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Nokia 4A0-C01 Dumps

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Total 852 questions

Nokia NRS II Composite Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

Select the answer below that correctly lists the 5 different OSPF packet types.

Options:

A.

Hello, Link State Update, Link State Packet, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor

B.

Link State Update, Link State Refresh, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor, Notification

C.

Hello, Link State Refresh, Link State Update, Link State Acknowledgement, Link State Authentication

D.

Hello, Link State Update, Link State Request, Link State Acknowledgement, Database Descriptor

Question 2

An OSPF router receives an update in which the sequence number, age, and checksum are the same as the entry already in the topological database. What action is taken by the router?

Options:

A.

The link state information is not populated in the database but is forwarded to all neighbors

B.

The link state information already in the database is overwritten and the age is reset

C.

The link state information is not populated in the database and an acknowledgement is sent

D.

The link state information is regarded as old and nothing is done.

Question 3

How are LSPs acknowledged on IS-IS broadcast links?

Options:

A.

The LSP is acknowledged by sending a PSNP PDU.

B.

The LSP is acknowledged by sending an LSP PDU.

C.

The LSP is acknowledged by sending a Hello PDU.

D.

LSP are not acknowledged on broadcast links. The DIS sends periodic CSNPs to maintain database synchronization

Question 4

Which of the following types of networks are supported on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for OSPF? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Broadcast

B.

Non-broadcast multi-access

C.

Point-to-point

D.

Point-to-multipoint

Question 5

What are some of the characteristics of Alcatel-Lucent's implementation of non-stop routing? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

No protocol extensions required

B.

Only supported by OSPF and IS-IS

C.

Transparent to routing neighbors

D.

Uses Graceful Restart to inter-operate with other vendors

Question 6

What must be configured on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR for RIP to advertise locally attached links?

Options:

A.

A policy statement within the router identifying what is to be advertised

B.

Access-lists denoting what is to be advertised

C.

Default metrics for each link

D.

A group and neighbor statement for each peer

Question 7

Which of the statements below best describes the operation of the IPv6 anycast address?

Options:

A.

A packet with a destination anycast address is sent to all nodes on the local link.

B.

A packet with a destination anycast address is sent to all nodes on the local network.

C.

A packet with a destination anycast address is sent to all nodes that have joined the anycast group.

D.

A packet with a destination anycast address is sent to the nearest node that is assigned the anycast address

E.

A packet with a destination anycast address is sent to all nodes that are assigned the anycast address.

Question 8

What acts as the tie breaker on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR if the priorities are the same when IS-IS is electing a DIS?

Options:

A.

The system ID

B.

The loopback address

C.

The sequence number of the hello packet

D.

The device that first initiated communication becomes the DIS

Question 9

Which of the following conditions will prevent an OSPF adjacency from reaching the full state? Choose three answers.

Options:

A.

MTU mismatch

B.

Incorrect subnet mask

C.

System interface not included in OSPF

D.

Area ID not the same

E.

Different metric set on each end of the link

F.

Router ID not defined

Question 10

Which of the following statements best describes an OSPF type 3 LSA?

Options:

A.

An OSPF type 3 LSA is an intra-area LSA, generated by the ABR only when route summarization is configured.

B.

An OSPF type 3 LSA is an inter-area LSA, generated by the ABR only when route summarization is configured.

C.

An OSPF type 3 LSA is an inter-area LSA, generated by an ASBR to describe external routes.

D.

An OSPF type 3 LSA is an inter-area LSA, generated by the ABR to describe a route to neighbors outside the area.

Question 11

An OSPF ASBR must have at least one interface in the backbone area (area 0)

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 12

Click the exhibit button.

as

The OSPF packets shown have been exchanged between two neighbors. What state is the OSPF adjacency in?

Options:

A.

The adjacency state is two way because both routers have received a database description packet.

B.

The adjacency is in the exchange state. The next step is to exchange link state request and link state update packets.

C.

The adjacency is in the ex start state. The routers have exchanged database description packets, but still have to negotiate the starting sequence number.

D.

The adjacency state is full. The routers are exchanging database description packets to notify each other that all link state advertisements have been received.

Question 13

What is the default inbound metric for RIP on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

Whatever the advertised metric happens to be.

B.

A value of 1.

C.

This must be administratively set as there is no default value.

D.

A value of 15.

Question 14

What value should the AFI be set to for locally administered addressing?

Options:

A.

1

B.

49

C.

83

D.

