Fortinet NSE6_EDR_AD-7.0 Dumps

The correct answers are A. %upload_file and B. %ipconfig_all .

The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that FortiEDR Connect opens a console that provides direct access to a FortiEDR-protected device through a remote shell connection. This allows administrators to respond to incidents, run commands and scripts, collect and download forensic data, and remediate threats. The guide also states that the FortiEDR Connect terminal has a prompt where commands can be typed, and the Help button displays the supported commands and their parameters.

The guide further confirms that FortiEDR Connect supports FortiEDR-specific commands, Windows command-line access through %cmd , and Python commands.

For the exact command list, Fortinet’s official FortiEDR Connect technical tip lists the supported commands. In that list, %ipconfig_all is explicitly described as returning extended IP information, and %upload_file is explicitly described as uploading a file to the specified path. ( Fortinet Community )

Options C. %psexec and D. %timestamp are not listed as supported FortiEDR Connect commands in the official Fortinet command list. Therefore, they must not be selected.

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The correct answers are C and D .

The exhibit shows the incident classification as Malicious . In the Activity Audit, the entry from FortinetCloudServices states: “Classification change: Malicious” and also says the file is classified as malicious. This directly proves that FCS classified the event as malicious . The FortiEDR guide explains that the audit history shows the chronology for classifying the security event and displays details when FortiEDR Cloud Service (FCS) reclassifies a security event after its initial classification by the Core.

The exhibit also states that the file was “Detected as Unknown malware.” This supports option D in the exam wording: FortiEDR/FCS has classified the file as malicious, but it is being identified as unknown malware , meaning it was not recognized as a known malware family/signature at the time of classification. The guide explains that FCS enhances classification using data enrichment, automated and manual analysis, file analysis, sandboxing, machine learning flow analysis, commonality analysis, crowdsourced data deduction, and other methods, so “unknown malware” can still be classified malicious by FCS.

Option A is wrong because the exhibit shows Malicious , not Suspicious. Option B is wrong because the incident status is Unhandled , not resolved or handled.

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Add applications to the application control manager.

Assign collector groups to the policy.

Enable the blocklist rule on the application control policy.

“The applications must be added to the Application Control Manager under the user-defined group”

“Collector groups must be assigned to this policy”

“The blocklist rule must be enabled on the Application Control Policy.”

The correct sequence is to add applications to Application Control Manager, assign the relevant Collector Groups to the Application Control policy, and enable the blocklist rule. Application Control prevents designated executables from launching, whereas Communication Control regulates outbound application communication. FortiEDR automatically places manually added applications in its User-defined group, so creating a separate application group is unnecessary. Collector Groups receive policy assignments directly; application groups are not assigned to individual Collectors. Newly added applications are disabled by default and must also be enabled for blocking, unless the administrator has changed the default application state.

The correct answer is C.

The FortiEDR guide explains that Threat Hunting searches across endpoint activity events, including registry activity. It states that Threat Hunting can search based on attributes of files, registry keys and values, network, processes, event log, and activity event types. This fits the requirement to search for specific registry modifications across endpoints.

The guide also explains that after filtering activity events, the query can be saved and defined as a Scheduled Query. It says: “Scheduled Query: Mark this option to automate the process of detecting threats so that this query is run automatically according to the schedule that you define.” It also states that a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab when matches are detected, and notifications can be sent through email, Syslog, and other configured methods.

The guide further states that the Repeat Every/On options define the frequency and schedule when the query runs. Therefore, a 15-minute recurring query is handled through the Scheduled Query capability in Threat Hunting, not Communication Control, policy override, or a manual Playbook trigger.

Strictly speaking, the guide calls this a scheduled query under Threat Hunting saved queries, not a “communication control rule” or “manual query.” Option C is the intended answer.

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The correct answer is A. Set the organization parameter to Default .

From the first exhibit, the API query result for the Collector shows:

Collector name: Desktop-PC

Collector group name: Engineering

Organization: Default

State: Running

But in the second exhibit, the API request is using:

organization = Fortinet-Training

collectors = Desktop-PC

targetCollectorGroup = High Security Collector Group

That organization value is wrong. The Collector belongs to the Default organization, so the API request must reference the Collector’s actual organization. Otherwise FortiEDR cannot locate or move that Collector under the organization specified in the request.

The FortiEDR guide confirms that Collector Groups are used to assign different FortiEDR policies to different Collectors, and that Collectors can be moved between groups/organizations in the Inventory workflow. In Hoster view, FortiEDR shows Collectors from all organizations and allows moving Collectors between organizations, but the organization context must match the Collector being managed.

Option B is wrong because the exhibit shows the API request is authorized; the failure is a 400 Bad Request , not an authentication failure. Option C is wrong because the endpoint shown is already a move/update operation using PUT, and the issue is not the HTTP method. Option D is wrong because Engineering is the current Collector Group. The goal is to move the Collector to High Security Collector Group , so changing the target back to Engineering would not isolate or harden the Collector.

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The correct answers are B and C .

