Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge Questions and Answers
Which of the following is the MOST important strategy and governance documents to provide to the auditor prior to a cloud service provider review?
Options:
Enterprise cloud strategy and policy, as well as inventory of third-party attestation reports
Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments, including questionnaires that are required to be completed to assess risk associated with use of third-party services
Enterprise cloud strategy and policy, as well as the enterprise cloud security strategy
Inventory of third-party attestation reports and enterprise cloud security strategy
Answer:
CExplanation:
The best approach for an auditor to review the operating effectiveness of the password requirement is to review the configuration settings on the Configuration Management (CM) tool and verify that the CM tool agents are functioning correctly on the VMs. This method ensures that the password policies are being enforced as intended and that the CM tool is effectively managing the configurations across the organization’s virtual machines. It provides a balance between relying solely on automated tools and manual verification processes.
References = This approach is supported by best practices in cloud security and auditing, which recommend a combination of automated tools and manual checks to ensure the effectiveness of security controls123. The use of CM tools for enforcing password policies is a common practice, and their effectiveness must be regularly verified to maintain the security posture of cloud services.
Which of the following is an example of a corrective control?
Options:
A central antivirus system installing the latest signature files before allowing a connection to the network
All new employees having standard access rights until their manager approves privileged rights
Unsuccessful access attempts being automatically logged for investigation
Privileged access to critical information systems requiring a second factor of authentication using a soft token
Answer:
CExplanation:
A corrective control is a measure taken to correct or reduce the impact of an error, deviation, or unwanted activity1. Corrective control can be either manual or automated, depending on the type of control used. Corrective control can involve procedures, manuals, systems, patches, quarantines, terminations, reboots, or default dates1. A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is an example of a corrective control.
Unsuccessful access attempts being automatically logged for investigation is an example of a corrective control because it is a response to a potential security incident that aims to identify and resolve the cause and prevent future occurrences2. Logging and investigating failed login attempts can help detect unauthorized or malicious attempts to access sensitive data or systems and take appropriate actions to mitigate the risk.
The other options are examples of preventive controls, which are designed to prevent problems from occurring in the first place3. Preventive controls can include:
- A central antivirus system installing the latest signature files before allowing a connection to the network: This is a preventive control because it prevents malware infection by blocking potentially harmful connections and updating the antivirus software regularly4.
- All new employees having standard access rights until their manager approves privileged rights: This is a preventive control because it prevents unauthorized access by enforcing the principle of least privilege and requiring approval for granting higher-level permissions5.
- Privileged access to critical information systems requiring a second factor of authentication using a soft token: This is a preventive control because it prevents credential theft or compromise by adding an extra layer of security to verify the identity of the user.
References:
- What is a corrective control? - Answers1, section on Corrective control
- Detective controls - SaaS Lens - docs.aws.amazon.com2, section on Unsuccessful login attempts
- Internal control: how do preventive and detective controls work?3, section on Preventive Controls
- What Are Security Controls? - F54, section on Preventive Controls
- The 3 Types of Internal Controls (With Examples) | Layer Blog5, section on Preventive Controls
- What are the 3 Types of Internal Controls? — RiskOptics - Reciprocity, section on Preventive Controls
is it important for the individuals in charge of cloud compliance to understand the organization's past?
Options:
To determine the current state of the organization's compliance
To determine the risk profile of the organization
To address any open findings from previous external audits
To verify whether the measures implemented from the lessons learned are effective
Answer:
CExplanation:
Understanding the organization’s past is crucial for individuals in charge of cloud compliance, particularly to address any open findings from previous external audits. This historical perspective is essential because it allows the compliance team to identify recurring issues, understand the context of past non-compliances, and ensure that corrective actions have been taken and are effective. It also helps in anticipating potential future compliance challenges based on past trends and patterns.
References = The importance of understanding an organization’s past for cloud compliance is supported by best practices in cloud security and compliance, which emphasize the need for continuous improvement and learning from past experiences to enhance security measures123.
An independent contractor is assessing the security maturity of a Software as a Service (SaaS) company against industry standards. The SaaS company has developed and hosted all its products using the cloud services provided by a third-party cloud service provider. What is the optimal and most efficient mechanism to assess the controls provider is responsible for?
Options:
Review the provider's published questionnaires.
Review third-party audit reports.
Directly audit the provider.
Send a supplier questionnaire to the provider.
Answer:
BExplanation:
The optimal and most efficient mechanism to assess the controls that the provider is responsible for is to review third-party audit reports. Third-party audit reports are independent and objective assessments of the provider’s security, compliance, and performance, conducted by qualified and reputable auditors. Third-party audit reports can provide assurance and evidence that the provider meets the industry standards and best practices, as well as the contractual and legal obligations with the SaaS company. Third-party audit reports can also cover a wide range of controls, such as data security, encryption, identity and access management, incident response, disaster recovery, and service level agreements. Some examples of third-party audit reports are ISO 27001 certification, SOC 1/2/3 reports, CSA STAR certification, and FedRAMP authorization123.
Reviewing the provider’s published questionnaires (A) may not be optimal or efficient, as the published questionnaires may not be comprehensive or up-to-date, and may not reflect the actual state of the provider’s controls. The published questionnaires may also be biased or inaccurate, as they are produced by the provider themselves.
Directly auditing the provider © may not be feasible or necessary, as the independent contractor may not have access to the provider’s environment or data, and may not have the authority or expertise to conduct such an audit. The independent contractor should rely on the third-party audit reports and certifications to assess the provider’s compliance with relevant standards and regulations.
Sending a supplier questionnaire to the provider (D) may not be optimal or efficient, as the supplier questionnaire may not cover all the aspects of the provider’s controls, and may not provide sufficient evidence or assurance of the provider’s security maturity. The supplier questionnaire may also take a long time to complete and verify, and may not be consistent with the industry standards and best practices. References :=
- How to Evaluate Cloud Service Provider Security (Checklist)
- Cloud service review process - Cloud Adoption Framework
- How to choose a cloud service provider | Microsoft Azure
Which of the following is the reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ)?
Options:
Cloud service providers need the CAIQ to improve quality of customer service.
Cloud service providers can document their security and compliance controls.
Cloud service providers can document roles and responsibilities for cloud security.
Cloud users can use CAIQ to sign statement of work (SOW) with cloud access security
Answer:
BExplanation:
The reason for designing the Consensus Assessments Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) is to enable cloud service providers to document their security and compliance controls in a standardized and transparent way. The CAIQ is a set of yes/no questions that correspond to the controls of the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a framework of best practices for cloud security. The CAIQ helps cloud service providers to demonstrate their adherence to the CCM and to provide evidence of their security posture to potential customers, auditors, and regulators. The CAIQ also helps cloud customers and auditors to assess the security capabilities of cloud service providers and to compare different providers based on their responses. The CAIQ is part of the CSA STAR program, which is a cloud security assurance program that offers various levels of certification and attestation for cloud service providers.12 References := What is CAIQ? | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance3; Consensus Assessment Initiative Questionnaire (CAIQ) v3.1 [No | CSA4
Which of the following are the three MAIN phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology?
Options:
Initiation — Execution — Monitoring and Controlling
Plan - Develop - Release
Preparation — Execution - Peer Review and Publication
Answer:
CExplanation:
The three main phases of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) mapping methodology are preparation, execution, and peer review and publication. The CCM mapping methodology is a process to map the CCM controls to other standards, regulations, or frameworks that are relevant for cloud security. The mapping helps to identify the commonalities and differences between the CCM and the other standards, regulations, or frameworks, and to provide guidance for cloud service providers and customers on how to achieve compliance with multiple requirements using the CCM. The mapping methodology consists of the following phases1:
- Preparation: This phase involves defining the scope, objectives, and deliverables of the mapping project, as well as identifying the stakeholders, resources, and tools needed. This phase also includes conducting a preliminary analysis of the CCM and the other standard, regulation, or framework to be mapped, and establishing the mapping criteria and rules.
- Execution: This phase involves performing the actual mapping of the CCM controls to the other standard, regulation, or framework using a spreadsheet template. This phase also includes documenting the mapping results, providing explanations and justifications for each mapping decision, and resolving any issues or conflicts that may arise during the mapping process.
- Peer Review and Publication: This phase involves validating and verifying the quality and accuracy of the mapping results by conducting a peer review with subject matter experts from both the CCM working group and the other standard, regulation, or framework organization. This phase also includes finalizing and publishing the mapping document as a CSA artifact, and communicating and promoting the mapping to the relevant audiences.
References := Methodology for the Mapping of the Cloud Controls Matrix1
What is a sign that an organization has adopted a shift-left concept of code release cycles?