0

Question 15

Click the exhibit button.

as

What can you deduce from the show command on router R6?

Options:

A.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.5.

B.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment; however, this command does not indicate whether 10.10.10.3 or 10.10.10.5 is the DR or BDR.

C.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is the BDR, which is why it is not adjacent to the other routers.

D.

The router R6 interface is in a multi-access segment. It is neither the DR nor the BDR for the segment. The DR for this segment would be the router with router ID 10.10.10.3.

Question 16

What is the metric and maximum routable value for RIP?

Options:

A.

Hop count and 16

B.

Hop count and 15

C.

Link cost and 15

D.

Link cost and 16

Question 17

A router sets the E bit in the flags of its Type 1 LSA. What does this indicate?

Options:

A.

The router is an ABR.

B.

The router is an ASBR.

C.

The router is at the end of a virtual link.

D.

The router's interface is in a stub area.

Question 18

When an OSPF adjacency is stuck in the "ExchStart" state, what is the most likely cause?

Options:

A.

The MTU does not match on both interfaces

B.

OSPF is not enabled on one of the routers

C.

The Router ID is the same on both routers

D.

A OSPF Hello has not been received from the neighbor

Question 19

What command allows analysis of the Dijkstra calculation on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

There is no such calculation in IS-IS

B.

Show router isis database

C.

Show router isis dijykstra

D.

Show router isis spf

Question 20

What is the source IP address in an OSPF update?

Options:

A.

224.0.0.5

B.

224.0.0.6

C.

The unicast IP address of the interface the update is sent on

D.

The system address of the router.

Question 21

Refer to the exhibit below. IS-IS IPv6 routing is configured in the network with globally routed addresses as shown. How many routes will R4 have in its IPv6 route table?

as

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

E.

6

F.

7

Question 22

Click the exhibit button.

as

What is the command to configure a static route on the 7750 service router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?

Options:

A.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2

B.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C.

configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

D.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

Question 23

When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the routing table for the destination IP address, what actions are performed by the router?

Options:

A.

The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.

B.

The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the source.

C.

The packet is silently discarded.

D.

The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is sent.

Question 24

Click the exhibit button.

as

What is the command to configure a static route on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router R1 to reach the network behind router R2?

Options:

A.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.2

B.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

C.

configure router static-route 138.120.199.2/24 next-hop 138.120.199.1

D.

configure router static-route 139.120.121.0/24 next-hop 139.120.121.2

Question 25

What is the default priority value used for electing the DR on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR running OSPF on an Ethernet?

Options:

A.

Priority of 0

B.

Priority of 1

C.

Priority of 64

D.

Priority of 255

Question 26

Click the exhibit button.

as

If router R2 redistributes the IS-IS route to 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF, router R3 preference of these two routes? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

The OSPF internal preference

B.

The IS-IS Level 1 internal preference

C.

The IS-IS Level 2 internal preference

D.

The OSPF external preference

E.

The IS-IS Level 2 external preference

F.

The IS-IS Level 1 external preference

Question 27

When configuring a filter, where should the most explicit entries be placed?

Options:

A.

At the bottom

B.

In the middle

C.

At the top

D.

It does not matter where they are placed.

Question 28

Click the exhibit button.

Which of the following statements best describes the format of data traffic sent from the PC to the server?

Options:

A.

The source IP address will be the address of the PC, and the destination IP address will be the system IP address of router R1; the source MAC address will be the MAC address of the PC, and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

B.

The source IP address will be the address of the PC, and the destination IP address will be the IP address of the router R1 port connected to the PC, the source MAC address will be the MAC address of the PC, and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

C.

The source IP address will be the address of the PC, and the destination IP address will be the IP address of the server, the source MAC address will be the MAC address of the PC, and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the server.

D.

The source IP address will be the address of the PC, and the destination IP address will be the IP address of the server; the source MAC address will be the MAC address of the PC, and the destination MAC address will be the MAC address of the router R1 port connected to the PC.

Question 29

If two routers running IS-IS protocols are exchanging Hello packets with different authentication types, which of the following statements regarding the adjacency state established between them is true?

Options:

A.

Different authentication types are not possible because IS-IS only supports password authentication.

B.

An adjacency will not be formed

C.

The two routers negotiate the authentication type and then reach the up state.

D.

Only an L2 adjacency will form, as long as both routers are L2 capable.

Question 30

Click the exhibit button.

as

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. However, as shown in the exhibit, the ping fails. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

Options:

A.

Router R2 does not have a route to the system address of router R1 and therefore cannot respond to the ping.

