Summer Sale Discount Flat 70% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70diswrap

Huawei H12-821_V1.0 Dumps

Page: 1 / 38
Total 382 questions

HCIP-Datacom-Core Technology V1.0 Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following statements regarding the stateful inspection firewall is true?

Options:

A.

When the stateful inspection firewall checks packets, packets of one same connection are not correlated.

B.

Because UDP is a connectionless protocol, so the stateful inspection firewall cannot match UDP packets with the status table.

C.

The stateful inspection firewall only needs to match the first data packet against a rule, and the subsequent packets of the connection are matched directly in the state table.

D.

The stateful inspection firewall needs to match the rules for each incoming packet.

Question 2

Which of the following statements regarding the MED value in BGP are true?

Options:

A.

According to BGP route selection rules, the MED value has a lower priority than AS_Path, Preferred-Value, Local-Preference, and Origin.

B.

The default MED value of BGP routes is 0.

C.

By default, BGP can compare the MED values of routes from different ASs.

D.

By default, if there is no MED value in routes, the value 0 is used. If the bestroute med-none-as-maximum command is configured, the maximum MED value 4294967295 is used.

Question 3

After IPsec is deployed on an enterprise network, services are interrupted. The administrator finds that no data flow triggers IKE negotiation.

Which of the following are possible causes? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Configuration error of an interzone security policy

B.

An unreachable route

C.

The IPsec policy is not correctly applied to the related interface.

D.

A mismatch between the ACL and protected data flow

Question 4

What parameters can a DHCP6 server assign to a DHCPv6 client?

Options:

A.

Gateway address

B.

DNS server address

C.

IPV6 address/prefix

D.

SNTP server address

Question 5

In an IPv4 address space, Class D addresses are used for multicast. Among Class D addresses, which of the following is the permanent group address range reserved for routing protocols?

Options:

A.

232.0.0.0 to 232.255.255.255

B.

239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255

C.

224.0.0.0 to 224.0.0.255

D.

224.0.1.0 to 231.255.255.255

Question 6

In IGMPv1, querier selection depends on a multicast routing protocol, such as PIM. In IGMPv2 and IGMPv3, the interface with the largest IP address acts as the querier.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 7

VRRP defines three states. Only the device in which state can forward packets destined for a virtual IP address?

(Write in full and capitalize the first letter.)

Options:

Question 8

Which of the following community attributes enables a device to send a received route with this attribute to any BGP peer ?

Options:

A.

No_Advertise

B.

Internet

C.

No_Export

D.

No_Export_Subconfed

Question 9

On an OSPF network, if two directly connected routers with the same router ID run in the same area, the master/slave relationship cannot be determined for DD packets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 10

SSH is a secure protocol that establishes tunnels for users on insecure networks. Which of the following statements is false about SSH login?

Options:

A.

The SSH server supports authentication. Only users who have passed authentication can log in to the device.

B.

When the SSH server function is enabled on a device, the socket obtaining service is also enabled on the device. This makes the device prone to scanning by attackers. As such, the SSH server function and the corresponding port can be disabled when the SSH server function is not required.

C.

An ACL rule can be configured for each VTY channel to control the IP addresses of clients that are allowed to log in to the device.

D.

By default, the port number of the SSH server is 23. You can change the port number of the SSH server to a non-well-known port number to reduce the probability of being scanned and attacked.

Question 11

This configuration is part of RTA configuration. Which of the following statements regarding the configuration are true?

[RTA] ospf 100

[RTA-ospf-100]silent-interface GigabitEthernet 1/0/0

Options:

A.

RTA cannot establish a neighbor relationship with the neighbor that this interface is directly connected to.

B.

GigabitEthernet 1/0/0 is prohibited from sending OSPF packets.

C.

Direct routes of GigabitEthernet 1/0/0 can still be advertised.

D.

This interface cannot send Hello packets.

Question 12

OSPF supports area authentication and interface authentication. If both authentication modes are configured, Interface authentication takes preference over area authentication.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 13

The filter-policy 2000 export command is run in an ISIS process. Which of the following statements about the functions of a filter policy is false?

Options:

A.

Is used together with the route import function to advertise some imported external routes to neighbors.

B.

If this command is not run, the device by default advertises all routes that ISIS Imports form external routing protocols.

C.

Controls the advertisement of routes generated by the device.

