursued

Question 68

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to secure the physical hardware hosts in a virtualized environment?

Options:

A.

Apply existing information security controls

B.

Apply virtualized controls to the physical host

C.

Secure the virtualized platform

D.

Secure the virtualized workload

Question 69

Optical biometric recognition such as retina scanning provides access to facilities through reading the unique characteristics of a person’s eye.

However, authorization failures can occur with individuals who have?

Options:

A.

Glaucoma or cataracts

B.

Two different colored eyes (heterochromia iridium)

C.

Contact lens

D.

Malaria

Question 70

What is an example of a key performance indicator for cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Percentage of product defects that negatively impact the security posture of the system

B.

Year over year comparison of organizational cybersecurity incidents

C.

Mean the to repair (MTTR)

D.

NetFlow data

Question 71

Many successful cyber-attacks currently include:

Options:

A.

Phishing Attacks

B.

Misconfigurations

C.

All of these

D.

Social engineering

Question 72

What is the MAIN responsibility of the purple security testing team?

Options:

A.

They emulate hackers to compromise systems

B.

The integrate the defensive Indies and controls from the Blue Team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the Red Team

C.

They defend against simulated hacker attacks

D.

They oversee security testing and results

Question 73

What is the purpose of the statement of retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

It represents the sum of all capital expenditures

B.

It represents the percentage of earnings that could in part be used to finance future security controls

C.

It represents the savings generated by the proper acquisition and implementation of security controls

D.

It has a direct correlation with the CISO’s budget

Question 74

Devising controls for information security is a balance between?

Options:

A.

Governance and compliance

B.

Auditing and security

C.

Budget and risk tolerance

D.

Threats and vulnerabilities

Question 75

What are the four groups that are critical to the success of evaluating and approving contracts during the negotiation phase?

Options:

A.

Legal, Finance, executives, users

B.

Legal, security, executives, users

C.

Security, executives, users, operations

D.

Security, users, legal, marketing

Question 76

What Enterprise Architecture Framework is business-centric and is composed of eight phases?

Options:

A.

Federal Enterprise Architecture

B.

The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)

C.

Zochman

D.

Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture

Question 77

The Board of Directors of a publicly-traded company is concerned about the security implications of a strategic project that will migrate 50% of the organization’s information technology assets to the cloud. They have requested a briefing on the project plan and a progress report of the security stream of the project. As the CISO, you have been tasked with preparing the report for the Chief Executive Officer to present.

Using the Earned Value Management (EVM), what does a Cost Variance (CV) of -1,200 mean?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget

B.

The project budget has reserves

C.

The project cost is in alignment with the budget

D.

The project is under budget

Question 78

The governing body that defines best practices for the collection of digital evidence is the:

Options:

A.

European Union (EU)

B.

National Institute of Standards and Technology (NI5T)

C.

Scientific Working Croup on Digital evidence (5WGDE)

D.

department of Defense (DoD)

Question 79

During a cyber incident, which non-security personnel might be needed to assist the security team?

Options:

A.

Threat analyst, IT auditor, forensic analyst

B.

Network engineer, help desk technician, system administrator

C.

CIO, CFO, CSO

D.

Financial analyst, payroll clerk, HR manager

Question 80

Effective information security management programs require the active involvement of_________

Options:

A.

ClOS

B.

All employees

C.

Security Managers

D.

Executives

Question 81

Which publication serves as a resource of enterprise security-based standards and BEST practices?

Options:

A.

NIS Standard Publication 800-53 R5

B.

HIPAA

C.

ISO 27004

D.

PCI DSS

Question 82

A Security Operations Manager is finding it difficult to maintain adequate staff levels to monitor security operations during off-hours. To reduce the impact of staff shortages and increase coverage during off-hours, the SecOps manager is considering outsourcing off-hour coverage.

What Security Operations Center (SOC) model does this BEST describe?

Options:

A.

Virtual SOC

B.