B.

There is no default route configured on the PC.

C.

Router R2 does not have a route configured to the PC.

D.

Router R1 needs to be configured with a default route.

Question 31

A default route for a client is also known as the:

Options:

A.

Default path

B.

Default gateway

C.

Gateway path

D.

Proxy ARP

Question 32

What command could be used to verify proper configuration of a static route in an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR router?

Options:

A.

Show route-table

B.

Show router routing-table

C.

Show router route-table

D.

Show static

Question 33

Click on the exhibit.

as

Initially, all links along the path R1-R2-R4-R6 have 400Mbps unreserved bandwidth and all links along the path R1-R3-R5-R6 have 800Mbps unreserved bandwidth. Shared Explicit reservation style is used and Make-Before-Break is enabled. Both fully loose LSPs have been signaled as shown. Later, the configured bandwidth for LSP-1 is changed to 400Mbps. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

After a new path for LSP-1 is established on R1-R3-R5-R6, the old path is torn down.

B.

After the old path for LSP-1 is torn down, the new path is established on R1-R3-R5-R6.

C.

LSP-1 will stay on R1-R2-R4-R6 because there is enough bandwidth on the existing path.

D.

LSP-1 will be torn down because CSPF fails to find a new path.

Question 34

Facility fast reroute with node protection is enabled for an LSP, which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Each PLR signals a bypass tunnel that avoids the next-hop downstream router.

B.

When a failure occurs, the PLR pushs an additional label onto the label stack.

C.

No bypass tunnel is established if the PLR cannot provide node protection.

D.

The head-end router sets the local protection desired flag in the session attribute object.

Question 35

Which of the following best completes the sentence: "An Internet Enhanced Service is a_____________ service where the CE communicates with a ________________interface to send and receive traffic.

Options:

A.

distributed/virtual

B.

local/sub

C.

routed/Layer 3

D.

distributed/routed

E.

Layer 2/loopback

Question 36

Epipe services do no consume any MAC resources because MAC learning is disabled.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 37

What is the purpose of a T-LDP session?

Options:

A.

It allows link LDP to be configured on the edge devices only.

B.

It is used to signal the transport labels in the provider core.

C.

It allows selective control over which devices are configured for LDP.

D.

It is used to signal the service labels in the provider core.

Question 38

Which of the following describes how a router sets the destination IP address for an RSVP RESV message?

Options:

A.

It sets the address to the system address of the head-end router.

B.

It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the ERO.

C.

It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the PSB.

D.

It sets the address to the next upstream hop from the RRO.

Question 39

Which of the following statements are TRUE about configuring a distributed Epipe service? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

The vc-id on the spoke-sdp must be explicitly configured.

B.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp must be explicitly configured.

C.

The vc-id on the spoke-sdp can be configured to match the service id.

D.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp can be configured to match the service id.

E.

The vc-id on the spoke-sdp does not have to be explicitly configured and will use the service id.

F.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp does not have to be explicitly configured and will use the service id.

Question 40

A technician sitting in a Network Operations Center would like to set up a remote mirror on an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 Service Router to examine some data traffic ingressing a port at a remote site. Which of the following are required? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

A mirror destination on the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router,

B.

A mirror source on the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

C.

A mirror source with the remote source specified on the remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

D.

A mirror source with the remote source specified on the local Alcatel-Lucent Service Router.

E.

An SDP between the local and remote Alcatel-Lucent Service Routers.

Question 41

Click on the exhibit.

as

An LDP-over-RSVP tunnel is established between routers R1 and R6. There is a VPN service running between routers R1 and R6. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R4 swaps both the RSVP-TE LSP label and LDP transport label received with new labels,

B.

Router R4 swaps the VPN service label received with a new label.

C.

Router R4 uses the same RSVP-TE LSP label as the one received from router R3.

D.

Router R4 uses the same LDP transport label as the one received from router R3.

Question 42

Which LSA type is used for OSPF-TE?

Options:

A.

Type 8 LSA — Link Local LSA

B.

Type 9 LSA — Link local Opaque LSA

C.

Type 10 LSA — Area local Opaque LSA

D.

Type 11 LSA —AS Opaque LSA

Question 43

Which of the following about the Link LDP discovery process on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

LDP Hello messages are sent over TCP.

B.

LDP Hello messages are sent to the All Routers address 224.0.0.2.

C.

LDP Hello messages are exchanged between all directly connected LDP enabled routers.

D.

