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Linux Foundation CNPA Dumps

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Total 85 questions

Certified Cloud Native Platform Engineering Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

A team wants to deploy a new feature to production for internal users only and be able to instantly disable it if problems occur, without redeploying code. Which strategy is most suitable?

Options:

A.

Use a blue/green deployment to direct internal users to one version and switch as needed.

B.

Use feature flags to release the feature to selected users and control its availability through settings.

C.

Use a canary deployment to gradually expose the feature to a small group of random users.

D.

Deploy the feature to all users and prepare to roll it back manually if an issue is detected.

Question 2

Development teams frequently raise support tickets for short-term access to staging clusters, creating a growing burden on the platform team. What's the best long-term solution to balance control, efficiency, and developer experience?

Options:

A.

Use GitOps to manage RBAC roles and allow teams to request access via pull requests with automatic approval for non-sensitive environments.

B.

Dedicate one Cloud Native Platform Engineer to triage and fulfill all access requests to maintain fast turnaround times.

C.

Set up scheduled access windows and batch all requests into specific time slots managed by the platform team.

D.

Provide pre-approved kubeconfigs to trusted developers so they can access staging clusters without platform intervention.

Question 3

Why is centralized configuration management important in a multi-cluster GitOps setup?

Options:

A.

It requires all clusters to have the exact same configuration, including secrets and environment variables, to maintain uniformity.

B.

It ensures consistent and auditable management of configurations and policies across clusters from a single Git repository or set of coordinated repositories.

C.

It eliminates the need for automated deployment tools like Argo CD or Flux since configurations are already stored centrally.

D.

It makes it impossible for different teams to customize configurations for specific clusters, reducing flexibility.

Question 4

Which of the following statements describes the fundamental relationship between Continuous Integration (CI) and Continuous Delivery (CD) in modern software development?

Options:

A.

CI is a prerequisite for CD; CI automates the building and testing of code, and CD builds upon this by automating the release process.

B.

CI and CD are entirely separate practices; CI focuses on code quality, while CD focuses on infrastructure management.

C.

CD is a prerequisite for CI; CD automates the deployment of code and CI builds upon this by automating the integration of code changes.

D.

CI and CD are interchangeable terms; they both refer to the process of automating software release management.

Question 5

A platform team is implementing an API-driven approach to enable development teams to consume platform capabilities more effectively. Which of the following examples best illustrates this approach?

Options:

A.

Providing a documented process for developers to submit feature requests for the platform.

B.

Developing a dashboard that visualizes platform usage statistics without exposing any APIs.

C.

Allowing developers to request and manage development environments on demand through an internal tool.

D.

Implementing a CI/CD pipeline that automatically deploys updates to the platform based on developer requests.

Question 6

In a cloud native environment, which approach is effective for managing resources to ensure a balance between defined states and dynamic adjustments?

Options:

A.

Imperative Resource Management

B.

Manual Resource Tracking

C.

Declarative Resource Management

D.

Static Resource Allocation

Question 7

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Kubernetes Custom Resource Definitions (CRDs) in a self-service platform model?

Options:

A.

CRDs automatically manage the scaling and failover of platform services without additional configuration.

B.

CRDs eliminate the need for Role-based access control (RBAC) configurations in Kubernetes clusters.

C.

CRDs enable platform teams to define custom APIs without modifying the Kubernetes API server code.

D.

CRDs provide built-in support for multi-cloud deployments without additional tooling.

Question 8

In the context of OpenTelemetry, which of the following is considered one of the supported signals of observability?

Options:

A.

User Interface

B.

Networking

C.

Traces

D.

Databases

Question 9

In designing a cloud native platform, which architectural feature is essential for allowing the integration of new capabilities like self-service delivery and observability without specialist intervention?

Options:

A.

Monolithic architecture with no APIs.

B.

Centralized integration through specialist API gateways.

C.

Extensible architecture with modular components.

D.

Static architecture with rigid components.

Question 10

If you update a Deployment's replica count from 3 to 5, how does the reconciliation loop respond?

Options:

A.

It will delete the Deployment and require you to re-create it with 5 replicas.

B.

It will create new Pods to meet the new replica count of 5.

C.

It will wait for an admin to manually add two more Pod definitions.

D.

It will restart the existing Pods before adding any new Pods.

Question 11

Which approach is an effective method for securing secrets in CI/CD pipelines?

Options:

A.

Storing secrets in configuration files with restricted access.

B.

Storing secrets and encrypting them in a secrets manager.

C.

Storing secrets as plain-text environment variables managed through config files.

D.

Encoding secrets in the source code using base64.

Question 12

In a Kubernetes environment, which component is responsible for watching the state of resources during the reconciliation process?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes Scheduler

B.

Kubernetes Dashboard

C.

Kubernetes API Server

D.

Kubernetes Controller

Question 13

Which approach is effective for scalable Kubernetes infrastructure provisioning?