In-house SOC

C.

Security Network Operations Center (SNOC)

D.

Hybrid SOC

Question 83

What is the primary difference between regulations and standards?

Options:

A.

Standards will include regulations

B.

Standards that aren’t followed are punishable by fines

C.

Regulations are made enforceable by the power provided by laws

D.

Regulations must be reviewed and approved by the business

Question 84

When developing the Business Impact Assessment (BIA), which of the following MOST closely relates to data backup and restoration?

Options:

A.

Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD)

B.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

C.

Mean Time to Del very >MTD)

D.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 85

What are the common data hiding techniques used by criminals?

Options:

A.

Unallocated space and masking

B.

Website defacement and log manipulation

C.

Disabled Logging and admin elevation

D.

Encryption, Steganography, and Changing Metadata/Timestamps

Question 86

Which security technologies are MOST critical to implementing a zero trust model?

Options:

A.

Firewalls, IPS, WAF

B.

DLP, SIFM, IP5

C.

ACLs, secure gateways, IPS

D.

MFA, IAM, Endpoint Security

Question 87

An organization has decided to develop an in-house BCM capability. The organization has determined it is best to follow a BCM standard published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

The BEST ISO standard to follow that outlines the complete lifecycle of BCM is?

Options:

A.

ISO 22318 Supply Chain Continuity

B.

ISO 27031 BCM Readiness

C.

ISO 22301 BCM Requirements

D.

ISO 22317 BIA

Question 88

To reduce the threat of spear phishing, which of the following is the MOST critical security control to implement?

Options:

A.

Security awareness and training

B.

Firewall

C.

Data loss prevention

D.

Antivirus

Question 89

Which of the following refers to the quantity or quality of project deliverables expanding from the original project plan?

Options:

A.

Deliverable expansion

B.

Scope creep

C.

Deadline extension

D.

Scope modification

Question 90

A Security Operations (SecOps) Manager is considering implementing threat hunting to be able to make better decisions on protecting information and assets.

What is the MAIN goal of threat hunting to the SecOps Manager?

Options:

A.

Improve discovery of valid detected events

B.

Enhance tuning of automated tools to detect and prevent attacks

C.

Replace existing threat detection strategies

D.

Validate patterns of behavior related to an attack

Question 91

What should an organization do to ensure that they have a sound Business Continuity (BC) Plan?

Options:

A.

Test every three years to ensure that things work as planned

B.

Conduct periodic tabletop exercises to refine the BC plan

C.

Outsource the creation and execution of the BC plan to a third party vendor

D.

Conduct a Disaster Recovery (DR) exercise every year to test the plan

Question 92

The framework that helps to define a minimum standard of protection that business stakeholders must attempt to achieve is referred to as a standard of:

Options:

A.

Due Protection

B.

Due Care

C.

Due Compromise

D.

Due process

Question 93

An information security department is required to remediate system vulnerabilities when they are discovered. Please select the three primary remediation methods that can be used on an affected system.

Options:

A.

Install software patch, Operate system, Maintain system

B.

Discover software, Remove affected software, Apply software patch

C.

Install software patch, configuration adjustment, Software Removal

D.

Software removal, install software patch, maintain system

Question 94

Which of the following is the MAIN reason to follow a formal risk management process in an organization that hosts and uses privately identifiable information (PII) as part of their business models and processes?

Options:

A.

Need to comply with breach disclosure laws

B.

Need to transfer the risk associated with hosting PII data

C.

Need to better understand the risk associated with using PII data

D.

Fiduciary responsibility to safeguard credit card information

Question 95

As a new CISO at a large healthcare company you are told that everyone has to badge in to get in the building. Below your office window you notice a door that is normally propped open during the day for groups of people to take breaks outside. Upon looking closer you see there is no badge reader. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Nothing, this falls outside your area of influence.

B.

Close and chain the door shut and send a company-wide memo banning the practice.