Options:
Large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems
Incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early
A waterfall model remove resources through the development to release phases
Maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits
Answer:
BExplanation:
The shift-left concept of code release cycles is a practice that aims to integrate testing, quality, and performance evaluation early in the software development life cycle, often before any code is written. This helps to find and prevent defects, improve quality, and enable faster delivery of secure software. One of the key aspects of the shift-left concept is the incorporation of automation to identify and address software code problems early, such as using continuous integration, continuous delivery, and continuous testing tools. Automation can help reduce manual errors, speed up feedback loops, and increase efficiency and reliability123
The other options are not correct because:
- Option A is not correct because large entities with slower release cadences and geographically dispersed systems are more likely to face challenges in adopting the shift-left concept, as they may have more complex and legacy systems, dependencies, and processes that hinder agility and collaboration. The shift-left concept requires a culture of continuous improvement, experimentation, and learning that may not be compatible with traditional or siloed organizations4
- Option C is not correct because a waterfall model is the opposite of the shift-left concept, as it involves sequential phases of development, testing, and deployment that are performed late in the software development life cycle. A waterfall model does not allow for early detection and correction of defects, feedback, or changes, and can result in higher costs, delays, and risks5
- Option D is not correct because maturity of start-up entities with high-iteration to low-volume code commits is not a sign of the shift-left concept, but rather a sign of the agile or lean software development methodologies. These methodologies focus on delivering value to customers by delivering working software in short iterations or sprints, with frequent feedback and adaptation. While these methodologies can support the shift-left concept by enabling faster testing and delivery cycles, they are not equivalent or synonymous with it6
References: 1: AWS. What is DevSecOps? - Developer Security Operations Explained - AWS. [Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Dynatrace. Shift left vs shift right: A DevOps mystery solved - Dynatrace news. [Online]. Available: 2. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: BMC Software. Shift Left Testing: What, Why & How To Shift Left – BMC Software | Blogs. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: GitLab. How to shift left with continuous integration | GitLab. [Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: DZone. DevOps and The Shift-Left Principle - DZone. [Online]. Available: 5. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Devopedia. Shift Left - Devopedia. [Online]. Available: 6. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
The MOST important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the:
Options:
shared responsibility model.
effectiveness of the controls.
risk reporting.
risk ownership
Answer:
AExplanation:
The most important factor to consider when implementing cloud-related controls is the shared responsibility model. The shared responsibility model is a framework that defines the roles and responsibilities of cloud service providers (CSPs) and cloud customers (CCs) in ensuring the security and compliance of cloud computing environments. The shared responsibility model helps to clarify which security tasks are handled by the CSP and which tasks are handled by the CC, depending on the type of cloud service model (IaaS, PaaS, SaaS) and the specific contractual agreements. The shared responsibility model also helps to avoid gaps or overlaps in security controls, and to allocate resources and accountability accordingly12.
References:
- Shared responsibility in the cloud - Microsoft Azure
- Understanding the Shared Responsibilities Model in Cloud Services - ISACA
Which of the following is a good candidate for continuous auditing?
Options:
Procedures
Governance
Cryptography and authentication
Documentation quality
Answer:
CExplanation:
Cryptography and authentication are good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are critical aspects of cloud security that require constant monitoring and verification. Cryptography and authentication refer to the methods and techniques that ensure the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and communications in the cloud environment. Cryptography involves the use of encryption algorithms and keys to protect data from unauthorized access or modification. Authentication involves the use of credentials and tokens to verify the identity and access rights of users or devices. Continuous auditing can help to assess the effectiveness and compliance of cryptography and authentication controls, such as data encryption, key management, password policies, multifactor authentication, single sign-on, etc. Continuous auditing can also help to detect and alert any anomalies or issues that may compromise or affect cryptography and authentication, such as data breaches, key leakage, password cracking, unauthorized access, etc123.
Procedures (A) are not good candidates for continuous auditing, as they are not specific or measurable aspects of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Procedures refer to the steps or actions that are performed to achieve a certain objective or result in a specific domain or context. Procedures may vary depending on the type, nature, or complexity of the task or process involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Procedures may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess their effectiveness or compliance123.
Governance (B) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Governance refers to the framework or system that defines the roles, responsibilities, policies, standards, procedures, and practices for managing and overseeing an organization or a domain. Governance may involve multiple stakeholders, such as management, board of directors, regulators, auditors, customers, etc., who have different interests, expectations, or perspectives. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Governance may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123.
Documentation quality (D) is not a good candidate for continuous auditing, as it is not a specific or measurable aspect of cloud security that can be easily automated or tested. Documentation quality refers to the degree to which the documents that describe or support an organization or a domain are accurate, complete, consistent, relevant, and understandable. Documentation quality may depend on various factors, such as the purpose, audience, format, style, language, structure, content, etc., of the documents involved. Continuous auditing requires a clear and consistent definition of the expected outcome or output, as well as the criteria or metrics to evaluate it. Documentation quality may not provide such a definition or criteria, and may require human judgment or interpretation to assess its effectiveness or compliance123. References :=
- Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards …
- Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards …
- Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to:
Options:
ISO/IEC 27001 implementation.
GB/T 22080-2008.
SOC 2 Type 1 or 2 reports.
GDPR CoC certification.
Answer:
AExplanation:
The CSA STAR Certification is based on criteria outlined in the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) in addition to ISO/IEC 27001 implementation. ISO/IEC 27001 is an international standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). The CSA STAR Certification is a third-party independent assessment of the security of a cloud service provider, which demonstrates the alignment of the provider’s ISMS with the CCM best practices. The CSA STAR Certification has three levels: Level 1 (STAR Certification), Level 2 (STAR Attestation), and Level 3 (STAR Continuous Monitoring).1 [2][2] References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 971; CSA STAR Certification, Overview[2][2]
Which of the following would be considered as a factor to trust in a cloud service provider?
Options:
The level of willingness to cooperate
The level of exposure for public information
The level of open source evidence available
The level of proven technical skills
Answer:
DExplanation:
Trust in a cloud service provider is fundamentally based on the assurance that the provider can deliver secure and reliable services. The level of proven technical skills is a critical factor because it demonstrates the provider’s capability to implement and maintain robust security measures, manage complex cloud infrastructures, and respond effectively to technical challenges. Technical expertise is essential for establishing trust, as it directly impacts the security and performance of the cloud services offered.
References = The importance of technical skills in establishing trust is supported by the resources provided by ISACA and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA). These resources emphasize the need for cloud service providers to have a strong technical foundation to ensure the fulfillment of internal requirements, proper controls, and compliance with regulations, which are crucial for maintaining customer trust and mitigating risks1234.
Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?
Options:
Processes and systems to be audited
Updated audit work program
Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
Testing procedure to be performed
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the definition of audit scope, it is the extent and boundaries of an audit, which include the audit objectives, the activities and documents covered, the time period and locations audited, and the related activities not audited1 Audit scope determines how deeply an audit is performed and may vary depending on the type of audit. Audit scope can also mean the examination of a person or the inspection of the books, records, or accounts of a person for tax purposes1
The most important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider is the processes and systems to be audited. This document defines the specific areas and aspects of the cloud service provider that will be subject to the audit, such as the cloud service delivery model, the cloud deployment model, the cloud security domains, the cloud service level agreements, the cloud governance framework, etc2 The processes and systems to be audited document also helps to identify the risks, controls, criteria, and objectives of the audit, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the auditors and the auditees3 The processes and systems to be audited document is essential for planning and performing an effective and efficient audit of a cloud service provider.
The other options are not correct because:
- Option B is not correct because the updated audit work program is not an audit scope document, but rather an audit planning document. The audit work program is a set of detailed instructions or procedures that guide the auditor in conducting the audit activities4 The audit work program is based on the audit scope, but it does not define it. The audit work program may also change during the course of the audit, depending on the findings and issues encountered by the auditor4
- Option C is not correct because the documentation criteria for the audit evidence is not an audit scope document, but rather an audit quality document. The documentation criteria for the audit evidence is a set of standards or guidelines that specify what constitutes sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the auditor’s conclusions and opinions5 The documentation criteria for the audit evidence is derived from the audit scope, but it does not determine it. The documentation criteria for the audit evidence may also vary depending on the nature and source of the evidence collected by the auditor5
- Option D is not correct because the testing procedure to be performed is not an audit scope document, but rather an audit execution document. The testing procedure to be performed is a set of steps or actions that describe how to test or verify a specific control or process within the cloud service provider6 The testing procedure to be performed is aligned with the audit scope, but it does not establish it. The testing procedure to be performed may also differ depending on the type and level of testing required by the auditor6
References: 1: AUDIT SCOPE DEFINITION - VentureLine 2: Audit Scope and Criteria - Auditor Training Online 3: Open Certification Framework | CSA - Cloud Security Alliance 4: Audit Work Program Definition - Audit Work Program Example 5: INTERNATIONAL STANDARD ON AUDITING 230 AUDIT DOCUMENTATION CONTENTS - IFAC 6: What are Testing Procedures? - Definition from Techopedia
Which of the following is the BEST tool to perform cloud security control audits?
Options:
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)
Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2
ISO 27001
Answer:
BExplanation:
The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is the best tool to perform cloud security control audits, as it is a comprehensive framework that provides organizations with a detailed understanding of security concepts and principles that are aligned to the cloud model. The CCM covers 16 domains of cloud security, such as data security, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, and audit assurance and compliance. The CCM also maps to other standards, such as ISO 27001, NIST SP 800-53, PCI DSS, COBIT, and GDPR, to facilitate compliance and assurance activities1.
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is not a tool, but rather a regulation that aims to protect the personal data and privacy of individuals in the European Union (EU) and the European Economic Area (EEA). The GDPR imposes strict requirements on organizations that process personal data of individuals in these regions, such as obtaining consent, ensuring data security, reporting breaches, and respecting data subject rights. The GDPR is relevant for cloud security audits, but it is not a comprehensive framework that covers all aspects of cloud security2.