Each LDP enabled router must have its own unique system IP address.

Question 44

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of RSVP-TE compared to LDP?

Options:

A.

RSVP-TE supports Connection Admission Control (CAC).

B.

RSVP-TE enables simplified configuration of LSPs.

C.

RSVP-TE supports path calculations that do not use IGP cost.

D.

RSVP-TE provides support for traffic protection features.

Question 45

Click on the exhibit.

as

Two LSPs traverse the path R1-R2-R3. Both LSPs are configured with facility fast reroute and link protection. When router R1 is the PLR, which router becomes the Merge Point (MP) for this LSP?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

Question 46

What is a key benefit of a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

The customer maintains complete control over routing.

B.

The adding of new sites is simplified; no re-configuration is required at existing sites.

C.

The clear demarcation of functionality between service provider and customer makes troubleshooting easier.

D.

All of the above.

Question 47

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding a fully meshed VPLS service with a default setting? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp must be explicitly configured.

B.

The vc-id on the mesh-sdp is automatically assigned by a PE using the service id.

C.

The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, does not have to match.

D.

The VPLS service id, on all PE routers, must match.

E.

If dynamic signaling is required, the signaling on all PE routers must be set to TLDP in the configuration of the SDPs.

F.

The signaling on all PE routers will default to TLDP in the configuration of the SDPs; therefore, no configuration change is required for dynamic signaling.

Question 48

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding sdp-ping? (Choose 3)

Options:

A.

Provides a mechanism to determine the hops an SDP traverses.

B.

Provides in-band uni-directional connectivity tests.

C.

Provides in-band round-trip connectivity tests.

D.

Tests ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP ID within the SDP encapsulation.

E.

Provides information regarding the exact MTU supported between service ingress and service termination.

Question 49

Which of the following SAPs will forward all tagged and untagged frames on the port? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*.0

D.

sap 1/1/1:0*

E.

sap 1/1/1:0

Question 50

Click on the exhibit.

as

Which of the following about the bypass tunnel is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The router 10.10.10.1 is a PLR providing node protection for the router 10.10.10.3.

B.

One-to-one fast reroute protection is requested by an LSP.

C.

The bypass-link tunnel is used to avoid the link with the egress interface address 10.3.4.4.

D.

The bypass-node tunnel is used to avoid the next-hop downstream router 10.10.10.3.

Question 51

Which of the following steps is mandatory when enabling an MP-BGP session between PE routers in a VPRN?

Options:

A.

Configure an autonomous system number in the global context.

B.

Configure a BGP group and peer parameters.

C.

Configure a VPN-IPv4 address family.

D.

All of the above steps are mandatory.

E.

None of the above steps are mandatory.

Question 52

Which of the following options are used to configure an MPLS signaling type to be used on an SDP? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

configure service sdp sdp-id gre create

B.

configure service sdp sdp-id create

C.

Idp

D.

Isp Isp-name

Question 53

Which of the following best describes how the path-mlu is chosen for an SDP?

Options:

A.

An SDP does not have a path-mtu

B.

The path-mtu must be set by the administrator.

C.

By default, the path-mtu is calculated automatically from the network port MTU of the PE router.

D.

The path-mtu is calculated based on the service MTU of the service using the SDP.

E.

The path-mtu is signaled between the PE endpoints when the service is established.

Question 54

What are the two major differences between configuring an IES service and configuring VPWS or VPLS services? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

IES does not support QoS.

B.

IES has a configurable IP-MTU

C.

A virtual route table must be configured for an IES service.

D.

An IES interface has an IP address assigned to it.

Question 55

What distinguishes a VPLS service from a VPWS service?

Options:

A.

VPLS supports point-to-point connections.

B.

VPLS supports multipoint-to-multipoint connections

C.

VPLS supports a distributed service

D.

VPLS supports a local service on a single node.

Question 56

What is the default vc-type for an SDP on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR?

Options:

A.

vc-type null

B.

vc-type ether

C.

vc-type vlan

D.

vc-type none

Question 57

Click on the exhibit.

as

All links have 1Gbps unreserved bandwidth initially and Shared Explicit reservation style is used. After the LSP's primary and standby secondary paths are signaled, how much unreserved bandwidth is left on the links?

Options:

A.

R1-R2 will have 300Mbps left and R2-R4 will have 400Mbps left.

B.

R1-R2 will have 400Mbps left and R2-R4 will have 400Mbps left.

C.

R1-R2 will have 600Mbps left and R2-R4 will have 600Mbps left.