D.

Filters LSPs to be advertised.

Question 14

Which three transmission modes are supported for IPv4 packets?

Options:

A.

Anycast

B.

Broadcast

C.

Unicast

D.

Multicast

Question 15

A network entity title consists of an area address and a system ID. It is a special NSAP (the SEL has a fixed value of 00) and is mainly used for route calculation.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 16

Which of the following statements about WLAN roaming are false?

Options:

A.

APs with which a STA is associated before and after roaming can work on different channels.

B.

During roaming, the STA sends a Reassociation Request frame containing home AP information to the foreign AP.

C.

During roaming, the STA sends an Association Request frame containing home AP information to the foreign AP.

D.

APs with which a STA is associated before and after roaming must work on the same channel.

Question 17

The Origin attribute is used to define the origin of BGP path information. There are three types of Origin attributes. Which of the following lists the Origin attributes in descending order of priority?

Options:

A.

IGP > EGP > Incomplete

B.

Incomplete > IGP > EGP

C.

EGP > IGP > Incomplete

D.

Incomplete > EGP > IGP

Question 18

Which of the following attacks is not the network layer attack?

Options:

A.

IP spoofing attack

B.

ICMP attack

C.

Smurf attack

D.

ARP spoofing attack

Question 19

See the following figure. All routers on the network run IS-IS and are in area 49.0001. By referring to the LSDB of R1, the Level-2 DIS is. (Enter the device name, for example, R1.)

Options:

Question 20

Which of the following scenarios is not suitable for deploying interface PBR?

Options:

A.

A core switch needs to forward traffic between the intranet and extranet to an AC device that connects to the core switch in off-path mode.

B.

A core switch needs to forward the traffic between the intranet and extranet to a security detection device that connects to the core switch in off-path mode.

C.

A device needs to modify the next-hop IP address for locally originated traffic.

D.

On an enterprise network with multiple ISP outbound interfaces, each internal network segment accesses the Internet through a particular ISP outbound interface.

Question 21

A switch runs MSTP. The configuration is shown in the figure. What is the role of this switch in MSTI 1?

Options:

A.

Uncertain

B.

Root switch

C.

Non-root switch

D.

Secondary root switch

Question 22

OSPF has five types of packets, which have the same header format. If the Auth Type field in the packet header is 1, which of the following authentication modes is used?

Options:

A.

Non-authentication

B.

MD5 authentication

C.

Plaintext authentication

D.

Hash authentication

Question 23

Which of the following statements is false?

Options:

A.

If the current DR fails, the current BDR automatically becomes a new DR, and a BDR will be elected again.

B.

A device with a higher router priority has a higher election priority.

C.

When a router with the highest router priority joins an OSPF network, this router will become the new DR.

D.

If two devices have the same router priority, the device with a larger router ID has a higher election priority.

Question 24

A campus network uses OSPF for network communication. The display ospf peer command is run on a router, and the command output is as follows:

vbnet

Copy

Edit

< R2 > display ospf peer

OSPF Process 1 with Router ID 10.0.2.2

Area 0.0.0.0 interface 10.0.235.2 (GigabitEthernet0/0/1) ' s neighbors

Router ID: 10.0.5.5 Address: 10.0.235.5

State: Full Mode: Nbr is Master Priority: 1

DR: 10.0.235.5 BDR: 10.0.235.3 MTU: 0

Dead timer due in 40 sec

Area 0.0.0.0 interface 10.0.24.2 (Serial1/0/1) ' s neighbors

Router ID: 10.0.4.4 Address: 10.0.24.4

State: Full Mode: Nbr is Master Priority: 1

DR: None BDR: None MTU: 0

Dead timer due in 35 sec

Which of the following statements are true about the device?

Options:

A.

The IP address of the DR on the network where R2 and its neighbor 10.0.5.5 reside is 10.0.235.5.

B.

R2 has established adjacencies with 10.0.5.5 and 10.0.4.4.

C.

The DR/BDR election fails on the network where R2 and its neighbor 10.0.4.4 reside.

D.

Router IDs of the two OSPF neighbors of R2 are 10.0.5.5 and 10.0.4.4.

Question 25

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF route summarization is false?

Options:

A.

OSPF supports two route summarization modes: ABR summarization and ASBR summarization.

B.

Any router in OSPF can summarize routes.

