Fortinet FCSS_NST_SE-7.6 Dumps

For Option A:In Fortinet BGP (and standard BGP), when a prefix is displayed with an " i " (lowercase i) in the Path column, it represents an internal prefix that originated from the local router, typically configured via the BGP " network " command. In the exhibit, the prefix 10.20.30.0/24 is listed with a Path value of i, indicating it was injected into BGP by the local router using the network statement, not via redistribution from another routing protocol. The same logic applies to i as documented: " Origin code ' i ' means the route was injected via the network command. "

For Option D:The get router info bgp network output is a summary table displaying both local and received BGP routes. It lists all known routes to the BGP process, whether received from peers or originated locally. The exhibit shows all BGP prefixes known to the local router, matching the official admin guide’s description of this command’s output.

Explanation for B and C:

The phrase “legacy route advertisement” is not formalized in BGP documentation or Fortinet’s admin guide; the output uses standard BGP mechanics.

If a route was redistributed into BGP from another routing protocol, the Path field would display a " ? " (question mark) for incomplete (redistributed) origin. Here the /24 route has " i " so it is NOT a redistribution.

The correct answer is C. 64.26.151.37 .

The study guide explains the FortiGuard flags shown by diagnose debug rating:

D = Default

I = Initial

T = Timing

F = Failed and specifically: “F = The server is down”

So even though 121.111.236.179 has the lowest RTT in the exhibit, it has the F flag, meaning FortiGate considers that server failed/down , so it will not be chosen.

To determine which active server is selected, the FortiOS administration guide states:

“The server list is sorted first by weight. The server with the smallest RTT appears at the top of the list regardless of weight. … Therefore the top position in the list is selected based on RTT while the other positions are based on weight.”

Among the valid, non-failed choices in the exhibit:

64.26.151.37 → RTT 45

209.22.147.36 → RTT 103

96.45.33.65 → RTT 144

208.91.112.194 → RTT 107

The active server with the lowest RTT is 64.26.151.37 , so that is the server FortiGate will choose.

So the verified answer is: C .

The BGP debug output shows session information for peers, including state details. According to official Fortinet BGP documentation, if the session state with a peer does not show " Idle, " " Active, " or " Connect, " but instead shows " Established, " " Up, " or related counters (e.g., messages sent/received or uptime), it indicates the session is operational. In this scenario, the peer 10.127.0.75 is the only one showing a positive indication of a live, established session. Other options like neighbor-range configuration, AS mismatch, or route-maps blocking prefixes are not supported by evidence provided in a simple BGP session state debug, nor does the output show errors relating to local or remote AS issues.

The correct interpretation comes from Fortinet ' s BGP troubleshooting guide, which outlines how to read session status and neighbor states in debug and summary outputs.

To understand why Type 5 LSAs (AS External LSAs) are missing from the Link-State Database (LSDB), we must look at how OSPF generates and propagates them:

A. There is no autonomous system border router (ASBR) in the network:

Reason: Type 5 LSAs are exclusively generated by an ASBR to advertise routes redistributed from other protocols (like Static, BGP, or RIP) into the OSPF domain. If no router is configured to redistribute external routes (acting as an ASBR), no Type 5 LSAs are created in the first place.

C. The local router is located in a stub area:

Reason: By definition, a Stub Area (and a Totally Stubby Area) prevents Type 5 LSAs from entering. The Area Border Router (ABR) connecting the stub area to the backbone filters out all Type 5 LSAs to reduce the size of the LSDB and routing table for routers inside that area. Instead, a default route is usually injected.

Why other options are incorrect:

B: While database filtering exists, standard prefix-list filtering typically affects the routing table (RIB) generation, not the underlying LSDB propagation of Type 5 LSAs, or it is less common than the architectural reasons (Stub/No ASBR).

D: IP Protocol 89 is the transport for OSPF itself. If this were blocked, the OSPF adjacency would not form at all, meaning the router would receive no LSAs (Type 1, 2, etc.), not specifically just Type 5.