The Federal Information Processing Standard (FIPS) 140-2 is not a tool, but rather a standard that specifies the security requirements for cryptographic modules used by federal agencies and other organizations. The FIPS 140-2 defines four levels of security, from Level 1 (lowest) to Level 4 (highest), based on the design and implementation of the cryptographic module. The FIPS 140-2 is important for cloud security audits, especially for organizations that handle sensitive or classified information, but it is not a comprehensive framework that covers all aspects of cloud security3.
ISO 27001 is a standard that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining and continually improving an information security management system (ISMS). An ISMS is a systematic approach to managing information security risks and ensuring the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information assets. ISO 27001 is relevant for cloud security audits, as it provides a framework for assessing and improving the security posture of an organization. However, ISO 27001 does not provide specific guidance or controls for cloud services, which is why ISO 27017:2015 was developed as an extension to ISO 27001 for cloud services4. References :=
- Cloud Controls Matrix | Cloud Security Alliance
- General Data Protection Regulation - Wikipedia
- FIPS PUB 140-2 - NIST
- ISO/IEC 27001:2013(en), Information technology ? Security techniques …
What legal documents should be provided to the auditors in relation to risk management?
Options:
Enterprise cloud strategy and policy
Contracts and service level agreements (SLAs) of cloud service providers
Policies and procedures established around third-party risk assessments
Inventory of third-party attestation reports
Answer:
BExplanation:
Contracts and SLAs are legal documents that define the roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations of both the cloud service provider (CSP) and the cloud customer. They also specify the terms and conditions for service delivery, performance, availability, security, compliance, data protection, incident response, dispute resolution, liability, and termination. An auditor should review these documents to assess the alignment of the CSP’s services with the customer’s business requirements and risk appetite, as well as to identify any gaps or inconsistencies that may pose legal risks. References:
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 35-36
- Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, GRM-01: Contracts and SLAs
When performing audits in relation to business continuity management and operational resilience strategy, what would be the MOST critical aspect to audit in relation to the strategy of the cloud customer that should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider?
Options:
Validate whether the strategy covers all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption.
Validate whether the strategy is developed by both cloud service providers and cloud service consumers within the acceptable limits of their risk appetite.
Validate whether the strategy covers all activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, aligned to the risk appetite of the organization including the invocation of continuity plans and crisis management capabilities.
Answer:
AWhich of the following is MOST important to ensure effective operationalization of cloud security controls?
Options:
Identifying business requirements
Comparing different control frameworks
Assessing existing risks
Training and awareness
Answer:
DExplanation:
Effective operationalization of cloud security controls is highly dependent on the level of training and awareness among the staff who implement and manage these controls. Without proper understanding and awareness of security policies, procedures, and the specific controls in place, even the most sophisticated security measures can be rendered ineffective. Training ensures that the personnel are equipped with the necessary knowledge to perform their duties securely, while awareness programs help in maintaining a security-conscious culture within the organization.
References = This answer is supported by the CCAK materials which highlight the importance of training and awareness in cloud security. The Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) also emphasizes the need for security education and the role it plays in the successful implementation of security controls1234.
Application programming interfaces (APIs) are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they:
Options:
are the asset with private IP addresses.
are generally the most exposed part.
could be poorly designed.
act as a very effective backdoor.
Answer:
BExplanation:
APIs are likely to be attacked continuously by bad actors because they are generally the most exposed part of an application or system. APIs serve as the interface between different components or services, and often expose sensitive data or functionality to the outside world. APIs can be accessed by anyone with an Internet connection, and can be easily discovered by scanning or crawling techniques. Therefore, APIs are a prime target for attackers who want to exploit vulnerabilities, steal data, or disrupt services.
References:
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 88-89.
- OWASP, The Ten Most Critical API Security Risks - OWASP Foundation, 2019, p. 4-5
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is MOST important for the auditor to be aware that the:
Options:
client organization has a clear understanding of the provider s suppliers.
suppliers are accountable for the provider's service that they are providing.
client organization does not need to worry about the provider's suppliers, as this is the
provider's responsibility.
client organization and provider are both responsible for the provider's suppliers.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Regarding suppliers of a cloud service provider, it is most important for the auditor to be aware that the client organization has a clear understanding of the provider’s suppliers. This is because cloud services often involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is essential for the client organization to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the provider’s suppliers and to establish clear and transparent agreements with them regarding their roles, responsibilities, expectations, and obligations.12
An auditor should be aware of the importance of the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers because it provides a basis for assessing the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and its supply chain. An auditor can use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to verify that the client organization has conducted a thorough due diligence of the provider’s suppliers and their capabilities, qualifications, certifications, and reputation. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to evaluate whether the client organization has implemented adequate controls and processes to monitor, audit, or verify the security and compliance status of their cloud services and data across the supply chain. An auditor can also use the client organization’s understanding of the provider’s suppliers to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the client organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34
References := Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.01; HIDDEN INTERDEPENDENCIES BETWEEN INFORMATION AND ORGANIZATIONAL …2; Cloud Computing: The Audit Challenge - ISACA3; Cloud Computing: Audit Considerations - AICPA4
Which of the following is a detective control that may be identified in a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider?
Options:
Data encryption
Incident management
Network segmentation
Privileged access monitoring
Answer:
DExplanation:
A detective control is a type of internal control that seeks to uncover problems in a company’s processes once they have occurred1. Examples of detective controls include physical inventory checks, reviews of account reports and reconciliations, as well as assessments of current controls1. Detective controls use platform telemetry to detect misconfigurations, vulnerabilities, and potentially malicious activity in the cloud environment2.
In a Software as a Service (SaaS) service provider, privileged access monitoring is a detective control that can help identify unauthorized or suspicious activities by users who have elevated permissions to access or modify cloud resources, data, or configurations. Privileged access monitoring can involve logging, auditing, alerting, and reporting on the actions performed by privileged users3. This can help detect security incidents, compliance violations, or operational errors in a timely manner and enable appropriate responses.
Data encryption, incident management, and network segmentation are examples of preventive controls, which are designed to prevent problems from occurring in the first place. Data encryption protects the confidentiality and integrity of data by transforming it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key1. Incident management is a process that aims to restore normal service operations as quickly as possible after a disruption or an adverse event4. Network segmentation divides a network into smaller subnetworks that have different access levels and security policies, reducing the attack surface and limiting the impact of a breach1.
References:
- Detective controls - SaaS Lens - docs.aws.amazon.com3, section on Privileged access monitoring
- Detective controls | Cloud Architecture Center | Google Cloud2, section on Detective controls
- Internal control: how do preventive and detective controls work?4, section on SaaS Solutions to Support Internal Control
- Detective Control: Definition, Examples, Vs. Preventive Control1, section on What Is a Detective Control?
Which of the following is MOST important to manage risk from cloud vendors who might accidentally introduce unnecessary risk to an organization by adding new features to their solutions?
Options:
Deploying new features using cloud orchestration tools
Performing prior due diligence of the vendor
Establishing responsibility in the vendor contract
Implementing service level agreements (SLAs) around changes to baseline configurations
Answer:
DExplanation:
Implementing service level agreements (SLAs) around changes to baseline configurations is the most important way to manage risk from cloud vendors who might accidentally introduce unnecessary risk to an organization by adding new features to their solutions. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract or a part of a contract that defines the expected level of service, performance, and quality that a cloud vendor will provide to an organization. An SLA can also specify the roles and responsibilities, the communication channels, the escalation procedures, and the penalties or remedies for non-compliance12.
Implementing SLAs around changes to baseline configurations can help an organization to manage the risk from cloud vendors who might add new features to their solutions without proper testing, validation, or notification. Baseline configurations are the standard or reference settings for a system or a network that are used to measure and maintain its security and performance. Changes to baseline configurations can introduce new vulnerabilities, errors, or incompatibilities that can affect the functionality, availability, or security of the system or network34. Therefore, an SLA can help an organization to ensure that the cloud vendor follows a change management process that includes steps such as risk assessment, impact analysis, approval, documentation, notification, testing, and rollback. An SLA can also help an organization to monitor and verify the changes made by the cloud vendor and to report and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from them.
The other options are not the most effective ways to manage the risk from cloud vendors who might add new features to their solutions. Option A, deploying new features using cloud orchestration tools, is not a good way to manage the risk because cloud orchestration tools are used to automate and coordinate the deployment and management of complex cloud services and resources. Cloud orchestration tools do not address the issue of whether the new features added by the cloud vendor are necessary, secure, or compatible with the organization’s system or network. Option B, performing prior due diligence of the vendor, is not a good way to manage the risk because prior due diligence is a process that involves evaluating and verifying the background, reputation, capabilities, and compliance of a potential cloud vendor before entering into a contract with them. Prior due diligence does not address the issue of how the cloud vendor will handle changes to their solutions after the contract is signed. Option C, establishing responsibility in the vendor contract, is not a good way to manage the risk because establishing responsibility in the vendor contract is a process that involves defining and assigning the roles and obligations of both parties in relation to the cloud service delivery and performance. Establishing responsibility in the vendor contract does not address the issue of how the cloud vendor will communicate and coordinate with the organization about changes to their solutions. References :=
- What is an SLA? Best practices for service-level agreements | CIO1
- Service Level Agreements - Cloud Security Alliance2
- What is Baseline Configuration? - Definition from Techopedia3
- Baseline Configuration - Cloud Security Alliance4
- Change Management - Cloud Security Alliance
- Incident Response - Cloud Security Alliance
- What is Cloud Orchestration? - Definition from Techopedia
- Due Diligence - Cloud Security Alliance
- Contractual Security Requirements - Cloud Security Alliance
Which of the following has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers?