C.

Route summarization is the process of summarizing routes with the same prefix into one route and then advertising only the summarized route to other areas.

D.

Route summarization can reduce routing information, decrease the routing table size, and improve router performance.

Question 26

Which of the following statements are true about the Local_Pref attribute in BGP? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

The default Local_Pref value is 0.

B.

The Local_Pref attribute can be transmitted to all BGP peers.

C.

The Local_Pref value remains unchanged during transmission unless it is affected by a routing policy.

D.

The greater the value of the Local_Pref attribute, the higher the priority.

Question 27

If a router ID is configured in both the system via and the BGP view, BGP uses the router ID configured in the BGP view because the BGP view takes precedence over the system view.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 28

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF multi-instance is false?

Options:

A.

Route exchange between different OSPF processes is similar to route exchange between different routing protocols.

B.

An interface of a router belongs to only a certain OSPF process.

C.

The OSPF process IDs must be the same when OSPF neighbor relationships are established between different routers.

D.

Multiple OSPF processes can run on the same router, and they are independent of each other.

Question 29

In IPsec , an SA (Security Association) is uniquely identified by three parameters . Which of the following parameters does not belong to the 3-tuple information?

Options:

A.

Key exchange protocol

B.

SPI

C.

Destination IP address

D.

Security protocol ID

Question 30

Preferences of routing protocols determine the sequence In which a router selects a route among routes to the same destination /earned through different routing protocols.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 31

A local router runs IS-IS and its command output is shown in the following figure. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The circuit level of S4/0/0 is Level-1.

B.

S4/0/0 supports IPv6.

C.

S4/0/0 sends IIH packets at the interval of 30s.

D.

The cost of S4/0/0 is 20.

Question 32

The AS_Path attribute is an important BGP attribute used for route selection. Which of the following statements are true about this attribute?

Options:

A.

When a route is advertised to an IBGP peer, the AS_Path remains unchanged.

B.

This attribute can be used to prevent BGP routing loops.

C.

This attribute is a well-known discretionary attribute that must be identified by all BGP routers.

D.

BGP ignores AS_Confed_Sequence and AS_Confed_Set when calculating the AS_Path length.

Question 33

When a packet passes through a firewall, the firewall creates a session connection for the packet to guide subsequent forwarding of the packet. However, the firewall does not create session entries for all packets. For which of the following packets does the firewall not create session entries when the packet reaches the firewall?

Options:

A.

ICMP ping packet

B.

GRE packet

C.

Subsequent fragment

D.

UDP packet

Question 34

On a broadcast IS-IS network, a DIS needs to be elected to create and update pseudonodes. Which of the following values is the default DIS priority of an IS-IS interface?

Options:

A.

200

B.

64

C.

1

D.

100

Question 35

Which of the following is used as the destination port for single-hop BFD?

Options:

A.

UDP port 3784

B.

UDP port 4784

C.

TCP port 3784

D.

TCP port 4784

Question 36

When BGP receives multiple routes to the same destination, it selects the optimal route based on route selection rules. As a result, load balancing cannot be implemented

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 37

As shown in the figure, VRRP is associated with a BFD session. When a backup device detects a fault through BFD, the backup device immediately assumes the master role after the Master_Down_Timer timer expires.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 38

GRE is a VPN technology that can implement packet transmission over heterogeneous networks. Which of the following statements are true about GRE?

Options:

A.

GRE is a Layer 2 VPN encapsulation technology.

B.

GRE enables encapsulated data packets to be transmitted over another network layer protocol, but cannot encapsulate multicast data.

C.

GRE tunnels can work with IPsec to ensure the security of multicast services such as voice and video.

D.

GRE tunnels can extend the working range of network protocols with hop limits.

Question 39

In BGP, Keepalive messages are used to maintain BGP peer relationships. When a BGP router receives a Keepalive message from a peer, the BGP router sets the state of the peer to Established and periodically sends Keepalive messages to maintain the connection. By default, the device sends Keepalive messages every seconds.

Options:

Question 40

The following figure shows a broadcast IS-IS network. By default, Rl is elected among the four routers as the DIS. After the DIS priority of GE 0/0/1 on R2 is changed to 63 and the network stabilizes, which of the following routers is elected as the DIS?

as

Options:

A.

R3

B.

R1

C.

R2

D.