C.

Have a risk assessment performed.

D.

Post a guard at the door to maintain physical security

Question 96

Which International Organization for Standardization (ISO) below BEST describes the performance of risk management, and includes a five-stage risk management methodology.

Options:

A.

ISO 27001

B.

ISO 27002

C.

ISO 27004

D.

ISO 27005

Question 97

The patching and monitoring of systems on a consistent schedule is required by?

Options:

A.

Local privacy laws

B.

Industry best practices

C.

Risk Management frameworks

D.

Audit best practices

Question 98

Which of the following is MOST important when dealing with an Information Security Steering committee:

Options:

A.

Include a mix of members from different departments and staff levels.

B.

Ensure that security policies and procedures have been vetted and approved.

C.

Review all past audit and compliance reports.

D.

Be briefed about new trends and products at each meeting by a vendor.

Question 99

The executive board has requested that the CISO of an organization define and Key Performance Indicators (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security awareness program provided to call center employees. Which of the following can be used as a KPI?

Options:

A.

Number of callers who report security issues.

B.

Number of callers who report a lack of customer service from the call center

C.

Number of successful social engineering attempts on the call center

D.

Number of callers who abandon the call before speaking with a representative

Question 100

Which of the following is a weakness of an asset or group of assets that can be exploited by one or more threats?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Attack vector

D.

Exploitation

Question 101

Risk is defined as:

Options:

A.

Threat times vulnerability divided by control

B.

Advisory plus capability plus vulnerability

C.

Asset loss times likelihood of event

D.

Quantitative plus qualitative impact

Question 102

Which of the following are the MOST important factors for proactively determining system vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Subscribe to vendor mailing list to get notification of system vulnerabilities

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection System (IDS) and install anti-virus on systems

C.

Configure firewall, perimeter router and Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Conduct security testing, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing

Question 103

If your organization operates under a model of "assumption of breach", you should:

Options:

A.

Protect all information resource assets equally

B.

Establish active firewall monitoring protocols

C.

Purchase insurance for your compliance liability

D.

Focus your security efforts on high value assets

Question 104

The implementation of anti-malware and anti-phishing controls on centralized email servers is an example of what type of security control?

Options:

A.

Organization control

B.

Procedural control

C.

Management control

D.

Technical control

Question 105

Which of the following international standards can be BEST used to define a Risk Management process in an organization?

Options:

A.

National Institute for Standards and Technology 800-50 (NIST 800-50)

B.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27005 (ISO-27005)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI-DSS)

D.

International Organization for Standardizations – 27004 (ISO-27004)

Question 106

Ensuring that the actions of a set of people, applications and systems follow the organization’s rules is BEST described as:

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Security management

C.

Mitigation management

D.

Compliance management

Question 107

What is the definition of Risk in Information Security?

Options:

A.

Risk = Probability x Impact

B.

Risk = Threat x Probability

C.

Risk = Financial Impact x Probability

D.

Risk = Impact x Threat

Question 108

You have purchased a new insurance policy as part of your risk strategy. Which of the following risk strategy options have you engaged in?

Options:

A.

Risk Avoidance

B.

Risk Acceptance

C.

Risk Transfer

D.

Risk Mitigation

Question 109

Which of the following activities results in change requests?

Options:

A.

Preventive actions

B.

Inspection

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective actions

Question 110

An organization licenses and uses personal information for business operations, and a server containing that information has been compromised. What kind of law would require notifying the owner or licensee of this incident?

Options:

A.

Data breach disclosure

B.

Consumer right disclosure

C.

Security incident disclosure

D.

Special circumstance disclosure

Question 111

A new CISO just started with a company and on the CISO's desk is the last complete Information Security Management audit report. The audit report is over two years old. After reading it, what should be the CISO's FIRST priority?

Options:

A.

Have internal audit conduct another audit to see what has changed.

B.

Contract with an external audit company to conduct an unbiased audit

C.