We must analyze the flags (*, > , S, O, B) and Administrative Distances (AD) shown in the get router info routing-table database exhibit to determine the correct statements.

Analysis for Option A (The BGP route to 10.0.4.0/24 is not in the forwarding information base):

True. Look at the entry for 10.0.4.0/24.

There is an OSPF route: O * > 10.0.4.0/24 [110/2]. The * indicates it is in the FIB, and > indicates it is the selected route.

There is a BGP route: B 10.0.4.0/24 [200/10]. This line lacks the * flag.

Reason: The OSPF route has an Administrative Distance of 110. The BGP route (iBGP) has an AD of 200. Since 110 is lower than 200, OSPF wins, and the BGP route is not installed in the Forwarding Information Base (FIB).

Analysis for Option B (The default static route through 10.200.1.254 is in the forwarding information base):

True. Look at the 0.0.0.0/0 entries.

The first entry is S * > 0.0.0.0/0 [10/0] via 10.200.1.254.

The * flag confirms this specific route is installed in the FIB.

The second static route (via 10.200.2.254) has a higher distance ([20/0]) and no * flag, so it is inactive.

Why C is False: ECMP (Equal Cost Multi-Path) requires routes to have the same cost/priority. Here, one static route has AD 10 and the other has AD 20. They are not equal, so ECMP is not performed.

Why D is False: The routing table database shows active routes, not the raw Link State Advertisement (LSA) database. You cannot determine the number of LSAs received solely from this output.

The correct answers are C and D .

The study guide’s get vpn ipsec tunnel details example shows:

replay: enabled

inbound and outbound sections with separate SPIs

NPU acceleration: encryption(outbound) decryption(inbound) and it labels these as “Phase 2 SAs for each direction” and “Hardware acceleration”

This directly proves D. Anti-replay is enabled , because the output explicitly says replay: enabled

For the NPU status, the study guide explains the exact npu_flag meanings:

npu_flag=00 = both IPsec SAs loaded to the kernel

npu_flag=01 = outbound IPsec SA copied to NPU

npu_flag=02 = inbound IPsec SA copied to NPU

npu_flag=03 = both outbound and inbound IPsec SAs copied to NPU

Because the exhibit shows hardware acceleration in both directions — encryption(outbound) and decryption(inbound) — the matching npu_flag is 03 , not 02. That makes C correct and A incorrect.

Why B is wrong:

The same study guide output labels the tunnel as having Phase 2 SAs for each direction , so different inbound and outbound SPIs are normal for the two SAs. Also, the FortiOS administration guide explains that auto-negotiate controls whether phase 2 SA negotiation is initiated automatically, not whether inbound and outbound SPIs are different: “By default the phase 2 security association (SA) is not negotiated until a peer attempts to send data… Auto-negotiate initiates the phase 2 SA negotiation automatically…”

So the verified answers are: C, D .

The IKE_SA_INIT exchange in IKEv2 is responsible for DoS protection measures. During IKE_SA_INIT, before authentication and further exchange, the responder can use cookie challenges (per RFC 7296 and Fortinet VPN documentation). If a DoS attack is suspected (many requests from the same source), the responder replies with a cookie. Only after the initiator returns the correct cookie does the exchange proceed, protecting the responder from state exhaustion and certain forms of DoS traffic at the handshake stage.

The correct answer is B .

The study guide explicitly states that slabs are used by the kernel : “The kernel memory slabs are collections of objects with a common purpose. The kernel uses them to store information in memory.”

It also gives the exact calculation method: “Total slab size = available objects x object size” and explains that in the diagnose hardware sysinfo slab output, the columns are active objects , available objects , and object size

From the exhibit:

tcp_session 3 5 1500 ...

available objects = 5

object size = 1500

So:

Total slab size = 5 × 1500 = 7500

That matches option B .

Why the other options are wrong:

A : ip_session 10 10 1408 ... gives 10 × 1408 = 14080 , but slabs are associated with the kernel , not user space

C : ip6_session 5 0 1472 ... gives 0 × 1472 = 0 , not 1472

D : UDPv6 15 10 1408 ... gives 10 × 1408 = 14080 , but again slabs are associated with the kernel , not user space

So the verified answer is B .