R4

Question 41

Which of the following routing protocols support the default route through command configuration?

Options:

A.

BGP

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

ICMP

Question 42

Which command is used to configure the VRRP preemption delay?

Options:

A.

vrrp vrid 1 timer delay 20

B.

vrrp vrid 1 preempt-delay 20

C.

vrrp vrid 1 preempt-mode timer delay 20

D.

vrrp vrid 1 preempt-timer 20

Question 43

Hackers often obtain the login permissions of system administrators through various attacks.

Which of the following measures can be taken to enhance the security of administrator accounts? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Periodically check whether unnecessary administrator accounts exist in the system. If such accounts exist, delete them to reduce the attack surface.

B.

Encrypt passwords before transferring them. Whenever possible, transfer passwords by email.

C.

Assign exclusive accounts for administrators with different maintenance roles to avoid account sharing.

D.

To ensure security and make the password easier to remember, you can set the password to be valid for a long time.

Question 44

During BGP route summarization configuration, the keyword can be used to suppress all specific routes so that only the summary route is advertised. The summary route carries the Atomic-aggregate attribute rather than the community attributes of specific routes.

Options:

Question 45

R1, R2, R3, and R4 run IS-IS, and the DIS priorities of their interfaces are shown in the following figure. If all these devices are started simultaneously, will be elected as the DIS. (Enter the device name, for example, R1.)as

Options:

Question 46

On a broadcast IS-IS network shown in the following figure, a DIS needs to be elected to create and update pseudonodes. Which of the following routers is elected as the DIS?

as

Options:

A.

R1

B.

R3

C.

R4

D.

R2

Question 47

On the OSPF network shown in the figure, an adjacency has been established between R1 and R2. An engineer configures the commands in the figure on R2. In this case, which of the following routing entries may exist in the routing table of R2?

Options:

A.

10.1.4.0/24

B.

10.1.3.0/24

C.

10.1.2.0/24

D.

10.1.1.0/24

Question 48

The OSPF neighbor table stores important entries maintained by OSPF. Which of the following statements are true about the entries?

Options:

A.

The OSPF neighbor table stores state information about the links between OSPF routers.

B.

You can run the display ospf peer command to view the OSPF neighbor table.

C.

OSPF neighbor relationships are established by exchanging Hello packets.

D.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be established before OSPF transmits LSAs.

Question 49

When receiving a packet, a Huawei router matches the packet against ACL rules. The default ACL matching order used by the Huawei router is.

Options:

Question 50

On an IPv6 network, intermediate forwarding devices do not fragment IPv6 packets for the purpose of reducing their packet processing pressure. Packets are fragmented only on the source node.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 51

A route-policy can have multiple nodes, and each node can have multiple if-match and apply clauses. Which of the following statements are false?

Options:

A.

The operator between if-match clauses under a node is AND.

B.

The operator between nodes is AND.

C.

The operator between if-match clauses under a node is OR.

D.

The operator between nodes is OR.

Question 52

On Huawei firewalls, a larger priority value of a security zone indicates a higher priority. Which of the following is the default priority of the Trust zone?

Options:

A.

50

B.

85

C.

100

D.

5

Question 53

Which of the following values is the Reserved/Circuit Type field in the IIH packets sent by a Level-1-2 router on an IS-IS network?

Options:

A.

00

B.

11

C.

01

D.

10

Question 54

By default, a router interface sends PIM Hello messages at an interval of __________ seconds.

Options:

Question 55

As shown in the figure, SWA, SWB, SWC, and SWD run the Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP). Which of the following statements are true?

as

Options:

A.

Once receiving OPOUs, the edge port re-partlci pates in the calculation of the spanning tree.

B.

After a port is Configured as an edge port, the port can quickly enter the Forwarding state.

C.

You can enable the edge port on SWD ' s GEO/0/2 connected to the terminal so that this port can quickly enter the Forwarding state.

D.

You can enable the edge port on SWC ' s GE0/0/2 connected to the terminal so that this port can quickly enter the forwarding state.