Options:
BSI IT-basic protection catalogue
Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS)
German IDW PS 951
BSI Criteria Catalogue C5
Answer:
DExplanation:
The BSI Criteria Catalogue C5 is a document that has been provided by the Federal Office for Information Security (BSI) in Germany to support customers in selecting, controlling, and monitoring their cloud service providers (CSPs). The C5 stands for Cloud Computing Compliance Criteria Catalogue and specifies minimum requirements for secure cloud computing. The C5 is primarily intended for professional CSPs, their auditors, and customers of the CSPs. The C5 covers 17 domains and 114 control objectives that address all key aspects of cloud security, such as data protection, identity and access management, encryption and key management, incident response, audit assurance, and compliance. The C5 also maps to other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks, such as ISO 27001/27002/27017/27018, NIST SP 800-53, CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), COBIT, GDPR, etc. The C5 helps customers to evaluate and compare the security and compliance posture of different CSPs, and to verify that the CSPs meet their contractual obligations and legal requirements12.
References:
- BSI - C5 criteria catalogue - Federal Office for Information Security
- Germany C5 - Azure Compliance | Microsoft Learn
A cloud service provider utilizes services of other service providers for its cloud service. Which of the following is the BEST approach for the auditor while performing the audit for the cloud service?
Options:
The auditor should review the service providers' security controls even more strictly, as they are further separated from the cloud customer.
The auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply.
As the contract for the cloud service is between the cloud customer and the cloud service provider, there is no need for the auditor to review the services provided by the service providers.
As the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service providers is governed by separate contracts between them, there is no need for the auditor to review the services
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, the auditor should review the relationship between the cloud service provider and its service provider to help direct and estimate the level of effort and analysis the auditor should apply1. The auditor should understand the nature and scope of the services provided by the service provider, the contractual obligations and service level agreements, the security and compliance requirements, and the monitoring and reporting mechanisms. The auditor should also assess the risks and controls associated with the service provider, and determine if additional audit procedures are needed to obtain sufficient assurance.
The other options are not the best approach for the auditor. Option A is too strict and might not be feasible or necessary, depending on the type and level of services provided by the service provider. Option C is too lax and might overlook significant risks and gaps in the cloud service. Option D is too narrow and might ignore the impact of the service provider on the cloud customer’s business context. References:
- ISACA Cloud Auditing Knowledge Certificate Study Guide, page 13-14.
During the cloud service provider evaluation process, which of the following BEST helps identify baseline configuration requirements?
Options:
Vendor requirements
Product benchmarks
Benchmark controls lists
Contract terms and conditions
Answer:
CExplanation:
During the cloud service provider evaluation process, benchmark controls lists BEST help identify baseline configuration requirements. Benchmark controls lists are standardized sets of security and compliance controls that are applicable to different cloud service models, deployment models, and industry sectors1. They provide a common framework and language for assessing and comparing the security posture and capabilities of cloud service providers2. They also help cloud customers to define their own security and compliance requirements and expectations based on best practices and industry standards3.
Some examples of benchmark controls lists are:
- The Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM), which is a comprehensive list of 133 control objectives that cover 16 domains of cloud security4.
- The National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) Special Publication 800-53, which is a catalog of 325 security and privacy controls for federal information systems and organizations, including cloud-based systems5.
- The International Organization for Standardization (ISO) / International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) 27017, which is a code of practice that provides guidance on 121 information security controls for cloud services based on ISO/IEC 270026.
Vendor requirements, product benchmarks, and contract terms and conditions are not the best sources for identifying baseline configuration requirements. Vendor requirements are the specifications and expectations that the cloud service provider has for its customers, such as minimum hardware, software, network, or support requirements7. Product benchmarks are the measurements and comparisons of the performance, quality, or features of different cloud services or products8. Contract terms and conditions are the legal agreements that define the rights, obligations, and responsibilities of the parties involved in a cloud service contract9. These sources may provide some information on the configuration requirements, but they are not as comprehensive, standardized, or objective as benchmark controls lists.
References:
- CSA Security Guidance for Cloud Computing | CSA1, section on Identify necessary security and compliance requirements
- Evaluation Criteria for Cloud Infrastructure as a Service - Gartner2, section on Security Controls
- Checklist: Cloud Services Provider Evaluation Criteria | Synoptek3, section on Security
- Cloud Controls Matrix | CSA4, section on Overview
- NIST Special Publication 800-53 - NIST Pages5, section on Abstract
- ISO/IEC 27017:2015(en), Information technology — Security techniques …6, section on Scope
- What is vendor management? Definition from WhatIs.com7, section on Vendor management
- What is Benchmarking? Definition from WhatIs.com8, section on Benchmarking
- What is Terms and Conditions? Definition from WhatIs.com9, section on Terms and Conditions
What does “The Egregious 11" refer to?
Options:
The OWASP Top 10 adapted to cloud computing
A list of top shortcomings of cloud computing
A list of top breaches in cloud computing
A list of top threats to cloud computing
Answer:
DExplanation:
The Egregious 11 refers to a list of top threats to cloud computing, as published by the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) in 2019. The CSA is a leading organization dedicated to defining standards, certifications and best practices to help ensure a secure cloud computing environment. The Egregious 11 report ranks the most critical and pressing cloud security issues, such as data breaches, misconfigurations, insufficient identity and access management, and account hijacking. The report also provides recommendations for security, compliance, risk and technology practitioners to mitigate these threats. The Egregious 11 is based on a survey of industry experts and a review of current literature and media reports. The report is intended to raise awareness of the risks and challenges associated with cloud computing and promote strong security practices.12 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 961; CSA Top Threats to Cloud Computing: Egregious 11
An organization that is utilizing a community cloud is contracting an auditor to conduct a review on behalf of the group of organizations within the cloud community. Of the following, to whom should the auditor report the findings?
Options:
Management of the organization being audited
Public
Shareholders and interested parties
Cloud service provider
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the ISACA CCAK Study Guide, the auditor should report the findings to the management of the organization being audited, as they are the primary stakeholders and decision makers for the cloud service. The management is responsible for ensuring that the cloud service meets the requirements and expectations of the community, as well as complying with any relevant laws and regulations. The auditor should also communicate the findings to the cloud service provider, as they are the secondary stakeholders and service providers for the cloud service. The cloud service provider should be aware of any issues or gaps identified by the auditor and work with the management to resolve them. The auditor should not report the findings to the public, shareholders, or interested parties, as they are not directly involved in the cloud service or its governance. The auditor should respect the confidentiality and privacy of the community and its data, and only disclose the findings to those who have a legitimate need to know. References :=
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 971
- ISACA, Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam, 2021, p. 36
The PRIMARY purpose of Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to:
Options:
facilitate an effective relationship between the cloud service provider and cloud client.
enable the cloud service provider to prioritize resources to meet its own requirements.
provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider.
ensure understanding of true risk and perceived risk by the cloud service users
Answer:
CExplanation:
The primary purpose of the Open Certification Framework (OCF) for the CSA STAR program is to provide global, accredited, and trusted certification of the cloud service provider. According to the CSA website1, the OCF is an industry initiative to allow global, trusted independent evaluation of cloud providers. It is a program for flexible, incremental and multi-layered cloud provider certification and/or attestation according to the Cloud Security Alliance’s industry leading security guidance and control framework. The OCF aims to address the gaps within the IT ecosystem that are inhibiting market adoption of secure and reliable cloud services. The OCF also integrates with popular third-party assessment and attestation statements developed within the public accounting community to avoid duplication of effort and cost. The OCF manages the foundation that runs and monitors the CSA STAR Certification program, which is an assurance framework that enables cloud service providers to embed cloud-specific security controls. The STAR Certification program has three levels of assurance, each based on a different type of audit or assessment: Level 1: Self-Assessment, Level 2: Third-Party Audit, and Level 3: Continuous Auditing. The OCF also oversees the CSA STAR Registry, which is a publicly accessible repository that documents the security controls provided by various cloud computing offerings2. The OCF helps consumers to evaluate and compare their providers’ resilience, data protection, privacy capabilities, and service portability. It also helps providers to demonstrate their compliance with industry standards and best practices.
References:
- Open Certification Framework Working Group | CSA
- STAR | CSA
To BEST prevent a data breach from happening, cryptographic keys should be:
Options:
distributed in public-facing repositories.
embedded in source code.
rotated regularly.
transmitted in clear text.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Rotating cryptographic keys regularly is a security best practice that helps to mitigate the risk of unauthorized access to encrypted data. When keys are rotated, old keys are retired and replaced with new ones, making any compromised keys useless to an attacker. This process helps to limit the time window during which a stolen key can be used to breach data. Key rotation is a fundamental aspect of key management lifecycle best practices, which include generating new key pairs, rotating keys at set intervals, revoking access to keys, and destroying out-of-date or compromised keys.