D.

R1-R2 will have 300Mbps left and R2-R4 will have 600Mbps left.

Question 58

When a physical port is configured for null encapsulation, many SAPs can be configured using that port.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 59

In a Layer 2 encapsulation, using Martini, what does the first (top) label represent?

Options:

A.

Tunnel Label

B.

VC Label

C.

Operational Control Word

D.

UNI

E.

NNI

Question 60

What can the sdp-ping command be used for? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

To test the ability of reaching the far-end IP address of an SDP within the SDP encapsulation

B.

To determine the path MTU to the far-end IP address over an SDP.

C.

To determine the service MTU of the service using an SDP.

D.

To determine the presence of hosts using the service

Question 61

Which of the following devices assumes the active role during the establishment of an LDP session?

Options:

A.

The peer with the higher physical address.

B.

The peer with the higher transport address.

C.

The peer with the lower physical address.

D.

The peer with the lower transport address.

E.

The peer that generated the first Hello message.

Question 62

The terms "customer" and "service" are used synonymously when describing a service implementation on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 63

Which of the following about Type 10 opaque LSAs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Type 10 opaque LSAs are supported by IS-IS.

B.

Type 10 opaque LSAs are flooded to all areas of the routing domain.

C.

Type 10 opaque LSAs are stored in an LSDB.

D.

Type 10 opaque LSAs are used for traffic engineering support.

Question 64

Which of the following about per-interface label space is TRUE?

Options:

A.

A single label is assigned to a FEC for all interfaces on the same router.

B.

The same label can be used to forward a packet on an LSR regardless of which egress port is used.

C.

It uses fewer label resources than a per-platform label space.

D.

A separate label is used for each interface that the FEC is advertised on.

Question 65

Which of the following regarding IS-IS DIS is FALSE?

Options:

A.

L1 and L2 routers elect separate DIS's.

B.

DIS uses a specific Ethernet multicast address to communicate with other routers on the broadcast network.

C.

If a new router starts up in a LAN and has a higher interface priority, the new router preempts the original DIS and becomes the DIS.

D.

In broadcast multi-access networks, such as Ethernet, one router is elected as the DIS and a second router as the backup DIS.

Question 66

Click on the exhibit button below.

as

Assuming that LSP R1-R2-R3 requests the default fast reroute configuration, which router becomes a DMP for the detour tunnels?

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

Question 67

Click on the exhibit.

as

OSPF is operational on all links in the network diagram, all links are the same cost, and all routers are configured with an ECMP value of 4. Router R4 advertises the prefix 192.168.3.0/24 into OSPF.

How many entries for prefix 192.168.3.0/24 will be in router R5's routing table?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

E.

4

Question 68

What MPLS function should be performed by a router that receives a data packet containing an MPLS label value of 3?

Options:

A.

A router will never receive a packet containing this label value.

B.

Request a new label from the peer that provided this label.

C.

Pop the label.

D.

PUSH an additional label onto the label stack.

E.

Signal a new label to the peer that sent the packet.

Question 69

Click on the exhibit button below:

as

Consider the following:

- Router R2 is an ABR in OSPF Areas 0 and 1.

- Router R2 advertises the aggregate prefix 10.10.10.0/24 into Area 1.

- Router R1 in Area 0 generates LDP labels for FECs 10.10.102/31 and 10.10.10.4/31

Router R3 in Area 1 places these FECs in its LIB, but it does not place them in its LFIB. What can you do on router R3 to make it populate these labels in its LFIB?

Options:

A.

Disable route summarization on router R3

B.

Enable LDP aggregate prefix match

C.

Create an import policy to accept these FECs

D.

Disable LDP exact match on the specified FECs

Question 70

as

A service provider is deploying a 6over4 tunnel to connect a customer's branch office IPv6 network to the corporate headquarters as shown in the exhibit. Which command is used to create a default route on PE2 for the branch office network?

Options:

A.

configure router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 indirect 10.10.10.2

B.

configure router static-route 0.0.0.0/0 indirect 2001:DB8:1:100::1

C.

configure router static-route ::/0 indirect 10.10.10.2

D.

configure router static-route::/0indirect2001:DB8:1:100::1

E.

configure outer static-route::/0indirect2001:DB8:1:101::1

Question 71

True or False? MPLS may use an existing data link layer header field to identify a label, instead of using a specific MPLS header

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

Question 72

Which part of the NSAP address is used to indicate to the end system that a packet is to be processed by the router itself?