Question 56

When an SSH client accesses an SSH server for the first time and the SSH server ' s public key is not configured on the SSH client, you can enable first-time authentication on the SSH client. This allows the SSH client to access the SSH server and saves the SSH server ' s public key on the SSH client. In this way, the next time the SSH client accesses the SSH server, the SSH client can use the saved public key to authenticate the SSH server.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 57

The native AC function allows an agile switch to integrate AC capabilities, achieving wired and wireless convergence. The agile switch centrally manages wired and wireless service traffic.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 58

By default, some security zones are created when Huawei firewalls are enabled. Which of the following security zones is created by users?

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

ISP

C.

Trust

D.

Local

Question 59

On the network shown in the following figure, the management VLAN is VLAN 10, and the AP is configured to obtain an IP address on the network segment 10.1.1.0/24 through DHCP. The AP, AC, and AR function as the DHCP client, DHCP relay agent, and DHCP server, respectively. Which of the following configurations for the DHCP relay agent and DHCP server are correct?

Options:

A.

[AC] dhcp server group AP

[AC-dhcp-server-group-AP] dhcp-server 172.21.1.2

[AC-dhcp-server-group-AP] quit

[AC] interface Vlanif 10

[AC-Vlanif 10] dhcp select relay

[AC-Vlanif 10] dhcp relay server-select AP

[AC-Vlanif 10] quit

B.

[AR] ip pool AP

[AR-ip-pool-AP] network 10.1.1.0 mask 24

[AR-ip-pool-AP] gateway-list 10.1.1.2

[AR-ip-pool-AP] excluded-ip-address 10.1.1.1

[AR-ip-pool-AP] quit

[AR] interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/1

[AR-GigabitEthernetO/O/1] dhcp select global

[AR-GigabitEthernet0/0/l] quit

[AR] ip route-static 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.21.1.1

C.

[AR] ip pool AP

[AR-ip-pool-AP] network 172.21.1.0 mask 24

[AR-ip-pool-AP] gateway-list 172.21.1.2

[AR-ip-pool-AP] excluded-ip-address 172.21.1.1

[AR-ip-pool-AP] quit

[AR] interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/1

[AR-GigabitEthernetO/0/1] dhcp select global

[AR-GigabitEthernetO/0/1] quit

[AR] ip route-static 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.21.1.1

D.

[AC] dhcp server group AP

[AC-dhcp-server-group-AP] dhcp-server 10.1.1.2

[AC-dhcp-server-group-AP] quit

[AC] interface Vlanif 10

[AC-Vlanif 10] dhcp select relay

[AC-Vlanif 10] dhcp relay server-select AP

[AC-VlaniflO] quit

Question 60

A Layer 2 switch supports multiple types of Ethernet interfaces. Similar to a trunk interface, a hybrid interface allows data frames from multiple VLANs to pass through. In addition, you can determine whether data frames from a VLAN sent out from a hybrid interface are tagged or untagged.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 61

What is the default sending interval of BFD packets?

Options:

A.

10s

B.

5s

C.

100ms

D.

1000ms

Question 62

The BFD Echo function checks the connectivity of the forwarding link by looping back packets. Which of the following statements are true about this function?

Options:

A.

If URPF is enabled on the peer end, BFD packets may be incorrectly discarded on the peer end.

B.

In the BFD Echo function, the device uses the IP address of the outbound interface as the source IP address by default.

C.

The BFD Echo function applies only to single-hop BFD sessions.

D.

When configuring a BFD session supporting the BFD echo function, you need to configure both the local and remote discriminators.

Question 63

Four routers run IS-IS and have established adjacencies. The area IDs and router levels are marked in the following figure. Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The LSDB of R2 does not contain the LSP of R4.

B.

The LSDB of R1 does not contain the LSP of R4.

C.

The LSDB of R2 does not contain the LSP of R3.

D.

The LSDB of R3 does not contain the LSP of R4.

Question 64

The administrator of an enterprise configures SNMPv3 on a device for communicating with the NMS (Network Management System) . After the configuration is complete, the display trapbuffer command output shows that there are traps in the trap buffer of the information center , but the NMS does not receive any of them . Which of the following may cause this problem?

Options:

A.

The SNMP version configured on the device is different from the SNMP version of traps sent by the device.

B.

The SNMPv3 password used by the NMS is incorrect.

C.

The size of packets sent by the NMS exceeds the threshold set on the device.

D.

The community name configured on the NMS is inconsistent with that configured on the device.