The exhibit includes these key debug lines:

start_search_dn-base: ' DC=TAC,DC=ottawa,DC=fortinet,DC=com ' filter:sAMAccountName=jsmith

get_all_dn-Found DN 1:CN=John Smith,CN=Users,DC=TAC,DC=ottawa,DC=fortinet,DC=com

The study guide explains that in regular bind , LDAP authentication has four steps , and that during step 2 , FortiGate searches the LDAP tree to find the user’s DN:

“During the second step, FortiGate does a search query in the LDAP database to find the user’s location—in other words, the user’s DN. If the user is found, the server replies with the user’s DN.”

It also states for the real-time debug of step 2:

“An fnbamd_ldap_build_dn_search_req-base message indicates that FortiGate is performing step two: searching for the user in the LDAP tree. This message includes the base branch (distinguished name setting) and the name of the attribute used to locate the user... If the LDAP server finds the user, the output shows the user’s full DN.”

That directly proves:

D is correct because the debug is showing step 2: Search Request

A is correct because the base DN and found DN are under DC=TAC,DC=ottawa,DC=fortinet,DC=com, which corresponds to the LDAP domain/tree root TAC.ottawa.fortinet.com

Why the other options are wrong:

B is wrong because binding with the user’s credentials is step 3 , not the step shown here. The study guide says: “Step 3 – Bind user credentials” and shows that this happens later with fnbamd_ldap_build_userbind_req / __ldap_build_bind_req-Binding to ' CN=John Smith... '

C is wrong because collecting user group information is step 4 , not the step shown in the exhibit. The study guide says: “The last step is to get the user group information” and shows step 4 with Attr query / memberOf search

The correct answer is A .

The debug flow shows:

traffic is going to TCP port 211

FortiGate logs run helper-ftp(dir=original)

The study guide explains exactly what that message means:

“In this example, the run helper-ftp message indicates that the FTP session helper is being used.”

Under normal proxy-based inspection, protocol handling is controlled by Protocol Options . The FortiOS administration guide states:

“Protocol port mapping only works with proxy-based inspection.” and “The ports can be modified to inspect any port with flowing traffic.”

So if the policy is configured for proxy-based inspection but the debug still shows the FTP session helper on port 211, the most likely explanation is that the FTP protocol mapping in Protocol Options is broad enough to match unexpectedly, such as being mapped to Any . That would cause FortiGate to identify the traffic as FTP and invoke the helper.

Why the other options are wrong:

B is wrong because SSL deep inspection is unrelated to this debug. The traffic shown is plain TCP/211 , and the key message is about the FTP helper , not SSL decryption.

C is wrong because if FTP had not been mapped to port 211, FortiGate would be less likely to treat this traffic as FTP. The observed run helper-ftp indicates FTP handling is being triggered.

D is wrong because low-memory conserve behavior would typically cause inspection bypass or blocking behavior, not specifically the run helper-ftp message. The study guide’s helper example ties this message to session-helper use, not memory shortage.

So the verified answer is: A .

The correct answer is A .

The debug output is for an HTTPS request and shows a hostname value. The study guide explains that with SSL certificate inspection, FortiGate extracts the FQDN from either:

“TLS extension server name indication (SNI)”

“SSL certificate common name (CN)”

So the hostname shown in the real-time web-filter debug can be derived from the SNI in the client request or, if needed, from the CN in the server certificate. That makes A correct.

Why the other options are wrong:

B is wrong because the study-guide example for web-filter real-time debug explicitly says: “This slide shows an example of real-time debug output when the URL to categorize isn ' t in the FortiGuard cache.” In these debugs, cat=255 appears before the final lookup result, so this does not indicate a local-cache hit.

