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ISTQB ISTQB-CTFL Dumps

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Total 406 questions

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL v4.0) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What role in a formal or technical review should mediate between different opinions to ensure an effective review?

Options:

A.

Scribe (or recorder)

B.

Manager

C.

Moderator (or facilitator)

D.

Reviewer

Question 2

Which of the following is NOT a typical debugging activity when a failure is triggered by dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Fixing the cause

B.

Reproducing the failure

C.

Diagnosing the root cause

D.

Adding new test cases

Question 3

Which of the following is NOT an experience-based technique?

Options:

A.

Boundary value analysis.

B.

Error guessing

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Fault attack

Question 4

You are working in an agile team on the creation of software for use in robotic assistance systems that support industrial manufacturing processes. You are currently in the effort estimation phase using planning poker. In the current sprint, three user stories are to be implemented:

Options:

A.

The assistance system is to have a customizable layout. For this purpose, the user should be able to choose between 3 combinations of font size and background color at startup.

B.

In the initialization phase, the assistance system should validate the inputs of the 10 customer specific and process specific parameters against a list of 5 consistency rules and display the result to the user.

C.

The assistance system currently supports the manufacturing process with 2 robot gripper arms, this shall be extended to 5 gripper arms. In addition, the system shall perform a pre-calculation of the movements of all gripper arms in real time and automatically stop the system in case of a calculated collision of the gripper arms.

You are now asked to estimate the test effort for each of these user stories by using planning poker. The f

D.

A:3; B:21; C:8;

E.

A:21; B:13; C:13;

F.

A:3; B:13; C:34;

G.

A:13; B:13; C:13;

Question 5

In a museum there are staggered entrance fees:

    Free admission: children under 14 years

    Reduced admission: young people aged 14 and under 18, retiree, students and welfare recipients

    Regular price: all other persons

Which of the following four options describes the minimum set of test data that reaches 100% coverage of all valid equivalence classes for the admission fees?

Options:

A.

Child (12 years), student (23 years), retiree (68 years)

B.

Youth (16 years), adult (35 years), adult (60 years)

C.

Child (12 years), welfare recipient (45 years), retiree (68 years)

D.

Child (12 years), adult (35 years), retiree (68 years)

Question 6

Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

Options:

A.

A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person

B.

A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.

C.

A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people

D.

A test manager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test cases will not be written as mandated by the test policy.

Question 7

Which ONE of the following options BEST describes the purpose of confirmation testing versus regression testing?

Options:

A.

The purpose of confirmation testing is to confirm that the defect giving rise to a failure has been successfully fixed. The regression test aims to ensure that no defects have been introduced or discovered in unmodified areas of the software as a result of the changes made.

B.

Confirmation testing ensures the entire system functions as expected, whereas regression testing focuses only on modified components.

C.

Confirmation testing verifies all system requirements, while regression testing ensures that no additional test cases are needed.

D.

Regression testing and confirmation testing are interchangeable and serve the same purpose.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about impact of DevOps on testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

DevOps helps eliminate manual testing by having focus on continuous automated testing

B.

DevOps helps shift focus of testing people to perform operations testing

C.

DevOps helps bring focus on testing of non-functional characteristics

D.

DevOps helps shift focus of operations people to functional testing

Question 9

Which of the following statements about error guessing is true?

Options:

A.

Error guessing is a system that adopts artificial intelligence to predict whether software components are likely to contain defects or not

B.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing, rely on the use of a high-level list of what needs to be tested as a guide to find defects

C.

Error guessing refers to the ability of a system or component to continue normal operation despite the presence of erroneous inputs

D.

Experienced testers, when applying error guessing technique, can anticipate where errors, defects and failures have occurred and target their tests at those issues

Question 10

Which ONE of the following options MOST ACCURATELY describes statement testing?

Options:

A.

In statement testing, the coverage items are control flow transfers between branches. The aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

B.

In statement testing, the coverage items are decisions and statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

C.

In statement testing, the coverage items are branches, and the aim is to design test cases to exercise branches in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

D.

In statement testing, the coverage items are executable statements. The aim is to design test cases that exercise statements in the code until an acceptable level of coverage is achieved, expressed as a percentage.

Question 11

Which of the following examples represents System Integration testing?

Options:

A.

Testing an application m development environment which is similar to the production environment

B.

Testing the system based on specifications using simulator for a sub-system

C.

Testing an application's behaviour to check if it fulfils business needs

D.

Testing if e-commerce website works correctly with a third-party payment gateway

Question 12

Which of the following statements best describe Behavior-Driven Development (BDD)?

Options:

A.

A collaborative approach that allows every stakeholder to contribute to how the software component must behave.

B.

Expresses the behavior of an application with test cases written in Given When Then format.

C.

Is used to develop code guided by automated test cases.

D.