Question 65

To enable PC1 to access PC2 using the IP address of the firewall ' s GE0/0/2, you need to configure NAPT for source address translation. In the following figure, fill in the blank to complete the command. as

Options:

Question 66

An enterprise office network runs OSPF and is divided into multiple OSPF areas. Enterprise network engineers can configure route summarization on ASBRs to reduce the number of inter-area Type 3 LSAs, which in turn reduces the routing table size and improves device resource utilization.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 67

Which of the following statement regarding the display ospf peer command output is true?

Options:

A.

Address: 10.1,1.1 Indicates that the local interface address is 10.1.1.1.

B.

Through negotiation during DD packet exchange, the local end becomes the slave.

C.

Router ID indicates that the local router ID Is 10.1.1.1.

D.

The DR address is 10.1.1.1

Question 68

On an STP network, parameters used for role election, such as the root bridge ID, root path cost, and bridge ID, are all fields in BPDUs.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 69

An engineer sets the CAPWAP heartbeat detection interval to 20 of the active link before an active/standby switchover occurs?

Options:

A.

75s

B.

20s

C.

60s

D.

90s

Question 70

On an OSPF network, OSPF routers exchange LSAs to synchronize their LSDBs. If an OSPF router receives an LSA that does not exist in its LSDB, it updates its LSDB and floods the LSA.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 71

In VRRP networking, if VRRP is not configured to track an uplink interface and the uplink interface or link of the master device in a VRRP group fails, no switchover will be triggered. As a result, a traffic blackhole occurs.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 72

L2TP does not provide security encryption. Therefore, other security measures, such as IPsec, are required to ensure the security of the entire tunnel for data transmission.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 73

See the command output of a router below. Which of the following statements is true?

< R2 > display ospf interface GigabitEthernet 0/0/0 verbose

OSPF Process 1 with Router ID 10.0.2.2

Interface: 10.0.12.2 (GigabitEthernet 0/0/0)

Cost: 1 State: BDR Type: Broadcast MTU: 1500

Priority: 1

Designated Router: 10.0.12.1

Backup Designated Router: 10.0.12.2

Timers: Hello 10 , Dead 40 , Poll 120 , Retransmit 5 , Transmit Delay 1

Options:

A.

The router ID is 10.0.12.2.

B.

The interface cost is 1500.

C.

This router is a BDR.

D.

The interface IP address is 10.1.12.1.

Question 74

In IP multicast transmission , packets are transmitted from a source to a group of receivers . Which of the following statements are true about IP multicast technologies?

Options:

A.

Compared with broadcast, IP multicast prevents information flooding.

B.

Compared with broadcast, IP multicast effectively conserves network bandwidth.

C.

Compared with unicast, IP multicast improves information transmission security.

D.

Compared with unicast, IP multicast increases the load of information sources.

Question 75

When configuring an ACL on a router, you can specify a unique number or name to identify the ACL. Once a named ACL is created, it cannot be modified. You can only delete the named ACL and reconfigure it.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 76

On an RSTP network, if a port receives an RST BPDU and finds that its buffered RST BPDU is superior to the received RST BPDU, the port discards the received RST BPDU without responding.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 77

On an IS-IS network, two directly connected routers establish a neighbor relationship through the three-way handshake mechanism by default, regardless of whether the network type is P2P or broadcast.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 78

The typical characteristics of the AI era are that it focuses on data, explores data value, and improves AI efficiency. Therefore, the core requirement of AI for data center networks is speed, meaning low latency.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 79

The following figure shows the BGP state switching mechanism. Drag the following BGP states to the corresponding sequence numbers.

as

as

Options:

Question 80

When a BGP device sends an Open message to establish a peer connection, which of the following information is carried?

Options:

A.

Local AS number

B.

Router ID

C.

NLRI

D.

Hold time

Question 81

After HSB is configured, the HSB channel fails to be established and cannot back up information on the active device to the standby device. What are the possible causes for this HSB function failure?

Options:

A.

The TCP channel is not established.

B.

The retransmission count and interval for HSB service packets are different on the two devices.

C.

The two ACs have the same priority.

D.

The source IP address and port number of the local end are different from the destination IP address and port number of the remote end.

Question 82

There are two types of BGP peer relationships : EBGP and IBGP . When configuring EBGP, ensure that the peer IP address is routable and the UDP connection can be correctly established.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 83

What is the correct procedure for a VLAN pool to assign terminals to VLANs.

as

Options:

Question 84

Which of the following statements about multicast packet forwarding is true?