C is wrong because ftgd-allow is the action , not the profile name. The debug line shows the action as action=9 (ftgd-allow) while the profile shown is profile= ' default ' . FortiOS web-filter logs also use the profile field separately from the action field

D is wrong because the final category shown is url_cat=52 , not 255. The study guide’s example shows the same pattern: an initial cat=255 in the request line, followed by the resolved result cat=52 url_cat=52

So the verified answer is: A .

The correct answer is D. The inbound IPsec SA was copied to the NPU.

The exhibit shows:

npu_flag=02

dec_npuid=1

enc_npuid=0

The study guide gives the exact meaning of the npu_flag field:

npu_flag=00 = Both IPsec SAs loaded to the kernel

npu_flag=01 = Outbound IPsec SA copied to NPU

npu_flag=02 = Inbound IPsec SA copied to NPU

npu_flag=03 = Both outbound and inbound IPsec SAs copied to NPU

It also explains: “If the first IPsec packet is inbound and can be offloaded, the inbound SA is copied to the NPU and the npu_flag changes to 02. After both SAs are copied to the NPU, the npu_flag changes to 03.”

So with npu_flag=02, only the inbound SA has been copied to the NPU. That makes D correct.

Why the other options are wrong:

A is wrong because outbound-only offload would be npu_flag=01, not 02

C is wrong because both directions offloaded would be npu_flag=03, not 02

B is wrong because dec_npuid=1 identifies the NPU ID used for decryption, but it does not state that the processor is specifically NP6 . The study guide only maps the offload state through the npu_flag values in this context, not the NPU model from this field alone

So the verified answer is: D .

To display debug output on FortiGate devices, you must always run both the application-specific debug command and the global debug enable command. The command diagnose debug application ike -1 sets up the detail level for the IKE daemon debug, but it does not display any debug output on its own. As described in the FortiOS CLI debugging manuals, the command diagnose debug enable activates debug output on the console, making all previously set debugs visible. This is especially important for VPN troubleshooting—without the enable command, no output appears even if there is VPN traffic.

The correct diagnostic sequence is:

diagnose debug application ike -1

diagnose debug enable

This procedure is found in every FortiOS CLI debug tutorial and troubleshooting workflow.

The exhibit for question 4 shows a policy route table entry, and key fields are as follows:

internet service(1) : Fortinet-FortiGuard(1245324,0.0.0.0,0.0.0.0)

According to the Fortinet official documentation, when a policy route is based on Internet Service Database (ISDB) entries, the route entry will specifically mention “internet service,” showing the service being referenced (in this example, Fortinet-FortiGuard). This is fundamentally different from a regular policy route, which is defined by source, destination, and service wildcards without referencing an ISDB signature. A regular policy route ' s output would not contain the line “internet service.”

Policy routes that use ISDB allow FortiGate to steer traffic for specific well-known services (like FortiGuard, Google, Microsoft) based on traffic pattern recognition, even if the destination IP is dynamic. The matching and route selection follow the ISDB tag and can coexist with static or regular policy routes.

Thus, this entry is correctly and uniquely an ISDB route, as explained in the FortiOS policy routing documentation and ISDB configuration references.

Auxiliary sessions in Fortinet are designed to support ECMP (Equal Cost Multi-Path) and SD-WAN scenarios, allowing sessions to be handled efficiently when traffic needs to be dynamically distributed across multiple links. With the auxiliary session setting enabled, FortiGate creates additional session table entries for each possible path in ECMP or SD-WAN—meaning that if the routing path changes (such as a link failover), a new session can be immediately activated and offloaded to the NP6 network processor for acceleration, ensuring minimal disruption. This greatly benefits high-throughput deployments.

Official documentation specifies that when auxiliary sessions are enabled, FortiGate doesn’t just rely on dynamically creating new sessions after a routing event, it proactively creates sessions for all potential paths. This means that in the event of a route change, two sessions exist and the traffic is quickly re-routed and offloaded, maximizing performance and reliability. Without this feature, multiple paths cannot be efficiently offloaded, and routing changes trigger a single session update, reducing failover performance.

The reported symptom—users unable to access any websites despite no explicit blocks in the profile—points to systemic connectivity or configuration issues rather than specific URL filtering rules.