A psychological technique in which the team's behavior in agile teams is evaluated.

Question 13

Which of the following about typical information found within a test plan is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The need to temporarily have additional test personnel available for specific test phases and/or test activities

B.

The conditions that must be met in order for the test execution activities to be considered completed.

C.

The list of the product risks which have not been fully mitigated at the end of test execution.

D.

The conditions that must be met for part of all the planned activities to be suspended and resumed.

Question 14

Which ONE of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Static analysis can be used against a work product containing unstructured artifacts

B.

Difficult to interpret work products are best tested using static analysis.

C.

There may be legal issues in performing static testing on a commercially available executable library.

D.

Test cases can be tested using static testing techniques but not the models

Question 15

Which of the following is an example of scenario-oriented acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

The user should be able to provide three inputs to test the product - the Al model to be tested, the data used and an optional text file

B.

Verify that a registered user can create add a new project with name having more than 100 characters

C.

A user is already logged in then on navigating to the Al model testing page the user should be directly shown the report of last test run.

D.

An unregistered user shouldn't be shown any report

Question 16

Which of the following options should NOT be used for writing acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Reaction time

B.

Scenarios

C.

Input-output mappings

D.

Test charters

Question 17

Which description reflects aspects of checklist-based testing?

Options:

A.

The checklist contains test cases that need to be executed in a certain order (e.g. defect-detecting test cases from previous projects).

B.

The checklist includes failure descriptions that have been found in the past which should be avoided.

C.

The checklist contains experience-based test conditions, mostly in the form of questions and based on causes of previous failures, which are used when creating the test.

D.

The checklist contains common testing techniques (e.g. equivalence class partitioning) and their uses to simplify the selection of the "appropriate" test techniques.

Question 18

Out of the following. what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

Test environment details

B.

How to reproduce the defect

C.

How to fix the defect

D.

Seventy and priority

Question 19

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques

B.

Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques

C.

In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations

D.

Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria

Question 20

A company wants to reward each of its salespeople with an annual bonus that represents the sum of all the bonuses accumulated for every single sale made by that salesperson. The bonus for a single sale can take on the following four values: 3%, 5%, 7% and 10% (the percentage refers to the amount of the single sale). These values are determined on the basis of the type of customer (classified as "Basic" or "Premium") to which such sale was made, and on the amount of such sale classified into the following three groups G1, G2 and G3:

• [G1]: less than 300 euros

• [G2]: between 300 and 2000 euros

• [G3]: greater than 2000 euros

Which of the following is the minimum number of test cases needed to cover the full decision table associated with this scenario?

Options:

A.

12

B.

6

C.

4

D.

3

Question 21

An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs. Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

Options:

A.

9.5001

B.

10.5000

C.

10, 11.4999, 5000r 5001

D.

9. 10.5000,5001

Question 22

Which of the following statements about re-testing and regression testing are TRUE?

I Re-testing should be performed after a defect is fixed.

II Regression testing should always be performed after a defect is fixed.

III. Re-testing and regression testing may be performed at any test level.

IV Regression testing may include functional, non-functional and structural testing.

V. Re-testing should be included in the debugging activity.

Options:

A.

I, III. Iv

B.

II, v

C.

I, Ill

D.

II. IV, V

Question 23

A financial institution is to implement a system that calculates the interest rates paid on investment accounts based on the sum invested.

You are responsible for testing the system and decide to use equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis to design test cases. The requirements describe the following expectations:

Investment range| Interest rate

R500 to RIO 00010%

RIO 001 to R50 00011%

R50 001 to RlOOOOO12%

RIOOOOl to R500 000| 13%

What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for calculating the interest?

Options:

A.

5

B.

4

C.

8

D.

16

Question 24

Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released

B.

Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'

C.

Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments

D.

Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation

Question 25

A state transition diagram describes a control system’s behavior in different operational modes. The initial state is “NORMAL MODE”.

Which ONE of the following test cases covers an INVALID sequence?

Options:

A.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

B.

NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE

C.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → DEGRADED MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DEGRADED MODE

D.

NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → EMERGENCY MODE → DIAGNOSTIC MODE → NORMAL MODE

Question 26

The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).

If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS

exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.

Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).

Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?

Options:

A.

TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€

B.

TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€

C.

TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€

D.

TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€

Question 27

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

More subjective assessment

B.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

C.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

D.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

Question 28

Which of the types of test tools noted below BEST describes tools that support reviews?

Options:

A.

Tools to assess data quality

B.

Tools to support usability testing

C.

Tools to support specialized testing needs

D.

Tools to support static testing

Question 29

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

Question 30

A test manager defined the following test levels in her test plan; Component, System and Acceptance.

Which Software Development lifecycle is the Test Manager most likely following?

Options:

A.

V-Model

B.

Agile

C.

Waterfall

D.