Options:

A.

AFI

B.

IDI

C.

HO-DSP

D.

NSEL

Question 73

Which of the following are top level TLV types defined for OSPF-TE? Choose two answers.

Options:

A.

Router address

B.

Traffic engineering metric

C.

Maximum bandwidth

D.

Link

E.

Admin Group

Question 74

Which of the following best describes the forwarding of a IPv6 packet that has a destination anycast address?

Options:

A.

It is sent to all nodes on the local link.

B.

It is sent to all nodes on the local network.

C.

It is sent to all nodes that have joined the anycast group.

D.

It is sent to the nearest node that is assigned the anycast address

E.

It is sent to all nodes that are assigned the anycast address.

Question 75

Which OSPFv3 LSA type is similar in function to the OSPFv2 Type 4 LSA?

Options:

A.

Link

B.

Intra-Area Prefix

C.

Inter-Area Prefix

D.

Inter-Area Router

Question 76

Click on the exhibit button below. Assume the following:

as

- The protected path is R1-R2-R3-R6.

- Fast reroute one-to-one protection is enabled.

If the original LSP already has two labels, and router R2 has failed, how many labels will there be in packets on the detour path?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 77

Which of the following concerning OSPFv3 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

OSPFv3 uses MD5 Authentication.

B.

Router LSAs carry IPv6 prefix information.

C.

NSSA is supported in OSPFv3.

D.

OSPFv3 uses a 64-bit router ID.

Question 78

Click on the exhibit.

as

192.168.3.1 is a loopback interface on router R2 and is distributed to OSPF area 0, but the ping fails from router R3.

Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Add the "originate-default-route" option in the NSSA area configuration on router R3.

B.

Add the "summaries" option to the NSSA area configuration on router R1.

C.

Configure a static route on router R1 to 192.168.3.1.

D.

Configure a default route on router R2.

Question 79

The destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB.

Which of the following is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A POP label stack operation may be performed.

B.

The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.

C.

The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.

D.

A PUSH label stack operation may be performed.

Question 80

Click on the exhibit.

as

A static route has been configured on router R1 to reach the PC at 139.120.121.2. What might be causing the ping to fail?

Options:

A.

Router R2 needs a static route to the PC.

B.

Router R2 needs a default to router R1.

C.

Router R1 needs a default route to router R2.

D.

The static route should use a next-hop of 172.31.1.2

Question 81

Click on the exhibit.

as

The OSPF adjacency between routers R1 and R3 does not come up.

Which of the following is a possible solution to the problem?

Options:

A.

Stub must be configured on Area 1 of router R1, and removed from Area 1 on router R3.

B.

Stub must be configured on Area 1 of router R1 and Area 1 of router R3.

C.

Stub must be configured on Area 0 of router R1 and Area 1 of router R3.

D.

Area 1 of router R3 should be Area 0, in order to connect via stub to router R1.

Question 82

Click on the exhibit button below.

as

Consider the output shown; what table is displayed?

Options:

A.

RIB

B.

FIB

C.

LIB

D.

LFIB

Question 83

Which of the following statements regarding OSPF routing updates on a point-to-point link is true?

Options:

A.

On a point-to-point link, there is no need for a DR and BDR election; all routing updates are sent to 224.0.0.5.

B.

On a point-to-point link, a DR and BDR are elected. The DR sends link-state advertisements describing the network.

C.

On a point-to-point link, a DR and BDR are elected. To ensure resiliency, both the DR and BDR send link-state advertisements describing the network.

D.

On a point-to-point link, there is no need for a DR and BDR election. All routing updates are sent to the unicast address of the neighbor's interface.

Question 84

Which of the following commands may only be used on the head end router to verify the status of an LSP named "LSP 1"? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

show router mpls Isp "LSP 1" originate

B.

show router mpls Isp "LSP 1" path detail

C.

show router rsvp session originate

D.

show router rsvp session "LSP 1"

Question 85

Which of the following is described by the following statement? An LSR propagates a label mapping only for a FEC for which it has a label mapping for the FEC next-hop.

Options:

A.

Independent control mode

B.

Ordered control mode

C.

Liberal label retention

D.

Conservative label retention

E.

Downstream on demand.

Question 86

Click on the exhibit button below.

as

Given the following fast reroute protected LSPs:

-LSP1.R1-R4-R5-R3

-LSP2.R1-R4-R5-R2

Which routers become bypass tunnel PLRs? Choose two answers

Options:

A.

Router R1

B.