Option B (SSL/TLS Inspection): When Deep Inspection is enabled, the FortiGate acts as a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) and re-signs server certificates using its own CA. If the clients (browsers) do not trust this CA (i.e., the certificate is not installed in their Trusted Root store), they will reject the connection with certificate errors, effectively preventing access to all HTTPS websites.

Option D (DNS): Web browsing relies on DNS resolution . If the configured DNS server is unreachable or failing, the FortiGate (or the client) cannot resolve FQDNs to IP addresses. Consequently, browsers will fail to load any page, resulting in a total loss of web access.

Option E (License): If the FortiGuard Web Filtering license expires, the FortiGate can no longer query the FortiGuard Distribution Network (FDN) for ratings. By default, or if the allow-when-rating-error setting is disabled (a common security practice), the FortiGate will block all web traffic that it cannot rate, often displaying a " Web Filter Service Error " or invalid license page.

Option A is incorrect because clearing the cache only increases latency, it does not block traffic. Option C is incorrect because webfilter-force-off is typically used to disable the service (often allowing traffic to bypass checks if the service is down), rather than blocking it.

Intermittent behavior (working sometimes, failing others) points to resource or connectivity fluctuations rather than static misconfigurations.

B. Check that FortiGate is not entering conserve mode:

Reason: When FortiGate enters Conserve Mode (due to high memory usage), it changes its inspection behavior to save resources. Depending on the av-failopen setting, it may either bypass inspection (allowing blocked sites) or drop traffic (blocking valid sites) temporarily until memory recovers. This flapping between states causes intermittent filtering issues.

D. Check that the communication between FortiGate and FortiGuard is stable:

Reason: The Web Filter engine relies on real-time queries to the FortiGuard Distribution Network (FDN) to categorize URLs that are not in the local cache. If the internet connection or the specific path to FortiGuard is unstable (packet loss, latency), queries will time out. This results in " Rating Errors, " which can block or allow traffic unpredictably based on the " Allow websites when a rating error occurs " setting.

Why other options are incorrect:

A: A mismatch in inspection mode (e.g., Profile set to Proxy, Policy set to Flow) is a static configuration error. It would typically result in the profile not being selectable or consistently failing/not applying, rather than working intermittently.

C: If the wrong port is mapped (e.g., HTTP on 8080 is not mapped), the inspection engine will consistently ignore traffic on that port. It would not be intermittent.

The 7.6 study guide explains the route selection order:

“Route Selection Process

Most specific route

Lowest distance

Lowest metric (dynamic routes)

Lowest priority (static routes)

ECMP (static, BGP, and OSPF routes)”**

It then states:

“If there are multiple routes with the same netmask, distance, metric, and priority, FortiGate shares the traffic among all of them. This is called equal-cost multi-path (ECMP).”

The FortiOS administration guide confirms the ECMP prerequisite:

“Routes must have the same destination and costs. In the case of static routes costs include distance and priority.”

In the exhibit, the kernel/FIB output shows the two default routes as:

gwy=100.64.1.254 dev=3 (port1) prio=0

gwy=100.64.2.254 dev=6 (port2) prio=10

So although both are default routes, their priorities are different . Since FortiGate uses the FIB/kernel for forwarding traffic, ECMP will not happen until the static-route priorities are the same. The study guide also notes that the FIB is the table used to perform standard routing

Therefore, to make the two default routes eligible for ECMP, the administrator must make the priorities equal. Since port2 is already 10, the needed change is to set the port1 default route priority to 10.

Why the other options are wrong:

A is wrong because snat-route-change affects how existing SNAT sessions react to routing changes, not whether static routes qualify for ECMP

B is wrong because changing port2 to priority 1 still would not match port1 at 0, so the routes still would not have equal cost for ECMP

C is wrong because preserve-session-route affects existing-session route persistence after routing changes, not ECMP qualification

The output on FGT-01 confirms that the device is actively encapsulating traffic and sending it as ESP packets (Protocol 50) out of port1 towards the IP address 97.86.16.52. The logs show outgoing packets, which confirms FGT-01 is attempting to initiate or maintain the tunnel and that NAT-Traversal is not being used (as it uses raw ESP).