Prototyping

Question 31

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

D.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

Question 32

Which of the following statements BEST describes the shift-left approach in software testing?

Options:

A.

Testing is performed after the development phase is completed.

B.

Testing is performed on the entire system or product.

C.

Testing is performed by an independent testing team.

D.

Testing is performed as early as possible in the software development life cycle.

Question 33

Which of the following statements about static testing and dynamic testing is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static testing is better suited than dynamic testing for highlighting issues that could indicate inappropriate code modulansation.

B.

Dynamic testing can only be applied to executable work products, while static testing can only be applied to non-executable work products.

C.

Both dynamic testing and static testing cause failures, but failures caused by static testing are usually easier and cheaper to analyse.

D.

Security vulnerabilities can only be detected when the software is being executed, and thus they can only be detected through dynamic testing, not through static testing

Question 34

Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

Options:

A.

The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage

B.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised

C.

If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

D.

Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage

Question 35

Which of the following statements is NOT true about Configuration management and software testing?

Options:

A.

Configuration management helps maintain consistent versions of software artifacts.

B.

Configuration management supports the build process, which is essential for delivering a test release into the test environment.

C.

When testers report defects, they need to reference version-controlled items.

D.

Version controlled test ware increases the chances of finding defects in the software under test.

Question 36

Which of the statements on confirmation testing and regression testing is correct?

Options:

A.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to errors

B.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that changes have no undesired effects

C.

Regression tests are performed to confirm that errors have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

D.

Confirmation tests are performed to confirm that defects have been corrected and no longer lead to failures

Question 37

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

User acceptance tests are usually automated and aim to verify the acceptance criteria for user stories

B.

Acceptance criteria for user stories can include details on data definitions, for example by describing the format, allowed values, and default values for a data item

C.

Acceptance criteria for user stones should focus on positive scenarios, while negative scenarios should be excluded

D.

Tests derived from acceptance criteria for user stories are not included in any of the four testing quadrants

Question 38

In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?

Options:

A.

Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.

B.

Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item

C.

Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers

D.

There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

Question 40

A typical objective of testing is to

Options:

A.

Determine the most appropriate level of detail with which to design test cases.

B.

Verify the compliance of the test object with regulatory requirements.

C.

Plan test activities in accordance with the existing test policy and test strategy

D.

Verify the correct creation and configuration of the test environment

Question 41

You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

Question 42

Which ONE of the following work products TYPICALLY belongs to test execution?

Options:

A.

Test logs that document the results of test execution.

B.

Automated test scripts used for test execution.

C.

A test plan that describes the test strategy and test objectives.

D.

A list of test conditions prioritized during test analysis.

Question 43

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

Question 44

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

Question 45

A software application incorrectly provided customers discounts of 50% off their total purchases if the purchases exceeded S100. It was discovered through an audit that the discount should have been only 5% off these purchases. A root cause analysis uncovered that the requirements Incorrectly stated 50% instead of 5% in this scenario.

Which of the following MOST accurately reflects this scenario?

Options:

A.

The audit finding Is the root cause, the incorrect calculation of 50% Is the defect, and the Incorrect requirement Is the effect

B.

The incorrect customer discount is the effect and the reason for the requirement error is the root cause

C.

The incorrect discount is the root cause, requiring a root cause analysis which led to investigating the software code, design, and requirements

D.

A defect in the code is determined to be the root cause of the incorrect calculation

Question 46

You are testing the latest version of an air-traffic control system prior to production deployment using exploratory testing. After following an unusual sequence of input steps, the system crashes. After the crash, you document a defect report with the following information:

•Title: System crashes unexpectedly during input.

•Brief summary: System crashes when an unusual sequence of inputs is used.

•Version: V1.001

•Test: Exploratory testing prior to production deployment

•Priority: Urgent

•Risk: High

•References: Screenshot of crashed application

What critical Information Is missing from this report?

Options:

A.

Conclusions, recommendations, and approvals.

B.

Change history.

C.

Description of the defect to enable reproduction.

D.

Status of defect

Question 47

Which statement corresponds to one of the 7 principles of testing?

Select exactly one option (1 out of 4)!

Options:

A.

Exhaustive testing can show the absence of defects.

B.

To detect new defects, existing regression test cases must be updated regularly.

C.

Late testing saves time and money, especially with scarce resources.

D.

Fixing all detected defects ensures the success of the system under test.

Question 48

Which ONE of the following elements is TYPICALLY used to guide testing during exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

A test charter that defines the testing objectives for the test session.

B.

A comprehensive specification that must be fully available before testing begins.

C.

A detailed test script that prescribes all the steps to be performed.

D.

A predefined test case that must be executed exactly as documented.

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor m determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Level of risk of the product or features

B.

Budget to do testing

C.