References = The importance of key rotation is supported by various security standards and best practices, including recommendations from the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)1 and the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA)23. These sources emphasize the need for periodic renewal and decommissioning of old keys as part of a comprehensive key management strategy.
Which of the following cloud service provider activities MUST obtain a client's approval?
Options:
Destroying test data
Deleting subscription owner accounts
Deleting test accounts
Deleting guest accounts
Answer:
BExplanation:
Deleting subscription owner accounts is an activity that MUST obtain a client’s approval in the context of cloud service provider activities. Subscription owner accounts are critical as they hold the ownership and control over the resources and services within a cloud subscription. Deleting these accounts can have significant implications, including loss of access, control, and potential data loss. Therefore, it is essential for a cloud service provider to seek explicit approval from the client before proceeding with such an action to ensure transparency, maintain trust, and avoid any unintended consequences.
References:
- Microsoft Trust Center, Cloud Services Due Diligence Checklist1.
- Google Cloud, What is a Cloud Service Provider?2.
- Partner Center, CSP agreements, price lists, and offers3.
- Microsoft Azure, How to choose a cloud service provider4.
- FCA, FG16/5 Guidance for firms outsourcing to the ‘cloud’ and other third-party IT services
Which of the following is the MOST important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider?
Options:
Documentation criteria for the audit evidence
Testing procedure to be performed
Processes and systems to be audited
Updated audit work program
Answer:
CExplanation:
The most important audit scope document when conducting a review of a cloud service provider is the document that defines the processes and systems to be audited. This document should clearly identify the objectives, criteria, and boundaries of the audit, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the audit team and the cloud service provider. The document should also specify the scope of the cloud service provider’s services, such as the service model, deployment model, geographic location, data classification, and compliance requirements. The document should also describe the scope of the audit evidence, such as the types, sources, methods, and sampling techniques of data collection and analysis. The document should also state the expected deliverables, timelines, and reporting formats of the audit. The document should be agreed upon by both parties before the audit commences.
The document that defines the processes and systems to be audited is essential for ensuring that the audit is relevant, reliable, consistent, and complete. It helps to establish a common understanding and expectation between the auditor and the auditee, as well as to avoid any misunderstandings or conflicts during or after the audit. It also helps to focus the audit on the key risks and controls related to the cloud service provider’s operations and performance. It also helps to ensure that the audit complies with the applicable standards, frameworks, and regulations.
References:
- Cloud Audits and Compliance: What You Need To Know - Linford & Company LLP
- How to audit the cloud | ICAEW
- Auditing Cloud Computing: A Security and Privacy Guide
A cloud auditor observed that just before a new software went live, the librarian transferred production data to the test environment to confirm the new software can work in the production environment. What additional control should the cloud auditor check?
Options:
Approval of the change by the change advisory board
Explicit documented approval from all customers whose data is affected
Training for the librarian
Verification that the hardware of the test and production environments are compatible
Answer:
BExplanation:
The cloud auditor should check if there is explicit documented approval from all customers whose data is affected by the transfer of production data to the test environment. This is because production data may contain sensitive or personal information that is subject to privacy and security regulations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Therefore, using production data for testing purposes without the consent of the data owners may violate their rights and expose the organization to legal and reputational risks. This is also stated in the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) control DSI-04: Production / Non-Production Environments12, which is part of the Data Security & Information Lifecycle Management domain. The CCM is a cybersecurity control framework for cloud computing that can be used by cloud customers to build an operational cloud risk management program.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option A, approval of the change by the change advisory board, refers to the process of reviewing and authorizing changes to the system or software before they are implemented in the production environment. This is a good practice for ensuring the quality and reliability of the system or software, but it does not address the issue of using production data for testing purposes. Option C, training for the librarian, refers to the process of providing adequate education and awareness to the staff who are responsible for managing and transferring data between different environments. This is a good practice for ensuring the competence and accountability of the staff, but it does not address the issue of obtaining consent from the data owners. Option D, verification that the hardware of the test and production environments are compatible, refers to the process of ensuring that the system or software can run smoothly and consistently on both environments. This is a good practice for ensuring the performance and functionality of the system or software, but it does not address the issue of protecting the privacy and security of the production data. References :=
- Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Cloud Security Controls
- Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA3
- DSI-04: Production / Non-Production Environments - CSF Tools - Identity Digital1
- DSI: Data Security & Information Lifecycle Management - CSF Tools - Identity Digital
Which of the following methods can be used by a cloud service provider with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information?
Options:
Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)
Independent auditor report
First-party audit
Industry certifications
Answer:
BExplanation:
An independent auditor report is a method that can be used by a cloud service provider (CSP) with a cloud customer that does not want to share security and control information. An independent auditor report is a document that provides assurance on the CSP’s security and control environment, based on an audit conducted by a qualified third-party auditor. The audit can be based on various standards or frameworks, such as ISO 27001, SOC 2, CSA STAR, etc. The independent auditor report can provide the cloud customer with the necessary information to evaluate the CSP’s security and control posture, without disclosing sensitive or proprietary details. The CSP can also use the independent auditor report to demonstrate compliance with relevant regulations or contractual obligations.
References:
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 83-84.
- ISACA, Cloud Computing Audit Program, 2019, p. 6-7.
Which of the following is an example of availability technical impact?
Options:
A distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack renders the customer's cloud inaccessible for 24 hours.
The cloud provider reports a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server.
An administrator inadvertently clicked on phish bait, exposing the company to a ransomware attack.
A hacker using a stolen administrator identity alters the discount percentage in the product database
Answer:
AExplanation:
An example of availability technical impact is a distributed denial of service (DDoS) attack that renders the customer’s cloud inaccessible for 24 hours. Availability technical impact refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data and services from disruption or denial. Availability is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and integrity.
Option A is an example of availability technical impact because it shows how a DDoS attack, which is a type of cyberattack that overwhelms a system or network with malicious traffic and prevents legitimate users from accessing it, can cause a severe and prolonged disruption of the customer’s cloud services. Option A also implies that the customer’s organization depends on the availability of its cloud services for its core business operations.
The other options are not examples of availability technical impact. Option B is an example of confidentiality technical impact, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure. Option B shows how a breach of customer personal data from an unsecured server, which is a type of data leakage or exposure attack that exploits the lack of proper security controls on a system or network, can cause a violation of the privacy and security of the customer’s data. Option C is an example of integrity technical impact, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Option C shows how an administrator inadvertently clicking on phish bait, which is a type of social engineering or phishing attack that tricks a user into clicking on a malicious link or attachment, can expose the company to a ransomware attack, which is a type of malware or encryption attack that locks or encrypts the data and demands a ransom for its release. Option D is also an example of integrity technical impact, as it shows how a hacker using a stolen administrator identity, which is a type of identity theft or impersonation attack that exploits the credentials or privileges of a legitimate user to access or manipulate a system or network, can alter the discount percentage in the product database, which is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. References :=
- OWASP Risk Rating Methodology | OWASP Foundation1
- OEE Factors: Availability, Performance, and Quality | OEE2
- The Effects of Technological Developments on Work and Their …
It is MOST important for an auditor to be aware that an inventory of assets within a cloud environment:
Options:
should be mapped only if discovered during the audit.
is not fundamental for the security management program, as this is a cloud service.
can be a misleading source of data.
is fundamental for the security management program
Answer:
DExplanation:
It is most important for an auditor to be aware that an inventory of assets within a cloud environment is fundamental for the security management program. An inventory of assets is a list of all the hardware, software, data, and services that are owned, used, or managed by an organization in the cloud. An inventory of assets helps the organization to identify, classify, and prioritize its cloud resources and to implement appropriate security controls and policies to protect them. An inventory of assets also helps the organization to comply with relevant regulations, standards, and contracts that may apply to its cloud environment.12
An auditor should be aware of the importance of an inventory of assets in the cloud because it provides a baseline for assessing the security posture and compliance status of the organization’s cloud environment. An auditor can use the inventory of assets to verify that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of its cloud resources and their characteristics, such as location, ownership, configuration, dependencies, vulnerabilities, and risks. An auditor can also use the inventory of assets to evaluate whether the organization has implemented adequate security measures and processes to protect its cloud resources from threats and incidents. An auditor can also use the inventory of assets to identify any gaps or weaknesses in the organization’s security management program and to provide recommendations for improvement.34
References := Why is IT Asset Inventory Management Critical? - Fresh Security1; Use asset inventory to manage your resources’ security posture2; The importance of asset inventory in cybersecurity3; The Importance Of Asset Inventory In Cyber Security And CMDB - Visore4
After finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, a cybersecurity criminal is able to access an encrypted file system and successfully manages to overwrite parts of some files with random data. In reference to the Top Threats Analysis methodology, how would the technical impact of this incident be categorized?
Options:
As an integrity breach
As an availability breach
As a confidentiality breach
As a control breach
Answer:
AExplanation:
As an integrity breach. The technical impact of this incident can be categorized as an integrity breach, which refers to the effect of a cloud security incident on the protection of data from unauthorized modification or deletion. Integrity is one of the three security properties of an information system, along with confidentiality and availability.