Options:

A.

If a multicast data packet fails the RPF check, the packet must have been received through a sub-optimal interface. However, this interface still receives and forwards the multicast traffic downstream.

B.

IGMP snooping cannot control the scope of multicast traffic flooding on a Layer 2 network.

C.

The source address of a multicast packet is a unicast address.

D.

In multicast transmission, the destination address of a packet can be the unicast address of a host.

Question 85

To reduce the workload of configuring VPN instances, the administrator can import interface IP addresses and features to the device in batches using a script, and then manually bind the interfaces to VPN instances.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 86

When a router that runs BGP receives an unreachable route from a peer, which of the following measures will be taken by the router?

Options:

A.

It accepts the route and adds the route to the IP routing table.

B.

It replies with an error message to notify the peer that the route is unreachable.

C.

It accepts the route and adds the route to the BGP routing table.

D.

It discards the route.

Question 87

CPU attack defense uses a multi-level security mechanism to implement hierarchical device protection. Match the following levels with the corresponding protection functions.

as

Options:

Question 88

On an OSPF network, if two routers with the same router ID run in different areas and one of the routers is an ASBR, LSA flapping occurs.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 89

When receiving a packet, a router matches the packet against ACL rules . The ACL matching result is either Matched or Unmatched . If the matching result is Unmatched , which of the following are possible causes?

Options:

A.

All rules are traversed but no matching rule is found.

B.

The packet matches an ACL rule with the deny action.

C.

No ACL is configured on the device.

D.

An ACL is configured but it does not contain any rules.

Question 90

The following figure shows a campus network . IS-IS is configured on all routers, and the network runs normally.

as

By default, which of the following routers have specific routes on the entire network?

Options:

A.

R2

B.

R3

C.

R1

D.

R7

Question 91

A firewall receives a packet that PC1 sends to PC2. Which of the following statements are true?

as

Options:

A.

The packet does not match any security policy.

B.

The packet matches security policy rule 1, and the firewall forwards the packet.

C.

No source or destination security zone is specified in security policy rule 2, indicating that any security zone is a match.

D.

The packet matches security policy rule 1, and the firewall discards the packet.

Question 92

When deploying BFD, you need to adjust some parameters so that it can better detect the network status. Which of the following statements is false about BFD optimization?

Options:

A.

After a high priority is configured for BFD packets, BFD packets are preferentially forwarded.

B.

To quickly learn about the network status and performance requirements, you can set the interval for sending BFD packets to the minimum value.

C.

On a live network, some devices switch traffic only when a BFD session changes to the Up state. If a routing protocol goes Up later than an interface, no route is available for switching traffic back, leading to traffic loss. To resolve this issue, configure a delay to compensate for the time difference caused when the routing protocol goes Up later than the interface.

D.

If a BFD session flaps, master/backup switchovers are frequently performed on the application associated with the BFD session. To prevent this, set the WTR time of the BFD session.

Question 93

If the interval for two consecutive packets of a TCP session reaching the firewall is longer than the aging time of the session, the firewall deletes the session information from the session table to ensure network security.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 94

The figure shows the VRRP status switchover events . Match these events with their sequence numbers.

as

as

Options:

Question 95

Bidirectional route re-advertisement enables a border router to import routes between two routing domains. However, this may cause sub-optimal routes and routing loops.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 96

IGMP group entries play an important role in multicast forwarding. An administrator runs a command to view information about a multicast entry. The information is as follows:

sql

Copy

< HUAWEI > display igmp group

Interface group report information

Vlanif100(10.1.6.2):

Total 1 IGMP Group reported

Group Address Last Reporter Uptime Expires

225.1.1.2 10.1.6.10 00:02:04 00:01:17

Given this, which of the following statements are true?

Options:

A.

This entry can be used to construct the corresponding (S, G) entry.

B.

This entry is created when the device receives an IGMP Join message from a user.

C.

Expires indicates the aging time of the IGMP group.

D.

225.1.1.2 is the address of the group that the user joins.

Question 97

When multiple access channels are set for the same access requirement, the insecure access channels are not used and secure access channels are selected in normal cases. Which of the following are secure access channels?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

Telnet

C.

SNMPv2

D.

SFTP

Question 98

A large enterprise deploys WLAN in VRRP HSB mode to ensure network reliability.