A particular tester involved in testing

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 50

Which of the following types of tools is BEST suited for determining source code compliance with the guidelines provided by a coding standard?

Options:

A.

Containerisation tool

B.

Fault seeding tool.

C.

Static analysis tool.

D.

Test data preparation tool

Question 51

Match the Work Product with the category it belongs to:

Work Product: 1. Risk register 2 Risk information

3. Test cases

4. Test conditions

Category of work products:

Options:

A.

Test planning work products

B.

Test analysis work products.

C Test design work products

C.

Test monitoring and control work products

D.

1-A.2-D.3-C.4-e

E.

1-A.2-C.3-B.4-D

F.

1-C, 2-A. 3-D, 4-B

G.

1-B. 2-D, 3-A.4-C

Question 52

A requirement specifies that if the total amount of sales (TAS) made during the year by a corporate seller is 300,000€ or more, the bonus that must be paid to the seller is 100% of a certain amount agreed upon at the beginning of the year. The software contains a fault as it implements this requirement with the decision "IF (TAS = 300,000)" instead of "IF (TAS >= 300.000)". The application of the 3-value boundary value analysis to this problem consists of the following three test cases (TAS is an integer variable):

TC1 = 299,999 TC2=300,000 TC=300,001

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

TC1 would highlight the fault

B.

TC2 would highlight the fault

C.

TC3 would highlight the fault

D.

None of the three test cases would highlight the fault.

Question 53

Given the following statements:

1.It can prevent defects by manual examination of the functional specification

2.It is effective since it can be performed very early in the software development life cycle

3.It can detect the failures in the running application

4.It can help eliminate defects in user stories

5.It can verify externally visible behaviors

Which set of statements represent values ONLY for static testing?

Options:

A.

1,3, 4.5

B.

2,4,5

C.

1,2,4

D.

1,2, 3. 4,5

Question 54

For each test case to be executed, the following table specifies its dependencies and the required configuration of the test environment for running such test case:

as

Assume that C0NF1 is the initial configuration of the test environment Based on this assumption, which of the following is a test execution schedule that is compatible with the specified dependencies and allows minimising the number of switches between the different configurations of the test environment^

Options:

A.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC1, TC5.

B.

TCI, TC5, TC4, TC3, TC2

C.

TC4, TC3, TC2, TC5, TC1.

D.

TC4, TC1, TC5, TC2, TC3

Question 55

Which of the following is an INCORRECT statement about the benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Options:

A.

Traceability may be required by IT governance rules

B.

Traceability may help evaluate the extent of test coverage

C.

Traceability may allow testing to be auditable

D.

Traceability may make it harder to understand the impact of changes

Question 56

Given the following user story for the development of an online shoe store:

"As a customer, I want to be able to filter shoes by color so that I see, for example, only red shoes in the selection."

Which of the following positive test cases BEST fits to the user story?

Options:

A.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

B.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Within 2 seconds all red shoes are displayed, then the other colors.

C.

Precondition: Homepage of shoe store with shoes size 40 is opened

Test steps to be performed:

Tick "red" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes of size 40 are displayed.

D.

Precondition: Home page of the shoe store is opened

Test steps to be performed:

User logs in with his customer ID.

Tick "green" in the color selection.

Click on the "Filter" button.

Expected result: Only red shoes are displayed.

Question 57

Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.

B.

It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration

C.

It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.

D.

It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.

Question 58

Metrics can be collected during and at the end of testing activities to assess which of the following?

i. Progress against the planned schedule and budget.

II. Current quality of the test object.

Hi. Adequacy of the test approach.

iv. Effectiveness of the test activities with respect to the objectives.

v. All the above.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Only i and ii.

B.

Only i and iii.

C.

Only I, ii and iv.

D.

Only v.

Question 59

Use Scenario 1 “Happy Tomatoes” (from the previous question).

Using the Boundary Value Analysis (BVA) technique (in its two-point variant), identify the set of input values that provides the HIGHEST coverage.

Options:

A.

{7,8,21,22,29,30}

B.

{7,8,22,23,29,30}

C.

{6,7,8,21,22,29,31}

D.

{6,7,21,22,29,30}

Question 60

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

Question 61

Which is an advantage of using testers that are independent from the development team?

Options:

A.

Independent testers support the developers with their feedback on coding rules and architecture design.

B.

Developers can delegate their sense of responsibility for quality to testers.

C.

Independent testers have a different perspective and can find defects that developers miss.

D.

Independent testers will identify themselves more with the project and the project goals and have good relations with the development team.

Question 62

Which of the following options is correct with respect to the differentiation of black-box techniques, white-box techniques, and experience-based testing?

Options:

A.

Black-box test techniques are based on requirements, white-box tests on source code. Therefore, black-box test techniques are always performed at higher test levels (e.g. system and acceptance level) and white-box test techniques at lower test levels.

B.