The incident described in the question involves a cybersecurity criminal finding a vulnerability in an Internet-facing server of an organization, accessing an encrypted file system, and overwriting parts of some files with random data. This is a type of data tampering or corruption attack that affects the accuracy and reliability of the data. The fact that the file system was encrypted does not prevent the integrity breach, as the attacker did not need to decrypt or read the data, but only to overwrite it. The integrity breach can have serious consequences for the organization, such as data loss, data inconsistency, data recovery costs, and loss of trust.
The other options are not correct categories for the technical impact of this incident. Option B, as an availability breach, is incorrect because availability refers to the protection of data and services from disruption or denial, which is not the case in this incident. Option C, as a confidentiality breach, is incorrect because confidentiality refers to the protection of data from unauthorized access or disclosure, which is not the case in this incident. Option D, as a control breach, is incorrect because control refers to the ability to manage or influence the behavior or outcome of a system or process, which is not a security property of an information system. References: =
- Top Threats Analysis Methodology - CSA1
- Top Threats Analysis Methodology - Cloud Security Alliance2
- OWASP Risk Rating Methodology | OWASP Foundation3
- OEE Factors: Availability, Performance, and Quality | OEE4
- The Effects of Technological Developments on Work and Their
A cloud service provider contracts for a penetration test to be conducted on its infrastructures. The auditor engages the target with no prior knowledge of its defenses, assets, or channels. The provider's security operation center is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors. Which mode has been selected by the provider?
Options:
Reversal
Double blind
Double gray box
Tandem
Answer:
BExplanation:
A double blind penetration test is a type of pen test where the hacker has no prior knowledge of the target’s defenses, assets, or channels, and the target’s security team is not notified in advance of the scope of the audit and the test vectors. This mode simulates a real-world attack scenario, where both the attacker and the defender have to rely on their skills and resources to achieve their objectives. A double blind penetration test can help evaluate the effectiveness of the target’s security posture, detection and response capabilities, and incident management procedures12.
References:
- What is Penetration Testing | Step-By-Step Process & Methods | Imperva
- 7 Types of Penetration Testing: Guide to Pentest Methods & Types
DevSecOps aims to integrate security tools and processes directly into the software development life cycle and should be done:
Options:
at the end of the development cycle.
after go-live.
in all development steps.
at the beginning of the development cycle.
Answer:
AExplanation:
According to the CCAK Study Guide, the business continuity management and operational resilience strategy of the cloud customer should be formulated jointly with the cloud service provider, as they share the responsibility for ensuring the availability and recoverability of the cloud services. The strategy should cover all aspects of business continuity and resilience planning, taking inputs from the assessed impact and risks, to consider activities for before, during, and after a disruption. These activities include prevention, mitigation, response, recovery, restoration, and improvement. The strategy should also define the roles and responsibilities of both parties, the communication channels and escalation procedures, the testing and exercising plans, and the review and update mechanisms1
The other options are not correct because:
- Option B is not correct because the strategy should not only be developed within the acceptable limits of the risk appetite, but also aligned with the business objectives and stakeholder expectations of both parties. The risk appetite is only one of the factors that influence the strategy formulation1
- Option C is not correct because the strategy should not only cover the activities required to continue and recover prioritized activities within identified time frames and agreed capacity, but also consider the activities for before and after a disruption, such as prevention, mitigation, improvement, etc. The strategy should also include other elements such as roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing plans, etc1
References: 1: ISACA, Cloud Security Alliance. Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide. 2021. pp. 83-84.
In relation to testing business continuity management and operational resilience, an auditor should review which of the following database documentation?
Options:
Database backup and replication guidelines
System backup documentation
Incident management documentation
Operational manuals
Answer:
AExplanation:
Database backup and replication guidelines are essential for ensuring the availability and integrity of data in the event of a disruption or disaster. They describe how the data is backed up, stored, restored, and synchronized across different locations and platforms. An auditor should review these guidelines to verify that they are aligned with the business continuity objectives, policies, and procedures of the organization and the cloud service provider. The auditor should also check that the backup and replication processes are tested regularly and that the results are documented and reported. References:
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 96
- Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, BCR-01: Business Continuity Planning/Resilience
A cloud service provider providing cloud services currently being used by the United States federal government should obtain which of the following to assure compliance to stringent government standards?
Options:
CSA STAR Level Certificate
Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS) Attestation
ISO/IEC 27001:2013 Certification
FedRAMP Authorization
Answer:
DExplanation:
A cloud service provider (CSP) providing cloud services currently being used by the United States federal government should obtain FedRAMP Authorization to assure compliance to stringent government standards. FedRAMP is a government-wide program that provides a standardized approach to security assessment, authorization, and continuous monitoring for cloud products and services. FedRAMP enables agencies to leverage the security assessments of CSPs that have been approved by FedRAMP, and establishes a baseline set of security controls for cloud computing, based on NIST SP 800-53. FedRAMP also helps CSPs to demonstrate their compliance with relevant laws and regulations, such as FISMA, FIPS, and NIST standards. FedRAMP Authorization can be obtained through two paths: a provisional authorization from the Joint Authorization Board (JAB) or an authorization from an individual agency12.
The other options are incorrect because:
- A. CSA STAR Level Certificate: CSA STAR is a program for security assurance in the cloud that encompasses key principles of transparency, rigorous auditing, and harmonization of standards. CSA STAR Level Certificate is one of the certification options offered by CSA STAR, which is based on the ISO/IEC 27001 standard and the CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM). CSA STAR Level Certificate is not specific to the US federal government standards, and does not guarantee compliance with FedRAMP requirements3.
- B. Multi-Tier Cloud Security (MTCS) Attestation: MTCS is a cloud security standard developed by the Singapore government to provide greater clarity and transparency on the level of security offered by different CSPs. MTCS defines three levels of security controls for CSPs: Level 1, Level 2, and Level 3, with Level 3 being the most stringent. MTCS Attestation is a voluntary self-disclosure scheme for CSPs to declare their conformance to the MTCS standard. MTCS Attestation is not applicable to the US federal government standards, and does not ensure compliance with FedRAMP requirements4.
- C. ISO/IEC 27001:2013 Certification: ISO/IEC 27001 is a standard for information security management systems that specifies the requirements for establishing, implementing, maintaining, and continually improving an information security management system within the context of the organization. ISO/IEC 27001 Certification is an independent verification that an organization conforms to the ISO/IEC 27001 standard. ISO/IEC 27001 Certification is not exclusive to cloud computing or the US federal government standards, and does not cover all aspects of FedRAMP requirements5.
References:
- Learn What FedRAMP is All About | FedRAMP | FedRAMP.gov
- How to Become FedRAMP Authorized | FedRAMP.gov
- STAR | CSA
- Multi-Tiered Cloud Security Standard (MTCS SS)
- ISO - ISO/IEC 27001 — Information security management
An auditor wants to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization. Which of the following can BEST help to gain the required information?
Options:
ISAE 3402 report
ISO/IEC 27001 certification
SOC1 Type 1 report
SOC2 Type 2 report
Answer:
DExplanation:
A SOC2 Type 2 report can best help an auditor to get information about the operating effectiveness of controls addressing privacy, availability, and confidentiality of a service organization. A SOC2 Type 2 report is an internal control report that examines the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s system and data over a specified period of time, typically 3-12 months. A SOC2 Type 2 report is based on the AICPA Trust Services Criteria and provides an independent auditor’s opinion on the design and operating effectiveness of the service organization’s controls. A SOC2 Type 2 report can help an auditor to assess the risks and challenges associated with outsourcing services to a cloud provider and to verify that the provider meets the relevant compliance requirements and industry standards.12 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 5: Cloud Auditing, page 971; SOC 2 Type II Compliance: Definition, Requirements, and Why You Need It2
A dot release of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) indicates:
Options:
a revision of the CCM domain structure.
a technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is smaller than 10% compared to the previous full release.
the introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls.
technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A dot release of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) indicates a technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is smaller than 10% compared to the previous full release. A dot release is a minor update to the CCM that reflects the feedback from the cloud security community and the changes in the cloud technology landscape. A dot release does not change the domain structure or the overall scope of the CCM, but rather improves the clarity, accuracy, and relevance of the existing controls. A dot release is denoted by a decimal number after the major version number, such as CCM v4.1 or CCM v4.2. The current version of the CCM is v4.0, which was released in October 20211.
The other options are incorrect because:
- A. a revision of the CCM domain structure: A revision of the CCM domain structure is a major change that affects the organization and categorization of the controls into different domains. A revision of the CCM domain structure requires a full release, not a dot release, and is denoted by an integer number, such as CCM v3 or CCM v42.
- C. the introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls: The introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls is an additional feature that enhances the usability and applicability of the CCM. The introduction of new control frameworks mapped to previously published CCM controls does not require a dot release or a full release, but rather an update to the mapping table that shows the relationship between the CCM controls and other industry-accepted security standards, regulations, and frameworks3.