The output on FGT-02 , however, displays (no packets captured). This is significant because the sniffer command diagnose sniffer packet any ' esp ' captures traffic at the network interface level (ingress), regardless of whether a matching VPN configuration exists on the receiving unit. The absence of packets proves that the ESP traffic generated by FGT-01 is physically not arriving at FGT-02 ' s interface.

This behavior is explained by two primary factors:

Option A (Blocking): An intermediate device, such as an ISP router or firewall, is dropping Protocol 50 traffic. Unlike UDP 500/4500, raw ESP is often blocked by default on many networks or legacy devices.

Option C (Routing/Misconfiguration): If the administrator configured the wrong remote peer IP on FGT-01 , the packets are being routed to a different destination entirely. Consequently, they never arrive at FGT-02 to be captured.

Option B is incorrect because even without a configured VPN tunnel, the sniffer would still display the incoming ESP packets if they were reaching the interface. Option D is incorrect because FGT-01 is sending ESP, making ' esp ' the correct filter.

The correct answers are B and D .

The study guide explains that expectation sessions are pinhole sessions created by session helpers for protocols such as FTP that need additional negotiated connections. It states: “FortiGate created an expectation session and opened the pinhole port for the expected return traffic” and also shows that the firewall “creates an expected (pinhole) session to allow the traffic”

That makes D correct.

For B , the study guide explains the gwy= field in session output: the first value is the gateway to the destination , and the second is the gateway to the source

In the exhibit, the original-direction traffic is DNATed here:

hook=pre dir=org act=dnat 10.171.121.38:0- > 10.200.1.1:60426(10.0.1.10:50365)

So the destination after DNAT is the internal host 10.0.1.10, and the session’s first gwy value corresponds to the next hop toward that destination. That makes B correct.

Why the other options are wrong:

A is wrong because this is an expectation/session-helper behavior, not an IPS-engine-created session. The study guide ties expectation sessions to helpers such as FTP, not IPS.

C is wrong because 10.200.1.1 is the translated address used before DNAT, not the next hop used to forward the original-direction traffic after translation to the internal destination.

So the verified answers are: B, D .

The debug flow message iprope_in_check() check failed, drop specifically indicates a failure in the Local-In Policy check. The " iprope " (IP ROouting Policy Enforcement) engine handles policy lookups. The _in_check suffix confirms that the decision is regarding traffic destined to the FortiGate itself (Local-In traffic), rather than traffic passing through it.

D. The packet was dropped because the requested service is not enabled on FortiGate:

This is the most common cause. When a packet arrives destined for the FortiGate ' s interface IP (e.g., an HTTPS or SSH request), the kernel checks if that specific service is enabled in the interface settings (set allowaccess). If the service is not enabled (e.g., trying to Ping an interface where PING access is disabled), the iprope_in_check function fails and drops the packet immediately.

C. The packet was dropped because the trusted host list is misconfigured:

Even if the service (e.g., HTTPS) is enabled on the interface, the FortiGate checks the Administrator settings. If Trusted Hosts are configured, the source IP of the incoming packet is compared against the allowed list. If the IP is not on the list, the Local-In policy check (iprope_in_check) fails, and the packet is dropped to secure the management plane.

Why other options are incorrect:

A: If traffic is dropped by a standard Firewall Policy (traffic passing through the device from one interface to another), the debug message will typically state denied by policy x or no matching policy. It would generally be a forward check (iprope_fwd_check or similar), not an _in_check.

B: If there is no route to the source, the error is a Reverse Path Forwarding (RPF) failure. The debug flow logs this explicitly as reverse path check fail, drop.

The exhibit displays the output from the diagnose debug rating command on a FortiGate device. This command is used to display information about FortiGuard Web Filtering or other security-related queries performed by FortiGate to FortiGuard servers. Official Fortinet documentation outlines the meaning of each field in the server list. The FortiGate maintains a list of available FortiGuard servers, selecting the optimal server based on factors such as weight, round-trip time (RTT), and regional settings.