Experience-based testing can complement white-box and black-box test techniques well or can be used if the basic principles for these test techniques are lacking.

C.

Experience-based testing is an extension of black-box test techniques, since experience-based test techniques also do not require knowledge about the source code.

D.

The coverage items can be specified in advance, e.g., coverage of statements, states or checklists, for all three of the categories mentioned above.

Question 63

The following table shows six test cases TC01 to TC06 with their priorities and dependencies.

as

Schedule the test execution of the specified test case set according to the priorities and dependencies. Since the test time is very tight, the number of test cases should be minimized as much as possible, but all very important test cases must be included.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

TC04, TC05, and TC06 can be deleted.

B.

TC05 and TC06 can be deleted.

C.

TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

D.

TC03, TC04 and TC05 can be deleted.

Question 64

Which of the following answers describes a reason for adopting experience-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Experience-based test techniques provide more systematic coverage cnteria than black-box and white-box test techniques

B.

Experience-based test techniques completely rely on the tester's past experience for designing test cases.

C.

Experience-based test techniques allow designing test cases that are usually easier to reproduce than those designed with black-box and white-box test techniques.

D.

Experience-based test techniques tend to find defects that may be difficult to find with black-box and white-box test techniques and are often useful to complement these more systematic techniques.

Question 65

Which ONE of the following roles is responsible for mediating, managing time, and generating a safe review environment in which everyone can speak freely?

Options:

A.

Manager

B.

Reviewer

C.

Review leader

D.

Moderator

Question 66

Your manager asked you when testing will be complete. In order to answer this question, you'll most likely use:

Options:

A.

Test progress reports

B.

Your colleagues advice

C.

A conversion spreadsheet

D.

A Test Oracle

Question 67

Which of the following can be considered a VALID exit criterion?

I Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

II. The completion and publication of an exhaustive Test Report.

III. Accuracy measures, such as code, functionality or risk coverage.

IV Residual risks such as lack of code coverage in certain areas.

Options:

A.

I, III, IV

B.

I, II, III

C.

III, IV

D.

II, III, IV

Question 68

In addition to thorough testing of the requirements specification, a development team aims to involve users as early as possible in the development process, using practices such as prototyping, to ensure that the software systems being developed will meet the users' expectations. This approach is especially useful at mitigating the risks associated with one of the seven testing principles, which one?

Options:

A.

Tests wear out

B.

Absence-of-errors fallacy

C.

Working software over comprehensive documentation.

D.

Defects cluster together

Question 69

The tests at the bottom layer of the test pyramid:

Options:

A.

run faster than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

B.

cover larger pieces of functionalities than the tests at the top layer of the pyramid

C.

are defined as 'Ul Tests' or 'End-To-End tests' in the different models of the pyramid

D.

are unscripted tests produced by experience-based test techniques

Question 70

Given the following state model of sales order software:

    PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

    IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

    IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED

    SHIPPED -> INVOICED

    INVOICED -> CANCELLED

    CANCELLED -> PLACED

Which of the following sequences of tran-sitions provides the highest level of tran-sition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

B.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

C.

PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED

D.

PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED

Question 71

Which of the following statements about static testing is true?

Options:

A.

Static testing is NOT suitable for finding coding defects. For this, dynamic testing is necessary.

B.

Static testing should be done instead of dynamic testing, as both find the same defects.

C.

Static tests are NOT suitable to evaluate the quality of work results.

D.

It makes sense to perform static testing before dynamic testing, because defects can be found earlier or at lower cost.

Question 72

Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

Options:

A.

Risk level is determined by calculating the absolute value of the sum of all potential issues that may occur on the project

B.

Risk level is calculated by adding the probabilities of all planned risks to a project

C.

Risk level is calculated by dividing the sum of all known risks by the sum of all unknown risks

D.

Risk level is determined by the likelihood of an event happening and the impact or harm from that event

Question 73

You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.

Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room

Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room

Options:

A.

Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room

B.

Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.

C.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade

D.

Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.

Question 74

Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

as

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST takes into account the priorities and technical and logical dependencies?

Options:

A.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC6 - TC5

B.

TC3 - TC4 - TC2 - TC6 - TC1 - TC5

C.

TC1 - TC3 - TC2 - TC4 - TC5 - TC6

D.

TC2 - TC4 - TC1 - TC3 - TC5 - TC6

Question 75

Which of the following statements about the testing quadrants is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The higher the number of the testing quadrant, the more important the tests associated with this quadrant are

B.

Automated acceptance tests produced during BDD and ATDD are classified in quadrant 02.

C.

Exploratory tests are classified in quadrant Q3, and they are usually included in a continuous integration process.

D.

Automated unit tests produced during TDD are classified in quadrant Q4 as they are technology facing.

Question 76

In which of the following cases you would NOT execute maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Retirement of the software or system

B.