Review the recommendations and follow up to see if audit implemented the changes

D.

Meet with audit team to determine a timeline for corrections

Question 112

When a critical vulnerability has been discovered on production systems and needs to be fixed immediately, what is the BEST approach for a CISO to mitigate the vulnerability under tight budget constraints?

Options:

A.

Transfer financial resources from other critical programs

B.

Take the system off line until the budget is available

C.

Deploy countermeasures and compensating controls until the budget is available

D.

Schedule an emergency meeting and request the funding to fix the issue

Question 113

In accordance with best practices and international standards, how often is security awareness training provided to employees of an organization?

Options:

A.

High risk environments 6 months, low risk environments 12 months

B.

Every 12 months

C.

Every 18 months

D.

Every six months

Question 114

According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) SP 800-40, which of the following considerations are MOST important when creating a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Susceptibility to attack, mitigation response time, and cost

B.

Attack vectors, controls cost, and investigation staffing needs

C.

Vulnerability exploitation, attack recovery, and mean time to repair

D.

Susceptibility to attack, expected duration of attack, and mitigation availability

Question 115

An organization has defined a set of standard security controls. This organization has also defined the circumstances and conditions in which they must be applied. What is the NEXT logical step in applying the controls in the organization?

Options:

A.

Determine the risk tolerance

B.

Perform an asset classification

C.

Create an architecture gap analysis

D.

Analyze existing controls on systems

Question 116

Which of the following set of processes is considered to be one of the cornerstone cycles of the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 standard?

Options:

A.

Plan-Check-Do-Act

B.

Plan-Do-Check-Act

C.

Plan-Select-Implement-Evaluate

D.

SCORE (Security Consensus Operational Readiness Evaluation)

Question 117

According to ISO 27001, of the steps for establishing an Information Security Governance program listed below, which comes first?

Options:

A.

Identify threats, risks, impacts and vulnerabilities

B.

Decide how to manage risk

C.

Define the budget of the Information Security Management System

D.

Define Information Security Policy

Question 118

When choosing a risk mitigation method what is the MOST important factor?

Options:

A.

Approval from the board of directors

B.

Cost of the mitigation is less than the risk

C.

Metrics of mitigation method success

D.

Mitigation method complies with PCI regulations

Question 119

A recent audit has identified a few control exceptions and is recommending the implementation of technology and processes to address the finding. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the organization to reject the implementation of the recommended technology and processes?

Options:

A.

The auditors have not followed proper auditing processes

B.

The CIO of the organization disagrees with the finding

C.

The risk tolerance of the organization permits this risk

D.

The organization has purchased cyber insurance

Question 120

The FIRST step in establishing a security governance program is to?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Obtain senior level sponsorship.

C.

Conduct a workshop for all end users.

D.

Prepare a security budget.

Question 121

Which of the following is MOST beneficial in determining an appropriate balance between uncontrolled innovation and excessive caution in an organization?

Options:

A.

Define the risk appetite

B.

Determine budget constraints

C.

Review project charters

D.

Collaborate security projects

Question 122

A recommended method to document the respective roles of groups and individuals for a given process is to:

Options:

A.

Develop a detailed internal organization chart

B.

Develop a telephone call tree for emergency response

C.

Develop an isolinear response matrix with cost benefit analysis projections

D.

Develop a Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed (RACI) chart

Question 123

A system was hardened at the Operating System level and placed into the production environment. Months later an audit was performed and it identified insecure configuration different from the original hardened state. Which of the following security issues is the MOST likely reason leading to the audit findings?

Options:

A.

Lack of asset management processes

B.

Lack of change management processes

C.

Lack of hardening standards

D.

Lack of proper access controls

Question 124

Which of the following functions evaluates risk present in IT initiatives and/or systems when implementing an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Management

B.

Risk Assessment

C.

System Testing

D.