- D. technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release: A technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release is a significant change that affects the content and scope of the CCM. A technical change (revision, addition, or deletion) of a number of controls that is greater than 10% compared to the previous full release requires a full release, not a dot release, and is denoted by an integer number, such as CCM v3 or CCM v42.
References:
- Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA
- The CSA Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) V4: Raising the cloud security bar
- Cloud Security Alliance Releases New Cloud Controls Matrix Auditing Guidelines
The MOST critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps is:
Options:
continuous build.
continuous delivery.
continuous integration.
continuous deployment.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Continuous integration (CI) is the most critical concept for managing the building and testing of code in DevOps. CI is the practice of merging all developers’ working copies of code to a shared mainline several times a day. This enables early detection and resolution of bugs, conflicts, and errors, as well as faster and more frequent feedback loops. CI also facilitates the automation of building, testing, and deploying code, which improves the quality, reliability, and security of the software delivery process. CI is a prerequisite for continuous delivery (CD) and continuous deployment (CD), which are the next stages of DevOps maturity that aim to deliver software to customers faster and more frequently. References:
- ISACA, Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, 2021, p. 114-115
- Cloud Security Alliance (CSA), Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v4.0, 2021, DCS-01: Datacenter Security - Build and Test
- What is Continuous Integration?
- Continuous Integration vs Continuous Delivery vs Continuous Deployment
When mapping controls to architectural implementations, requirements define:
Options:
control objectives.
control activities.
guidelines.
policies.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Requirements define control activities, which are the actions, processes, or mechanisms that are implemented to achieve the control objectives1. Control objectives are the targets or desired conditions to be met that are designed to ensure that policy intent is met2. Guidelines are the recommended practices or advice that provide flexibility in how to implement a policy, standard, or control3. Policies are the statements of management’s intent that establish the direction, purpose, and scope of an organization’s internal control system4.
References:
- COSO – Control Activities - Deloitte1, section on Control Activities
- Words Matter - Understanding Policies, Control Objectives, Standards …2, section on Control Objectives
- Understanding Policies, Control Objectives, Standards, Guidelines …3, section on Guidelines
- Internal Control Handbook4, section on Policies
Visibility to which of the following would give an auditor the BEST view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) deployments?
Options:
Source code within build scripts
Output from threat modeling exercises
Service level agreements (SLAs)
Results from automated testing
Answer:
AExplanation:
Visibility to the source code within build scripts would give an auditor the best view of design and implementation decisions when an organization uses programmatic automation for Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) deployments. IaaS is a cloud service model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems, over the internet. Programmatic automation is the process of using code or scripts to automate the provisioning, configuration, management, and monitoring of the cloud infrastructure. Build scripts are files that contain commands or instructions to create or modify the cloud infrastructure according to the desired specifications.12
An auditor can use the source code within build scripts to gain insight into how the organization designs and implements its cloud infrastructure. The source code can reveal the following information3:
- The type, size, and number of cloud resources that are provisioned and deployed
- The configuration settings and parameters that are applied to the cloud resources
- The security controls and policies that are enforced on the cloud resources
- The dependencies and relationships between the cloud resources
- The testing and validation methods that are used to verify the functionality and performance of the cloud resources
- The logging and auditing mechanisms that are used to track and record the changes and activities on the cloud resources
By reviewing the source code within build scripts, an auditor can evaluate whether the organization follows the best practices and standards for cloud infrastructure design and implementation, such as scalability, reliability, security, compliance, and efficiency. An auditor can also identify any gaps or risks in the organization’s cloud infrastructure and provide recommendations for improvement.
References := What is Infrastructure as Code? | Cloud Computing - AWS1; What is Programmatic Automation? - Definition from Techopedia2; How to audit your IaC for better DevSecOps - TechBeacon3
Which of the following would be the MOST critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit?
Options:
Certifications with global security standards specific to cloud are not reviewed, and the impact of noted findings are not assessed.
Application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures.
Outsourced cloud service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data occurred at the cloud service provider.
The organization is not using a unified framework to integrate cloud compliance with regulatory requirements
Answer:
BExplanation:
According to the web search results, the most critical finding of an application security and DevOps audit would be that the application architecture and configurations did not consider security measures. This finding indicates a serious lack of security by design and security by default principles, which are essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the application and its data . If the application architecture and configurations are not secure, they could expose the application to various threats and vulnerabilities, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, denial-of-service attacks, injection attacks, cross-site scripting attacks, and others . This finding could also result in non-compliance with relevant security standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001, PCI DSS, GDPR, and others . Therefore, this finding should be addressed with high priority and urgency by implementing appropriate security measures and controls in the application architecture and configurations.
The other options are not as critical as option B. Option A is a moderate finding that indicates a lack of awareness and assessment of the global security standards specific to cloud, such as ISO 27017, ISO 27018, CSA CCM, NIST SP 800-53, and others . This finding could affect the security and compliance of the cloud services used by the application, but it does not directly impact the application itself. Option C is a severe finding that indicates a major incident that occurred at the cloud service provider level, such as a service interruption, breach, or loss of stored data. This finding could affect the availability, confidentiality, and integrity of the application and its data, but it is not caused by the application itself. Option D is a minor finding that indicates a lack of efficiency and consistency in integrating cloud compliance with regulatory requirements. This finding could affect the compliance posture of the application and its data, but it does not directly impact the security or functionality of the application. References:
- [Application Security Best Practices - OWASP]
- [DevSecOps: What It Is and How to Get Started - ISACA]
- [Cloud Security Standards: What to Expect & What to Negotiate - CSA]
- [Cloud Computing Security Audit - ISACA]
- [Cloud Computing Incident Response - ISACA]
- [Cloud Compliance: A Framework for Using Cloud Services While Maintaining Compliance - ISACA]
Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include:
Options:
regulatory guidelines impacting the cloud customer.
audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms.
the organizational chart of the provider.
policies and procedures of the cloud customer
Answer:
BExplanation:
Supply chain agreements between a cloud service provider and cloud customers should, at a minimum, include audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications with agreement terms. This is because cloud services involve multiple parties in the supply chain, such as cloud providers, sub-providers, brokers, carriers, and auditors. Each party may have different roles and responsibilities in delivering the cloud services and ensuring their quality, security, and compliance. Therefore, it is important for the cloud customers to have visibility and assurance of the performance and compliance of the cloud providers and their sub-providers. Audits, assessments, and independent verification of compliance certifications are methods to evaluate the effectiveness of the controls and processes implemented by the cloud providers and their sub-providers to meet the agreement terms. These methods can help the cloud customers to identify any gaps or risks in the supply chain and to take corrective actions if needed. This is part of the Cloud Control Matrix (CCM) domain COM-04: Audit Assurance & Compliance, which states that "The organization should have a policy and procedures to conduct audits and assessments of cloud services and data to verify compliance with applicable regulatory frameworks, contractual obligations, and industry standards."12 References := CCAK Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Compliance Program, page 551; Practical Guide to Cloud Service Agreements Version 2.02
"Network environments and virtual instances shall be designed and configured to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections. These configurations shall be reviewed at least annually, and supported by a documented justification for use for all allowed services, protocols, ports, and by compensating controls." Which of the following types of controls BEST matches this control description?
Options:
Virtual instance and OS hardening
Network security
Network vulnerability management
Change detection
Answer:
BExplanation:
The correct answer is B. Network security is the type of control that best matches the control description given in the question. Network security involves designing and configuring network environments and virtual instances to restrict and monitor traffic between trusted and untrusted connections, such as firewalls, routers, switches, VPNs, and network segmentation. Network security also requires periodic reviews and documentation of the network configurations and the justification for the allowed services, protocols, ports, and compensating controls.
The other options are not directly related to the question. Option A, virtual instance and OS hardening, refers to the process of applying security configurations and patches to virtual instances and operating systems to reduce their attack surface and vulnerabilities. Option C, network vulnerability management, refers to the process of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and remediating network vulnerabilities using tools such as scanners, analyzers, and testers. Option D, change detection, refers to the process of monitoring and detecting changes in the system or network environment that could affect the security posture or performance of the system or network.
References :=
- IVS-01: Network Security - CSF Tools - Identity Digital1
- Certificate of Cloud Auditing Knowledge (CCAK) Study Guide, Chapter 6: Cloud Security Controls
- Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) - CSA2
Which of the following BEST ensures adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment?
Options:
Ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines
Periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations
Role-based access controls in the production and development pipelines
Separation of production and development pipelines
Answer:
CExplanation:
Role-based access control (RBAC) is a method of restricting access to resources based on the roles of individual users within an organization1 RBAC can help ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment, as it can limit the permissions and actions that each user can perform on the pipeline resources, such as code, secrets, environments, etc. RBAC can also help enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks2
The other options are not correct because:
- Option A is not correct because ensuring segregation of duties in the production and development pipelines is not sufficient to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Segregation of duties is a practice that aims to prevent fraud, errors, or conflicts of interest by dividing responsibilities among different people or teams3 However, segregation of duties does not necessarily limit the number of people who can access the pipeline resources, as it depends on how the roles and permissions are defined and assigned. Segregation of duties is also more relevant for preventing unauthorized changes or deployments to the production environment, rather than restricting access to it4
- Option B is not correct because periodic review of the continuous integration and continuous delivery (CI/CD) pipeline audit logs to identify any access violations is not a proactive measure to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Audit logs are records of events or activities that occur within a system or process5 Audit logs can help monitor and detect any unauthorized or suspicious access to the pipeline resources, but they cannot prevent or restrict such access in the first place. Audit logs are also dependent on the frequency and quality of the review process, which may not be timely or effective enough to mitigate the risks of access violations6
- Option D is not correct because separation of production and development pipelines is not a direct way to ensure adequate restriction on the number of people who can access the pipeline production environment. Separation of production and development pipelines is a practice that aims to isolate and protect the production environment from any potential errors, bugs, or vulnerabilities that may arise from the development process. However, separation of pipelines does not automatically imply restriction of access, as it depends on how the roles and permissions are configured for each pipeline. Separation of pipelines may also introduce challenges such as synchronization, coordination, and communication among the pipeline teams and stakeholders.