Modifications to a released software or system

C.

Migration of the system data to a replacement system

D.

Update to the Maintainability requirements during the development phase

Question 77

Consider the following testing levels:

1) Component Testing

2) Integration Testing

3) System Testing

4) Acceptance Testing

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Integration and system testing are applicable when V-model is used.

Component and acceptance testing are applicable when iterative development models are used.

B.

All the testing levels are applicable to V-model for software development.

Only acceptance testing is applicable for iterative models.

C.

Acceptance testing is applicable for all software development models.

Component and system testing are applicable only for the V-model.

D.

All testing levels are applicable, independent of which software development life-cycle process (V-model. iterative, incremental) is used.

Question 78

Which sequence of state transitions is INCORRECT in accordance with the following description?

To provide for disaster recovery, a system (designated as A) has been provided with a backup system (designated as B). Only one of them can be active at a time. When A goes down, B becomes active. When A comes back up then B becomes inactive and A becomes active again. However, when A is down and B also goes down then a message is sent to the system administrator. After this once A comes back up, A becomes active or if B comes up then B becomes Active.

Options:

A.

A and B are both down then A and B both come back up at the same time. A should become the active system and B should be inactive.

B.

A is active and B is inactive then A goes down, B becomes active.

C.

A is active and B is inactive. A goes down. B becomes active then B goes down. A is made active.

D.

A comes up when B is active and A was down. Now A becomes active and B becomes inactive.

Question 79

Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

Options:

A.

Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed

B.

Defect reports should be created for every review found

C.

Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews

D.

Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments

Question 80

Which of the following is a role that is usually responsible for documenting the findings (e.g., action items, decisions, recommendations) made by the review team as part of a typical formal review?

Options:

A.

Review leader

B.

Facilitator.

C.

Recorder.

D.

Moderator

Question 81

Which of the following statements best describes an advantage of the whole team approach?

Options:

A.

It allows the team to deliver software faster by skipping testing and documentation activities.

B.

It enables the team to share responsibility for quality and collaborate with stakeholders throughout the project.

C.

It enables a better division of labor as the team shares a common workspace in one physical location.

D.

It fosters competition and individualism among team members to achieve higher performance.

Question 82

Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Refactonng is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code wntten to satisfy those tests.

B.

ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level.

C.

BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level.

D.

ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process.

Question 83

What is test oracle?

Options:

A.

The source of lest objectives

B.

The source for the actual results

C.

The source of expected results

D.

The source of input conditions

Question 84

Consider a given test plan which, among others, contains the following three sections: "Test Scope", "Testing Communication", and "Stakeholders". The features of the test object to be tested and those excluded from the testing represent information that is:

Options:

A.

not usually included in a test plan, and therefore in the given test plan it should not be specified neither within the three sections mentioned, nor within the others

B.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Test Scope" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

C.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Testing Communication" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

D.

usually included in a test plan and, in the given test plan, it is more likely to be specified within "Stakeholders" rather than in the other two sections mentioned

Question 85

Select which of the following statements describe the key principles of software testing?

i. Testing shows the presence of defects, not their absence.

ii. Testing everything Is possible.

iii. Early testing Is more expensive and is a waste of time.

iv. Defects cluster together.

v. Testing is context dependent.

vi. Beware of the pesticide paradox.

vii. Absence of errors is a fallacy.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

i, iv, v, vi and vii

B.

I, ii, v. vi and vii

C.

iii. iv, v. vi and vii

D.

ii, iii, iv, v and vi

Question 86

Which of the following statements regarding the testing quadrants model is correct?

Options:

A.

The testing quadrants model provides a way of differentiating between types of tests and assists in explaining them to stakeholders.

B.

The testing quadrants model assigns test types to the corresponding V-Model test levels.

C.

With the testing quadrants model, tests can be either business-oriented or product-oriented.

D.

The testing quadrants model assigns tests from one of the four quadrants to each iteration in the Agile development.

Question 87

Which ONE of the following statements about maintenance testing is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Maintenance testing is performed exclusively for adaptive maintenance.

B.

Maintenance testing is only required when defects are reported in production.

C.

Maintenance testing should be performed when enhancements, fixes, or updates are applied to an existing system.

D.

Maintenance testing does not require test cases since it focuses solely on defect verification.

Question 88

Which of the following is a possible reason for introducing a defect in software code?

Options:

A.

Rushing to meet a tight deadline to turn code over for testing

B.

Improper unit testing

C.

Improper system testing

D.

Focus on static testing over dynamic testing

Question 89

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

Question 90

Given the following User Story: "As an online customer, I would like to be able to cancel the purchase of an individual item from a shopping list so that it only displays the relevant items, in less than 1 second", which of the following can be considered as applicable acceptance test cases?