Vulnerability Assessment

Question 125

The organization does not have the time to remediate the vulnerability; however it is critical to release the application. Which of the following needs to be further evaluated to help mitigate the risks?

Options:

A.

Provide developer security training

B.

Deploy Intrusion Detection Systems

C.

Provide security testing tools

D.

Implement Compensating Controls

Question 126

Which of the following represents the BEST method of ensuring security program alignment to business needs?

Options:

A.

Create a comprehensive security awareness program and provide success metrics to business units

B.

Create security consortiums, such as strategic security planning groups, that include business unit participation

C.

Ensure security implementations include business unit testing and functional validation prior to production rollout

D.

Ensure the organization has strong executive-level security representation through clear sponsorship or the creation of a CISO role

Question 127

The ultimate goal of an IT security projects is:

Options:

A.

Increase stock value

B.

Complete security

C.

Support business requirements

D.

Implement information security policies

Question 128

How often should the Statements of Standards for Attestation Engagements-16 (SSAE16)/International Standard on Assurance Engagements 3402 (ISAE3402) report of your vendors be reviewed?

Options:

A.

Quarterly

B.

Semi-annually

C.

Bi-annually

D.

Annually

Question 129

A newly appointed security officer finds data leakage software licenses that had never been used. The officer decides to implement a project to ensure it gets installed, but the project gets a great deal of resistance across the organization. Which of the following represents the MOST likely reason for this situation?

Options:

A.

The software license expiration is probably out of synchronization with other software licenses

B.

The project was initiated without an effort to get support from impacted business units in the organization

C.

The software is out of date and does not provide for a scalable solution across the enterprise

D.

The security officer should allow time for the organization to get accustomed to her presence before initiating security projects

Question 130

Which of the following represents the best method of ensuring business unit alignment with security program requirements?

Options:

A.

Provide clear communication of security requirements throughout the organization

B.

Demonstrate executive support with written mandates for security policy adherence

C.

Create collaborative risk management approaches within the organization

D.

Perform increased audits of security processes and procedures

Question 131

Risk appetite is typically determined by which of the following organizational functions?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Business units

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Audit and compliance

Question 132

The Security Operations Center (SOC) just purchased a new intrusion prevention system (IPS) that needs to be deployed in-line for best defense. The IT group is concerned about putting the new IPS in-line because it might negatively impact network availability. What would be the BEST approach for the CISO to reassure the IT group?

Options:

A.

Work with the IT group and tell them to put IPS in-line and say it won’t cause any network impact

B.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS won’t cause any network impact because it will fail open

C.

Explain to the IT group that this is a business need and the IPS will fail open however, if there is a network failure the CISO will accept responsibility

D.

Explain to the IT group that the IPS will fail open once in-line however it will be deployed in monitor mode for a set period of time to ensure that it doesn’t block any legitimate traffic

Question 133

Which of the following methods are used to define contractual obligations that force a vendor to meet customer expectations?

Options:

A.

Terms and Conditions

B.

Service Level Agreements (SLA)

C.

Statement of Work

D.

Key Performance Indicators (KPI)

Question 134

A stakeholder is a person or group:

Options:

A.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative regardless of budget implications.

B.

Vested in the success and/or failure of a project or initiative and is tied to the project budget.

C.

That has budget authority.

D.

That will ultimately use the system.

Question 135

To get an Information Security project back on schedule, which of the following will provide the MOST help?

Options:

A.

Upper management support

B.

More frequent project milestone meetings

C.

Stakeholder support

D.

Extend work hours

Question 136

This occurs when the quantity or quality of project deliverables is expanded from the original project plan.

Options:

A.

Scope creep

B.

Deadline extension

C.

Scope modification

D.

Deliverable expansion

Question 137

A person in your security team calls you at night and informs you that one of your web applications is potentially under attack from a cross-site scripting vulnerability. What do you do?