References: 1: Wikipedia. Role-based access control - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Microsoft Learn. Set pipeline permissions - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn. [Online]. Available: 1. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: Investopedia. Segregation Of Duties Definition - Investopedia.com Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Cider Security. Insufficient PBAC (Pipeline-Based Access Controls) - Cider Security Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: Wikipedia. Audit trail - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 6: Microsoft Learn. Securing Azure Pipelines - Azure Pipelines | Microsoft Learn. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. : AWS DevOps Blog. How to implement CI/CD with AWS CodePipeline - AWS DevOps Blog | Amazon Web Services Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. : LambdaTest. What Is Parallel Testing? with Example - LambdaTest Blog. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
Who is accountable for the use of a cloud service?
Options:
The cloud access security broker (CASB)
The supplier
The cloud service provider
The organization (client)
Answer:
DExplanation:
The organization (client) is accountable for the use of a cloud service. Accountability in cloud computing is the responsibility of cloud service providers and other parties in the cloud ecosystem to protect and properly process the data of their clients and users. However, accountability ultimately rests with the organization (client) that uses the cloud service, as it is the data owner and controller. The organization (client) has to ensure that the cloud service provider and its suppliers meet the agreed-upon service levels, security standards, and regulatory requirements. The organization (client) also has to perform due diligence and oversight on the cloud service provider and its suppliers, as well as to comply with the shared responsibility model, which defines how the security and compliance tasks and obligations are divided between the cloud service provider and the organization (client)123.
The other options are not correct. Option A, the cloud access security broker (CASB), is incorrect because a CASB is a software tool or service that acts as an intermediary between cloud users and cloud service providers, providing visibility, data security, threat protection, and compliance. A CASB does not use the cloud service, but facilitates its secure and compliant use4. Option B, the supplier, is incorrect because a supplier is a third-party entity that provides services or products to the cloud service provider, such as infrastructure, software, hardware, or support. A supplier does not use the cloud service, but supports its delivery5. Option C, the cloud service provider, is incorrect because a cloud service provider is a company that provides cloud computing services to the organization (client). A cloud service provider does not use the cloud service, but offers it to the organization (client)6. References :=
- Accountability Issues in Cloud Computing (5 Step … - Medium1
- Shared responsibility in the \uE000cloud\uE001 - Microsoft Azure2
- Who Is Responsible for Cloud Security? - Security Intelligence3
- What is CASB? - Cloud Security Alliance4
- Cloud Computing: Auditing Challenges - ISACA5
- What is Cloud Provider? - Definition from Techopedia
When an organization is moving to the cloud, responsibilities are shared based upon the cloud service provider's model and accountability is:
Options:
shared.
avoided.
transferred.
maintained.
Answer:
DExplanation:
When an organization is moving to the cloud, responsibilities are shared based upon the cloud service provider’s model and accountability is maintained. This means that the organization remains accountable for the security and compliance of its data and applications in the cloud, even if some of the security responsibilities are delegated to the cloud service provider (CSP). The organization cannot transfer or avoid its accountability to the CSP or any other third party, as it is ultimately responsible for its own business outcomes, legal obligations, and reputation. Therefore, the organization must understand the shared responsibility model and which security tasks are handled by the CSP and which tasks are handled by itself. The organization must also monitor and audit the CSP’s performance and security, and mitigate any risks or issues that may arise12.
References:
- Shared responsibility in the cloud - Microsoft Azure
- Understanding the Shared Responsibilities Model in Cloud Services - ISACA
The MOST important goal of regression testing is to ensure:
Options:
the expected outputs are provided by the new features.
the system can handle a high number of users.
the system can be restored after a technical issue.
new releases do not impact previous stable features.
Answer:
DExplanation:
According to the definition of regression testing, it is a type of software testing that confirms that a recent program or code change has not adversely affected existing features1 It involves re-running functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change2 If the software does not perform as expected, it is called a regression. Therefore, the most important goal of regression testing is to ensure new releases do not impact previous stable features.
The other options are not correct because:
- Option A is not correct because the expected outputs are provided by the new features is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of functional testing or acceptance testing. These types of testing aim to verify that the software meets the specified requirements and satisfies the user needs. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the existing features are not broken by the new features3
- Option B is not correct because the system can handle a high number of users is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of performance testing or load testing. These types of testing aim to evaluate the behavior and responsiveness of the software under various workloads and conditions. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software functionality and quality are not degraded by code changes4
- Option C is not correct because the system can be restored after a technical issue is not the goal of regression testing, but rather the goal of recovery testing or disaster recovery testing. These types of testing aim to assess the ability of the software to recover from failures or disasters and resume normal operations. Regression testing, on the other hand, focuses on checking that the software does not introduce new failures or defects due to code changes5
References: 1: Wikipedia. Regression testing - Wikipedia. [Online]. Available: 3. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 2: Katalon. What is Regression Testing? Definition, Tools, Examples - Katalon. [Online]. Available: 4. [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 3: Guru99. What is Functional Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 4: Guru99. What is Performance Testing? Types & Examples - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023]. 5: Guru99. What is Recovery Testing? with Example - Guru99. [Online]. Available: . [Accessed: 14-Apr-2023].
The effect of which of the following should have priority in planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit?
Options:
Applicable industry good practices
Applicable statutory requirements
Organizational policies and procedures
Applicable corporate standards
Answer:
BExplanation:
The effect of applicable statutory requirements should have priority in planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, as they are the mandatory and enforceable rules that govern the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer. Statutory requirements may vary depending on the jurisdiction, industry, or sector of the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, as well as the type, location, and sensitivity of the data processed or stored in the cloud. Statutory requirements may include laws, regulations, standards, or codes that relate to data protection, privacy, security, compliance, governance, taxation, or liability. The cloud auditor should identify and understand the applicable statutory requirements that affect the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer, and assess whether they are met and adhered to by both parties. The cloud auditor should also verify that the contractual terms and conditions between the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer reflect and comply with the applicable statutory requirements123.
Applicable industry good practices (A) are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Industry good practices are the recommended or accepted methods or techniques for achieving a desired outcome or result in a specific domain or context. Industry good practices may include frameworks, guidelines, principles, or best practices that are developed by professional bodies, associations, or organizations that have expertise or authority in a certain field or area. Industry good practices may help the cloud service provider and the cloud service customer to improve their performance, quality, efficiency, or effectiveness in delivering or using cloud services. However, industry good practices are not mandatory or enforceable, and they may vary or change over time depending on the evolution of technology or business needs123.
Organizational policies and procedures © are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Organizational policies and procedures are the internal rules and guidelines that define the objectives, expectations, and responsibilities of an organization regarding its operations, activities, processes, or functions. Organizational policies and procedures may include mission statements, vision statements, values statements, strategies, goals, plans, standards, manuals, handbooks, or instructions that are specific to an organization. Organizational policies and procedures may help the organization to align its actions and decisions with its purpose and direction, as well as to ensure consistency and accountability among its members or stakeholders. However, organizational policies and procedures are not mandatory or enforceable outside the organization, and they may differ or conflict among different organizations123.
Applicable corporate standards (D) are important for planning the scope and objectives of a cloud audit, but they are not as high priority as applicable statutory requirements. Corporate standards are the internal rules and guidelines that define the minimum level of quality, performance, reliability, or compatibility that an organization expects from its products, services, processes, or systems. Corporate standards may include specifications, criteria, metrics, indicators, benchmarks, or baselines that are specific to an organization. Corporate standards may help the organization to measure and evaluate its outputs or outcomes against its objectives or expectations, as well as to identify and address any gaps or issues that may arise. However, corporate standards are not mandatory or enforceable outside the organization, and they may differ or conflict among different organizations123. References :=
- Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Providers - Cloud Standards …
- Cloud Audits: A Guide for Cloud Service Customers - Cloud Standards …
- Cloud Auditing Knowledge: Preparing for the CCAK Certificate Exam
Under GDPR, an organization should report a data breach within what time frame?
Options:
48 hours
72 hours
1 week
2 weeks
Answer:
BExplanation:
Under the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), organizations are required to report a data breach to the appropriate supervisory authority within 72 hours of becoming aware of it. This timeframe is critical to ensure timely communication with the authorities and affected individuals, if necessary, to mitigate any potential harm caused by the breach.
References = This requirement is outlined in the GDPR guidelines, which emphasize the importance of prompt reporting to maintain compliance and protect individual rights and freedoms12345.