I.Click on my online shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted Item is deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

ii.Click on my online shopping list, select all the items, delete all the items, the unwanted items are deleted from the shopping list in less than 1 second.

iii.Tab to the online shopping list and press enter, select the unwanted item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list In less than 1 second.

Iv. Click on the checkout button, select the payment method, make payment, confirmation received of payment and shipping date.

v. Click on my shopping list, select the unwanted Item, delete the unwanted item, the unwanted item is deleted from the shopping list.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

I, ii and v

B.

iv

C.

i and iii

D.

v

Question 91

Which of the following statements is assigned correctly as a project or product risk?

Options:

A.

The software does not perform its intended functions according to the specification: this is a project risk.

B.

The gradual expansion of the project scope result in significant rework: this is a product risk.

C.

The system architecture does not adequately support some of the non-functional requirements: this is a product risk.

D.

User experience feedback does not meet product expectations: this is a project risk.

Question 92

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the value added by a tester to release planning?

Options:

A.

The tester estimates the testing effort for individual iterations

B.

The tester writes acceptance criteria

C.

The tester breaks down user stories into smaller testing tasks

D.

The tester assesses the testability of the user stories

Question 93

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

Options:

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

Question 94

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

Question 95

Mark the correct sentences:

* Defects are a result of environmental conditions and are also referred to as "Failures"

* A human mistake may produce a defect

* A system mil totally fail to operate correctly when a failure exists in it

* When a defect exists in a system it may result in a failure

* Defects occur only as a result of technology changes

Options:

A.

II, IV

B.

I, II

C.

IV, V

D.

II, III, IV

Question 96

During which main group of test activity are the following tasks performed?

•Checking test results and logs against specified coverage criteria.

•Assessing the level of component or system quality based on test results and logs.

•Determining whether more tests are needed.

Select the correct answer:

Options:

A.

Test planning.

B.

Test analysis.

C.

Test design.

D.

Test monitoring and control.

Question 97

Given the following review types and review characteristics:

a.Pair review

b.Walkthrough

c.Technical review

d.Inspection

1.Formal

2.Informal

3.Purposes include evaluating the quality of the work product under review and generating new ideas (e.g., brainstorming solutions)

4.Purposes include Improving the software product and training the review participants

Which of the following BEST matches the review type with the review characteristic?

Options:

A.

a-1. b-4, c-3. d-2

B.

a-4, b-3. c-2. d-1

C.

a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

D.

a-2, b-4, c-3. d-1

Question 98

You are a tester working on a critical project. Based on the risk analysis you execution? Priority 1 is the highest and Priority 3 is the lowest priority.

as

Options:

A.

D-C- B-A

B.

D-B-A-C

C.

C-B-A-D

D.

D-A-B-C

Question 99

Software was found lo take much more time than the stated requirement of less than one second to save a file. Upon investigation it was found that there was an unnecessary check inside a loop which was slowing down the file-save operation. The software not being able to meet the desired response time is an example of

Options:

A.

It is not a defect

B.

Defect

C.

Error

D.

Failure

Question 100

Which of the following provides the BEST description of statement coverage?

Options:

A.

A white-box test technique which covers the decision results which determine the next statement to be executed

B.

A black-box test technique which uses a state table to derive test cases

C.

A white-box test technique which focuses on the percentage of executable statements that has been executed by a test suite

D.

An experience-based test technique in which test cases are based on the tester's knowledge of past failures

Question 101

A system computes prices for bus tickets. The price depends on

- the passenger type (baby, child, adult, senior citizen, student, military)

- the travelling type (as single or in a group)

- the distance (zone 1. 2. 3)

- the kind of transport (ordinary, express)

Which of the following test techniques is the most appropriate one for testing the price computation?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage

B.

State transition testing

C.

Equivalence partitioning

D.

Use case testing

Question 102

Which of the following BEST distinguishes the terms "validation" and "verification"?

Options:

A.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

B.

Verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

C.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of objective evidence that the requirements for a specific intended use have been met

D.

Validation is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the specified requirements have been met while verification is confirmation through the provision of subjective evidence that the designs for a specific intended use have been met

Question 103

In the newest version of payroll system number of changes were made. As a tester you got a task to perform regression and confirmation tests. Which of the following project activities are related to confirmation testing?

Options:

A.

Testing due to the application of a new version of the interface

B.

Testing that fixes resolved the defects in the search function

C.

Testing if a system still works after update of an operating system

D.

Testing to ensure the adding of a new functionalities haven't broken existing functions

Question 104

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool. Which of the following is the best option?

Options:

A.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

B.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

C.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

D.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

Question 105

Which of the following activities are part of test planning?

I) Setting the entry and exit criteria

II) Determining the validity of bug reports

III) Determining the number of resources required

IV) Determining the expected result for test cases

Options:

A.

I. IV

B.

I. III

C.

I, III, IV

D.