Options:

A.

Helm charts with the environment values.yaml

B.

Imperative scripts using Kubernetes API

C.

Static YAML with kubectl apply

D.

Crossplane compositions defining custom CRDs

Question 14

What is the most effective approach to architecting a platform for extensibility in cloud native environments?

Options:

A.

Implementing a modular architecture with well-defined APIs and interfaces that allows platform capabilities to be independently added, updated, or removed without disrupting the entire system.

B.

Creating a platform with a flexible governance model that requires all capability changes to be reviewed by specialized teams before being approved, ensuring consistent implementation across all platform areas.

C.

Building a monolithic platform with comprehensive documentation that provides complete instructions for users to modify internal components when new capabilities need to be added or removed.

D.

Designing a platform with centralized configuration management that can quickly implement organization-wide changes through a single control plane operated by platform specialists.

Question 15

As a Cloud Native Platform Associate, which of the following is the best example of a self-service use case that should be implemented within a cloud platform?

Options:

A.

A manual request process for acquiring additional storage resources.

B.

An internal wiki for documenting best practices in cloud usage.

C.

An automated resource provisioning system to spin up environments on demand.

D.

A centralized dashboard for monitoring application performance.

Question 16

A developer is tasked with securing a Kubernetes cluster and needs to implement Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) to manage user permissions. Which of the following statements about RBAC in Kubernetes is correct?

Options:

A.

RBAC does not support namespace isolation and applies globally across the cluster.

B.

RBAC allows users to have unrestricted roles and access to all resources in the cluster.

C.

RBAC is only applicable to Pods and does not extend to other Kubernetes resources.

D.

RBAC uses roles and role bindings to grant permissions to users for specific resources and actions.

Question 17

During a platform engineering meeting, a team discusses the importance of automating deployment processes to enhance collaboration and efficiency. What is the primary benefit of implementing automation in DevOps practices within platform engineering?

Options:

A.

It reduces the need for communication between team members.

B.

It eliminates the need for any manual intervention.

C.

It creates dependencies on specific tools and platforms.

D.

It accelerates deployments, enabling faster iterations and continuous delivery.

Question 18

In a software deployment pipeline, what is a common purpose of having different environments like production, staging, and development?

Options:

A.

Allows teams to isolate changes and catch issues before reaching production.

B.

Lets developers work together on the same codebase more effectively.

C.

Helps streamline deployments by limiting testing to staging environments only.

D.

Supports testing features against different datasets without impacting live users.

Question 19

A platform team wants to let developers provision cloud services like S3 buckets and databases using Kubernetes-native APIs, without exposing cloud-specific details. Which tool is best suited for this?

Options:

A.

Cluster API

B.

Crossplane

C.

Helm

D.

OpenTofu

Question 20

During a CI/CD pipeline setup, at which stage should the Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) be generated to provide most valuable insights into dependencies?

Options:

A.

During testing.

B.

Before committing code.

C.

During the build process.

D.

After deployment.

Question 21

Which platform component enables one-click provisioning of sandbox environments, including both infrastructure and application code?

Options:

A.

CI/CD pipeline

B.

Service mesh

C.

Service bus

D.

Observability pipeline

Question 22

A Platform Team is adopting the HEART framework to measure user experience of their developer portal. Which of the following aspects does the HEART framework primarily focus on to help improve developer experience and platform performance?

Options:

A.

HEART evaluates Hardware, Efficiency, Availability, Response times, and Throughput to measure and ensure platform reliability and performance.

B.

HEART tracks Happiness, Engagement, Adoption, Reliability, and Throughput, helping teams optimize infrastructure performance.

C.

HEART focuses on Happiness, Engagement, Adoption, Retention, and Task success, enabling teams to track both qualitative and quantitative metrics for user experience.

D.

HEART focuses on Happiness, Efficiency, Availability, Reliability, and Throughput, enabling teams to assess both qualitative and quantitative aspects of platform performance.

Question 23

As a platform engineer, a critical application has been deployed using Helm, but a recent update introduced a severe bug. To quickly restore the application to its previous stable version, which Helm command should be used?

Options:

A.

helm rollback

B.

helm upgrade --force

C.

helm template

D.

helm uninstall

Question 24

As a Cloud Native Platform Associate, you are tasked with improving software delivery efficiency using DORA metrics. Which of the following metrics best indicates the effectiveness of your platform initiatives?

Options:

A.

Lead Time for Changes

B.

Mean Time to Recover (MTTR)

C.

Change Failure Rate

D.

Service Level Agreements (SLAs)

Question 25

In a cloud native environment, what is one of the security benefits of implementing a service mesh?

Options:

A.

Enabling encryption of communication between services using mTLS.

B.

Automatically scaling services to handle increased traffic.

C.

Using a centralized logging system to monitor service interactions.

D.

Limiting network access to services based on IP allowlisting.

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Total 85 questions