In this networking mode, which of the following data backup modes are supported? (Select all that apply)

Options:

A.

Real-time backup

B.

Scheduled synchronization

C.

Batch backup

D.

Cloud backup

Question 99

OSPF has several types of special areas, which are used to reduce the LSDB size and improve device performance.

Which of the following LSAs cannot be in a totally stub area?

Options:

A.

Type 3 specific LSA

B.

Type 1 LSA

C.

Type 3 LSA that describes a default route

D.

Type 2 LSA

Question 100

RSTP provides different functions in different scenarios. Which of the following statements Is false?

Options:

A.

After TC-BPDU attack defense function is enabled, you can set the number of times the switch processes TC BPDUs within a certain period

B.

The role of the designated port that is enabled with root protection cannot be changed

C.

If the edge port on the switch enabled with BPDU protection receives RST BPDU, the switch sets the edge port as a non-edge-port and triggers STP calculation

D.

When the designated port enabled with root protection receives optimal RST BPDUs, the port enters the Discarding state and does not forward packets. If the port does not receive optimal RST BPDUs within a certain period of time, the port will automatically restore to the Forwarding state

Question 101

On an OSPF network, different device roles generate different types of LSAs that vary in function. Which of the following types of LSAs cannot be generated by a pure ASBR?

Options:

A.

Type4LSA

B.

Type2LSA

C.

Type7LSA

D.

Type3LSA

Question 102

ICMPv6 messages are classified as error or informational messages.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 103

On an IS-IS network, Level-1 routers can access the IS-IS backbone area only through Level-1-2 routers.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 104

On an IS-IS network, the length and components of a NET are the same as those of an NSAP . Which of the following NET fields is used to uniquely identify a host or router in an area?

Options:

A.

System ID

B.

IDI

C.

SEL

D.

Area Address

Question 105

In the OSPF protocol, inter-area route calculation involves only Router LSA, Network LSA, and Summary LSA.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FLASE

Question 106

In addition to a route reflector, the confederation is another method that reduces the number of IBGP connections in an AS.

Which of the following statements are true about the confederation technology? (Choose all that apply)

Options:

A.

This technology is applicable to large-scale networks.

B.

Special EBGP connections are established among sub-ASs in a confederation, and the sub-ASs need to be fully meshed.

C.

All member devices in a confederation need to be reconfigured.

D.

The logical topology does not need to be changed when a confederation is used.

Question 107

An IP prefix list is a common matching tool used in routing policies. Which of the following cannot be configured as matching conditions in an IP prefix list on a Huawei router?

Options:

A.

Port number

B.

Mask

C.

Action

D.

Index

Question 108

Which of the following configurations are not mandatory when an administrator configures VRRP?

Options:

A.

Preemption mode

B.

Preemption delay

C.

Virtual router priority

D.

Virtual IP address

Question 109

The VRID of the VRRP virtual router is 3 and the virtual IP address is 100.1.1.10. What is the virtual MAC address?

Options:

A.

01-00-5E-00-01-64

B.

01-00-5E-00-01-03

C.

00-00-5E-00-01-64

D.

00-00-5E-00-01-03

Question 110

OSPF networks are classified into four types of networks by link layer protocol. Which of the following types of networks do not require DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

Broadcast

B.

P2P

C.

NBMA

D.

P2MP

Question 111

As shown in the figure, the stateful inspection firewall forwards the packet because the packet matches the session status of the firewall.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 112

On an OSPF network, one router with P2P as the network type is directly connected to another router with P2MP as the network type. If the Hello intervals on the two routers are changed to be the same, neighbor relationship establishment and LSDB synchronization are not affected.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 113

When two routers exchange LSDB information using DD packets, a master/slave relationship is formed first, the router with a larger router ID is the master, and determine the MS bit.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 114

Which of the following statements regarding the OSPF protocol is false?

Options:

A.

Each OSPF router uses only one Router-LSA to describe the local active connection status of an area.

B.

Routing information can be advertised only between backbone and non-backbone areas and cannot be advertised directly between non-backbone areas.

C.

Router-LSA describes four connection types: P2P, TransNet, SubNet, and virtual link.

D.

Link State ID in a Type 3 LSA indicates the router ID of an ABR.

Page: 1 / 38
Total 382 questions