I, II, IV

Question 106

As the last stage of a test cycle of an embedded device, you are performing exploratory testing. You observed that some character. (A, X and Z) sent via a serial port to the device do not get registered on the device whereas they should be. You suspect that this could be due to a wrong configuration of the "bit parity" parameter.

Which of the following items of an incident report would you be UNABLE to write down based on this information?

Options:

A.

Expected result

B.

Test case identifier

C.

Test setup details

D.

Actual result

Question 107

Which of the following correctly represents a test first approach?

Options:

A.

Code is refactored first then tests are written and run

B.

Application behaviour is written in Given/When/then format and tests are then written and run

C.

Tests are derived from acceptance criteria and run to check that the code passes these tests

D.

First the tests fail then the code is written to pass the tests and this is iterated

Question 108

Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

C.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

D.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

Question 109

Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

Options:

A.

Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant

B.

It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.

C.

It is the quadrant that component testing

D.

It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios

Question 110

Which of the following is a CORRECT statement about how a tester should communicate about defects, test results, and other test information?

Options:

A.

Testers should include personal opinions and judgements in defect reports and review findings

B.

Testers should emphasize the benefits of testing, such as increased quality and reduced risk

C.

Testers should reject all questions about their test findings and information

D.

Testers should take a command-and-control approach with the project team

Question 111

A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Options:

A.

Identification of unreachable code

B.

Report on adherence to the coding standards

C.

Number of comment lines

D.

Number of source code lines

Question 112

A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

Options:

A.

The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.

B.

The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

C.

The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods

D.

The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods

Question 113

A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

testing is used to drive the development of a software

B.

a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques

C.

there are no defects in a software that is about to be released

D.

a software has been properly covered

Question 114

Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

Options:

A.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process

B.

Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment

C.

Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics

D.

Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

Question 115

Which ONE of the following is a GOOD testing practice that is INDEPENDENT of the chosen SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle) model?

Options:

A.

Testers are involved in reviewing work products as soon as the final version of this documentation is available so that this earlier testing and defect detection can support the “shift-left" strategy.

B.

Test analysis and design for a specific test level begin during the corresponding development phase of the SDLC, allowing testing to follow the principle of late testing.

C.

For every software development activity, there is a corresponding testing activity, ensuring that all development activities are subject to quality assurance.

D.

Different test levels have specific and overlapping test objectives, allowing tests to be appropriate to specific test object types while managing redundancy.

Question 116

Which ONE of the following is a characteristic of exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Effectiveness depends on the individual testers' skills

B.

Usually conducted when there is sufficient time for testing

C.

Testing without defined time-boxes

D.

Test cases are written once the specifications become available

Question 117

Consider the following code

int premium=2500;

if (age<30)

{

premium = premium +1500:

}

Which options suits for a correct combination of Boundary value and expected result. Assume first number as boundary followed by expected result.

Options:

A.

29, 1500

30. 2500

B.

29. 4000

30. 2500

C.

29, 2500

30. 1500

D.

30, 1500

31,2500

Question 118

Which of the following statements contradicts the general principles of testing?

Options:

A.

Most defects are found in a small subset of a system's modules.

B.

If new defects are to be found we should run the same test set more often.

C.

Testing is better if it starts at the beginning of a project.

D.

How testing is done, is based on the situation in a particular project.

Question 119

Which of the following is a function of a dynamic analysis tool?

Options:

A.

Provide support for traceability of tests, test results and incidents to source documents

B.

Monitor the allocation, use and de-allocation of memory during run-time of a program

C.

Execute programs step-by-step in order to reproduce failures and find corresponding defects

D.

Provide support for release of baselines consisting of configuration items

Question 120

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between product risk and project risk in software testing?

Options:

A.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the quality and functionality of the software product.

B.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as delays in work product deliveries, inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with the project's schedule, budget, and resources.

C.

Product risk and project risk are essentially the same and can be used interchangeably.

D.

Product risk refers to the risk associated with delays in elements such as work product deliveries and inaccurate estimates, while project risk refers to the risk associated with issues such as user dissatisfaction.

Question 121

You work as a test manager for a supplier of PC games which can be purchased and downloaded via an online store. A tester from your team recorded the following failure caused by a defect:

    Issue ID: DEF00223167

    Title: Saving after shopping in online shop fails

    Date: 2023-04-18

    Tester: Sabine Meier

    Description: "Saving the game immediately after purchasing it in the online store fails. As a result, the purchase is paid for, but the goods are not delivered."

    Attached data: "log.txt", "screen1.bmp", "screen2.bmp"

During the review of the defect report, you notice that at least one important piece of information is missing for defining how to deal with the defect. Which one?

Options:

A.

Severity of the defect

B.

Name of the developer who most likely caused the defect

C.

Tracking the quality of the work product

D.

Ideas for test process improvement

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