Router R2

C.

Router R3

D.

Router R4

E.

Router R5

Question 87

Click on the exhibit.

as

Assuming point-to-point links, which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Routers R1 and R2 are L2 routers. Routers R3 and R4 are L1/L2 routers.

B.

Routers R1, R2, and R4 are L1/L2 routers Router R3 is an L1 router.

C.

Routers R1, R2, and R3 are L2 routers. Router R4 is an L1 router.

D.

Routers R1 and R2 are L1/L2 routers. Routers R3 and R4 are L1 routers.

Question 88

To configure 6over4 tunneling, where must indirect static routes be configured?

Options:

A.

On the CEs only.

B.

On the PEs only.

C.

On only the branch office CE.

D.

On both the CEs and PEs.

Question 89

Click on the exhibit button below.

as

If the four LSPs shown use the shared-explicit reservation style, how much bandwidth does CSPF request across a single 1Gbps link?

Options:

A.

100Mbps

B.

200Mbps

C.

300Mpbs

D.

600Mbps

E.

700Mbps

Question 90

Which of the following is a feature of a black-hole static route?

Options:

A.

It discards packets based on the source address.

B.

It discards packets that match the destination prefix.

C.

It returns ICMP unreachable messages.

D.

It discards packets based on the egress port.

Question 91

Click on the exhibit.

as

Examine the physical topology of the IS-IS network, the metrics of the links and the levels of the routers. All routers have a system address included in IS-IS.

Which of the following describes the route that router R4 will use to reach the system address of router R6?

Options:

A.

Router R4 will have a route to router R6's system address with router R2 as the next-hop.

B.

Router R4 will have a default route with router R2 as the next-hop.

C.

Router R4 will have a default route with router R3 as the next-hop.

D.

Router R4 will not have a route that can be used to reach the system address of router R6.

Question 92

A static route needs to be configured with a next-hop that is NOT directly connected to the router. Which of the following must be TRUE?

Options:

A.

The router must also have an active static route to the next-hop specified in the static route command.

B.

The system address of the next-hop router must be included in the static route command.

C.

The command option "indirect" must be used in the static-route command.

D.

The system address of the router connected to the destination must be included in the static route command

Question 93

Click on the exhibit.

as

Router R2 uses IS-IS to advertise the network 192.168.3.0/24 to R1. How can router R1 discard the route?

Options:

A.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R2.

B.

Use an export policy and a prefix list on router R1.

C.

Use an import policy and a prefix list on router R1.

D.

Router R1 cannot discard the route because IS-IS does not support import policies.

Question 94

Click on the exhibit.

as

Router R1 learns the network 192.168.3.0/24 from IS-IS. Given the OSPF configuration shown, why isn't the 192.168.3.0/24 route in router R3's route table?

Options:

A.

The route policy should be applied as an import policy.

B.

The route policy should say "from protocol isis" instead of "from protocol direct".

C.

The ASBR configuration should be removed.

D.

The interface between routers R1 and R3 must be in OSPF area 0.

Question 95

Which of the following are characteristics of an LSP? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It is unidirectional.

B.

It is bidirectional.

C.

It must always have a secondary path.

D.

It provides a specific tunnel for a FEC through the network.

E.

It always follows the IGP best path.

Question 96

Which of the following are functions of the MPLS control plane in a router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Label allocation and management.

B.

Label swapping.

C.

Pushing a label on an unlabeled packet.

D.

Label signaling.

E.

Routing lookups.

Question 97

Which of the following best describes an SDP?

Options:

A.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one SAP to another on a single node.

B.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one service to another on a single node.

C.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from one access port to another.

D.

Acts as a logical way to direct traffic from services on one router to services on another.

Question 98

Which of the following about the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR sdp-ping is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It tests the IGP reachability of the far-end IP address of an SDP.

B.

It tests that the MTU settings of a service are correct.

C.

It tests in-band, uni-directional or round-trip connectivity of SDPs.

D.

It tests the reachability of hosts connected to an SDP.

Question 99

Which of the following commands is used to enable an E-pipe service?

Options:

A.

config>service= epipe enable

B.

config>service~ vpws enable

C.

config>service= no shutdown

D.

config>port= no shutdown

E.

config>service= epipe no shutdown

Question 100

What is the best approach of making MTUs match between a VPLS and a spoke IES in order to bring up the service?

Options:

A.

Change the service MTU of the VPLS to match the IES.

B.

Set the ip-mtu of the IES service to match the service MTU of the VPLS service.