The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide explains that IoT device discovery continuously identifies newly connected non-workstation devices, such as printers, cameras, and media devices. During discovery, each relevant Collector periodically probes nearby neighboring devices. The guide states that nearby devices usually respond by providing information about themselves, including the device/host name and IP address . This directly supports option B .

Option C is also correct because the guide states that Collectors in degraded , disabled , or isolated states do not take part in the IoT probing process. It also says FortiEDR uses the most powerful Collectors in each subnet and excludes weaker Collectors, including disabled and degraded Collectors.

Option A is wrong because the guide explicitly says Collectors running on servers do not take part in IoT probing. Option D is wrong because IoT probing is not described as deep packet inspection of all neighboring traffic; it is a discovery/probing process used to identify nearby devices and collect basic device information.

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The correct answer is C .

The exhibit shows a Threat Hunting saved query named CLI Command with the query:

Target.Process.Filename ( " net.exe " )

It is configured as a Scheduled Query , classified as Suspicious , and set to repeat every 15 minutes . The FortiEDR guide states that saving a Threat Hunting query allows it to be defined as a scheduled query to automate threat detection. When the scheduled query runs and detects matching activity, a security event is automatically created in the Incidents tab .

The guide also states that scheduled queries run automatically according to the configured schedule, and each time a match is detected, FortiEDR generates a security event in the Incidents tab and sends notifications according to the security event configuration.

So, when the endpoint runs:

net user edruser password! /ADD

FortiEDR records the relevant process activity, and when the scheduled query runs, it matches the target process net.exe and creates an incident/security event. It is not immediate by default because the query is scheduled every 15 minutes. It also does not block CLI commands by default unless playbook actions or policy controls are configured. The activity is treated according to the saved query classification, which in the exhibit is Suspicious .

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The correct answers are C and D .

The guide states that for eXtended Detection Source integration, FortiEDR connects to external systems to collect activity logs. The aggregated data is then sent to Fortinet Cloud Services (FCS) , where it is correlated and analyzed to detect malicious indications. Those malicious indications result in security events for eXtended Detection policy rule violations .

For FortiAnalyzer/FortiAnalyzer Cloud specifically, the guide states that this integration is used to correlate data between FortiEDR and the Fortinet Security Fabric and issue eXtended Detection alerts .

Option A is wrong because FCS does not send the original log record to FortiAnalyzer. FortiAnalyzer is the external source whose data is correlated with FortiEDR data. Option B is wrong because OS metadata is collected by the Collector and handled through FortiEDR components; the FCS role here is cloud-side enrichment, correlation, and detection, not sending OS metadata back to the manager.

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The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that when manually adding applications to be blocked, you can define the application using Hash or using any combination of File Name / Path / Signer attributes. This means hashes can be used independently and do not require filename, path, or signer attributes.

The guide also states that each hash is a unique identifier of an individual application, and the exhibit itself shows the hash field note: “SHA-1 or SHA-2 or MD5.” Therefore, the hash must use a supported hash format, making D correct.

For multiple hash entries, the uploaded guide text says they must be comma separated , while the exhibit note says “You can enter multiple hashes comma separated.” So the technically exact guide wording supports comma separation, not line separation. However, given your answer choices, A is clearly trying to test the requirement that multiple hashes must be separated correctly. The option wording says “line-separated,” which is not exact against the guide; the better wording would be comma-separated . Since no “comma-separated” option is provided, A is the intended separation-related answer, but the wording is flawed.

Option B is definitely wrong because hash mode is an alternative to attributes. Option C is also not the best answer because, although each hash uniquely identifies a file/application variant, the operational requirement is not that “hashes must be unique to each application” in the way the option implies. Hashes may represent different variants of the same application.

The best answers are A and D , but be careful: A is directly verified by the guide; D is the only remaining statement that can be true in policy context, but it is weaker than A.

The FortiEDR 7.0.0 Administration Guide states that the Communication Control tab identifies communicating applications detected in the organization. More specifically, the Applications page lists “all communicating applications detected in your organization that have ever attempted to communicate.” Therefore, if software exists on a user’s computer but does not appear in the Communication Control application list, the most direct explanation is that it has not attempted external communication .

The guide also explains that FortiEDR Communication Control reduces the scope of administration because Security/IT only needs to handle applications that communicate externally. It also states that non-authorized applications can still execute, and only their outgoing communication is prevented. This confirms that the Communication Control application list is not a full software inventory; it is a list of applications that have communicated or attempted communication.

Option B is not correct. If an application were blocked due to FortiEDR security-policy enforcement after a connection attempt, FortiEDR would generate security-event visibility in the Incidents workflow, not simply hide the application from Communication Control. FortiEDR Collectors send communication-related data for Communication Control, and security events are sent for enforcement/monitoring purposes.

Option C is also wrong. Reputation score affects policy decisions and application risk evaluation, but it does not cause an application to be ignored or excluded from the application list. The guide says each application in the Applications page shows a reputation indicator, which proves reputation is displayed for listed applications rather than used to hide them.

For option D , if the application has never attempted communication, Communication Control has no observed communication event to list. In exam logic, this can be interpreted as the application is not currently being denied by Communication Control policies. However, the stronger technical truth is this: Communication Control does not list installed software; it lists applications that have attempted to communicate.

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