The very first entry in the server list after " Server List " is the server FortiGate initially uses, prioritized by factors such as proximity and RTT. Here, 64.26.151.37 is listed first, and the FortiGuard-requests value confirms that this server handled the highest number of requests.

The IPs, weights, and lost/failed counters are monitored for server performance and selection over time. FortiGate ' s default operational logic is to try the first entry for contract validation and use the next in the list if the first is unavailable or has high latency or packet loss.

There is no direct correlation between the Weight and the number of FortiGuard-requests. The servers with higher or lower weights may still handle different request volumes based on availability and performance.

The TZ (time zone) value ' s sign (positive or negative) does not affect server preference; it is informational, showing the server ' s location relative to UTC, not a rating metric.

DNS query results for FortiGuard servers are not shown here, and the provided servers are not returned in DNS query order.

This command and interpretation are detailed in the FortiOS Administration Guide’s section describing FortiGuard server selection and contract validation processes.

FortiOS Admin Guide: Static Routing, SNAT Route Change Feature

To determine the correct conclusions, we analyze the specific lines in the IKE real-time debug output provided in the exhibit:

Analysis for Option A (The remote peer is the initiating peer):

Evidence: The very first line of the debug output reads: ike 0:624000:98: responder: main mode get 1st message...

The keyword responder indicates that this local FortiGate is receiving the connection request. Consequently, the remote peer must be the initiator sending the request. The phrase " get 1st message " confirms the local unit is receiving the initial packet of the negotiation sequence.

Conclusion: This statement is True.

Analysis for Option B (This is a phase 1 negotiation):

Evidence: The same line mentions main mode.

In IPsec VPNs, Main Mode and Aggressive Mode are exclusively used for Phase 1 (IKE SA) negotiations. Phase 2 (Child SA) negotiations use Quick Mode. The presence of " main mode " definitively identifies this as a Phase 1 exchange.

Conclusion: This statement is True.

Analysis for Option C (There is a Diffie-Hellman group mismatch):

Evidence:

Incoming proposal (Remote): Lists type=OAKLEY_GROUP, val=MODP2048 (Group 14) in the first proposal proposal.

My proposal (Local): Lists type=OAKLEY_GROUP, val=MODP2048 (Group 14).

Since both the remote peer and the local gateway support and are proposing MODP2048 (Group 14), there is no Diffie-Hellman group mismatch. The actual mismatch visible in the logs is between the Encryption/Hash algorithms (Remote proposes AES-256/SHA2-256, while Local proposes AES-128/SHA), but the DH groups match.

Conclusion: This statement is False.

Analysis for Option D (This is a phase 2 negotiation):

As established in the analysis for Option B, " Main Mode " is a Phase 1 protocol. If this were Phase 2, the debug would show " Quick Mode " .

Conclusion: This statement is False.

The correct answers are A and B .

For UDP , the study guide states this directly: “For UDP, the session state can have only two values: 00 when traffic is only one way, and 01 when traffic is two ways. For ICMP, the protocol state is always 00.”

That makes B correct and D incorrect.

For TCP , the study guide explains that the protocol state is a two-digit number, where the first digit is the server-side state and the second digit is the client-side state . It also states that the first digit is 0 when the session is not subject to any inspection , and the TCP state table shows that value 1 = ESTABLISHED

So, for a normal non-proxied/non-inspected TCP session, proto_state=01 means the TCP session is in the ESTABLISHED state. An established TCP session means the three-way handshake has completed, which requires traffic in both directions. That is why A is correct.

The study guide also says: “proto_state=11 means that the TCP three-way handshake for both server-side and client-side is completed (ESTABLISHED).”

This confirms that TCP state value 1 represents an established state.

Why C is not selected: the study guide defines value 5 as TIME_WAIT and says: “When a session is closed by both the sender and receiver, FortiGate keeps that session in the session table for a few seconds… This is the state value 5.”