Options:

A.

tell him to shut down the server

B.

tell him to call the police

C.

tell him to invoke the incident response process

D.

tell him to analyze the problem, preserve the evidence and provide a full analysis and report

Question 138

When entering into a third party vendor agreement for security services, at what point in the process is it BEST to understand and validate the security posture and compliance level of the vendor?

Options:

A.

At the time the security services are being performed and the vendor needs access to the network

B.

Once the agreement has been signed and the security vendor states that they will need access to the network

C.

Once the vendor is on premise and before they perform security services

D.

Prior to signing the agreement and before any security services are being performed

Question 139

Which of the following is a major benefit of applying risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk management governance becomes easier since most risks remain low once mitigated

B.

Resources are not wasted on risks that are already managed to an acceptable level

C.

Risk budgets are more easily managed due to fewer identified risks as a result of using a methodology

D.

Risk appetite can increase within the organization once the levels are understood

Question 140

You currently cannot provide for 24/7 coverage of your security monitoring and incident response duties and your company is resistant to the idea of adding more full-time employees to the payroll. Which combination of solutions would help to provide the coverage needed without the addition of more dedicated staff? (choose the best answer):

Options:

A.

Deploy a SEIM solution and have current staff review incidents first thing in the morning

B.

Contract with a managed security provider and have current staff on recall for incident response

C.

Configure your syslog to send SMS messages to current staff when target events are triggered

D.

Employ an assumption of breach protocol and defend only essential information resources

Question 141

When selecting a security solution with reoccurring maintenance costs after the first year, the CISO should: (choose the BEST answer)

Options:

A.

The CISO should cut other essential programs to ensure the new solution’s continued use

B.

Communicate future operating costs to the CIO/CFO and seek commitment from them to ensure the new solution’s continued use

C.

Defer selection until the market improves and cash flow is positive

D.

Implement the solution and ask for the increased operating cost budget when it is time

Question 142

When operating under severe budget constraints a CISO will have to be creative to maintain a strong security organization. Which example below is the MOST creative way to maintain a strong security posture during these difficult times?

Options:

A.

Download open source security tools and deploy them on your production network

B.

Download trial versions of commercially available security tools and deploy on your production network

C.

Download open source security tools from a trusted site, test, and then deploy on production network

D.

Download security tools from a trusted source and deploy to production network

Question 143

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of a successful project?

Options:

A.

it is completed on time or early as compared to the baseline project plan

B.

it meets most of the specifications as outlined in the approved project definition

C.

it comes in at or below the expenditures planned for in the baseline budget

D.

the deliverables are accepted by the key stakeholders

Question 144

An example of professional unethical behavior is:

Options:

A.

Gaining access to an affiliated employee’s work email account as part of an officially sanctioned internal investigation

B.

Sharing copyrighted material with other members of a professional organization where all members have legitimate access to the material

C.

Copying documents from an employer’s server which you assert that you have an intellectual property claim to possess, but the company disputes

D.

Storing client lists and other sensitive corporate internal documents on a removable thumb drive

Question 145

Which of the following functions implements and oversees the use of controls to reduce risk when creating an information security program?

Options:

A.

Risk Assessment

B.

Incident Response

C.

Risk Management

D.

Network Security administration

Question 146

When gathering security requirements for an automated business process improvement program, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Type of data contained in the process/system

B.

Type of connection/protocol used to transfer the data

C.

Type of encryption required for the data once it is at rest

D.

Type of computer the data is processed on

Question 147

Which of the following is considered a project versus a managed process?

Options:

A.

monitoring external and internal environment during incident response

B.

ongoing risk assessments of routine operations

C.

continuous vulnerability assessment and vulnerability repair

D.

installation of a new firewall system

Question 148

A severe security threat has been detected on your corporate network. As CISO you quickly assemble key members of the Information Technology team and business operations to determine a modification to security controls in response to the threat. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Change management

B.

Business continuity planning

C.

Security Incident Response

D.

Thought leadership

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Total 494 questions