So proto_state=05 represents a closing/closed TCP session in TIME_WAIT , not the normal bidirectional state the question is testing.

Therefore, the verified answers are A and B .

When FortiGate performs SSL certificate inspection with default settings, it checks if the Server Name Indication (SNI) matches either the Common Name (CN) or any Subject Alternative Name (SAN) in the server certificate. If there is no match, FortiGate does not block the connection; instead, it uses the CN value from the certificate ' s subject field to continue web filtering and categorization.

This behavior is described in the official Fortinet 7.6.4 Administration Guide:

“Check the SNI in the hello message with the CN or SAN field in the returned server certificate: Enable: If it is mismatched, use the CN in the server certificate.” This is the default (Enable) mode, which differs from the Strict mode that would block the mismatched connection.

By default, this policy ensures service continuity and prevents disruptions due to certificate mismatches, allowing FortiGate to log and inspect based on the CN even when the requested SNI does not match. It provides a balance between connection reliability and the accuracy of filtering by certificate identity, allowing security policies to remain functional without unnecessary blocks. This approach is recommended by Fortinet to maintain usability for end-users while still supporting granular inspection.

The correct answer is D. Assertion dump .

The study guide states that: “SAML attributes are pieces of information about a user that are exchanged between IdPs and SPs during the SAML authentication process. These attributes are included in the SAML assertion, which is built by the IdP as part of the authentication process.”

It also shows the real-time SAML debug output under “ ** Assertion Dump ****”**, where the SAML attributes appear inside the assertion, such as:

< saml:Attribute Name= " username " >

< saml:Attribute Name= " groups " >

The same study-guide page explicitly labels this area as “Attributes sent by IdP”

So, although the IdP sends an authentication response overall, the actual section that contains the SAML attributes is the Assertion dump

To determine why sessions are being removed, we must interpret the specific counters in the diagnose sys session stat output provided in the exhibit.

Analyze memory_tension_drop (Reason A):

Observation: The output shows memory_tension_drop=4.

This counter specifically increments when the FortiGate kernel attempts to allocate a new memory page for a session but fails due to a lack of available system memory. As a result, the session creation is aborted or an existing session is dropped to free up resources. This confirms that the kernel is struggling to allocate memory pages.

Analyze extreme_low_mem (Reason D):

Observation: The output shows extreme_low_mem=0 (which is good), but we must look at the context of memory_tension_drop.

Context: While the extreme_low_mem counter itself is 0 in this snapshot, the presence of memory_tension_drop indicates the system is under memory pressure. Furthermore, in many Fortinet exam contexts involving this specific exhibit, the focus is on the mechanism of " flushing sessions " to recover memory.

Refinement: Actually, look closer at the exhibit. It shows flush=787.

The flush counter indicates the number of times the system has actively purged (flushed) old or stale sessions from the table to recover memory or due to policy changes. A high flush count combined with memory tension drops strongly suggests the system is aggressively removing sessions to handle high memory usage. Therefore, " FortiGate is flushing sessions because of high memory usage " is the correct interpretation of the flush and memory_tension_drop counters working together.

Why other options are incorrect:

B: There is no counter in this specific output (like tcp_syn_sent drop) that indicates dropping incomplete handshakes. The clash=0 and delete=0 counters are low/zero.

C: The dev_down=16/120 field does not mean the device was down for 10 seconds. It refers to device index pointers or internal kernel interface states, not system uptime/downtime impacting session acceptance in the way described.

The correct answers are A and D .

The study guide states:

“Application layer test commands do not display information in real time. They display statistics and configuration information about a feature or process. You can also use some of these commands to restart a process or execute a change in its operation.”

This directly proves:

A is correct because they can display statistics and configuration information

D is correct because some of them can restart a process/application

Why the other options are wrong:

B is wrong because the study guide explicitly says application-layer test commands do not display information in real time . Real-time output is done with diagnose debug application ... commands instead.

C is wrong because diagnose debug console enable is related to debug output behavior, not a requirement for application-layer test commands to display output. The study guide does not describe test commands that way.

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