C.

Change the MTU of the SDP attached to the VPLS to match the service MTU of the VPLS.

D.

Set the DNF flag on the IES service.

Question 101

A service has a null encapsulated SAP and a vc-type vlan' SDP. What happens when the SAP receives an untagged Ethernet frame?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The service ID is added as the provider VLAN tag.

C.

A VLAN tag of 0 is added as the provider VLAN tag.

D.

The frame is forwarded with no provider VLAN tag.

Question 102

In a Layer 2 encapsulation using T-LDP, what does the first (top) label represent?

Options:

A.

Tunnel Label

B.

VC Label

C.

Operational Control Word

D.

UNI

E.

NNI

Question 103

Which of the following about VPRN VRF tables is FALSE?

Options:

A.

A PE uses the same VRF table for all the VPRN services on it.

B.

A PE uses a VRF to maintain forwarding information.

C.

Information for VRFs can be advertised between PEs by MP-BGP.

D.

A PE uses a VRF to route traffic to CEs.

Question 104

A CE is connected to an IES interface. Which of the following is TRUE?

Options:

A.

The CE must be an IGP peer of the IES.

B.

The CE must be on the same subnet as the IES.

C.

The CE must use an E-pipe to connect to the IES.

D.

The CE must fragment any frames that are too large for the IES.

Question 105

Which of the following statements about VPRN is NOT true? (Choose 2)

Options:

A.

VPRN is an IP service that connects multiple sites in a single routed domain over the provider-managed IP/MPLS network.

B.

Each VPRN consists of a set of customer sites that must connect to the same PE router

C.

In a VPRN service, each customer router becomes a routing peer to other customer routers

D.

VPRN provides customer routers with transparent IP connectivity without knowledge of the MPLS core

Question 106

Which of the following about IES is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An IES has a configurable VC MTU.

B.

An IES interface has an IP address assigned to it.

C.

IES supports QoS.

D.

An IES requires a spoke SDP.

Question 107

Which of the following SAPs will forward all tagged and untagged frames on the port?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:*.0

C.

sap 1/1/1:0.*

D.

1/1/1:0

Question 108

What is the minimum Ethernet physical network MTU required for a Layer 2 service on an MPLS encapsulated SDP with a service MTU of 1518?

Options:

A.

1520

B.

1540

C.

1548

D.

1556

Question 109

Which of the following about ADSPEC is FALSE?

Options:

A.

ADSPEC sets an SDP's MTU to the smallest MTU value found along the LSP path.

B.

RSVP must be enabled on all MPLS routers of a path to use ADSPEC.

C.

ADSPEC can automatically adjust the service MTU.

D.

ADSPEC can be enabled on individual LSPs.

Question 110

Which of the following about VPN labels is FALSE?

Options:

A.

They are signaled between PE devices using MP-BGP.

B.

They are swapped at each P router as a packet crosses the service provider network.

C.

They are also known as the inner label or service label.

D.

They indicate to the egress PE the VPRN to which a packet belongs.

Question 111

Which of the following about the components of a service on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An SDP can be used by more than one service and customer.

B.

A SAP can only be created on an access port.

C.

A customer can have multiple services associated to it.

D.

A customer is only created on one site of a distributed service.

Question 112

Click the exhibit.

as

Part of a 6VPE deployment is shown in this exhibit. Which of the following is the correct configuration and context on PE1 for a BGP peering session with CE1?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 113

By default, what does the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR do when a frame with an unknown destination address is received in a VPLS?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame.

B.

It floods the frame to all PEs participating in the service.

C.

It sends a destination unreachable message back to the originating host.

D.

It sends the frame to the closest neighbor.

Question 114

Which of the following best describes how a MAC FDB is populated in a VPLS service?

Options:

A.

A VPLS service does not use a MAC FDB.

B.

The router reads the destination MAC address of frames passing through the service.

C.

The router reads the source MAC address of frames passing through the service.

D.

The router uses reverse ARP (RARP) to resolve the MAC addresses for unknown destinations.

E.

The router is programmed with MAC addresses by the network administrator.

Question 115

Which of the following about VPRN VRF tables is FALSE?

Options:

A.

VRF information is advertised between PEs using MP-BGP.

B.

VRF tables are used to forward traffic to CEs.

C.

P routers use VRF tables to maintain customer-specific information.

D.

VRF tables provide isolation between customers.

Question 116

Which of the following statements best describes the flooding of traffic on a PE when traffic is received on a mesh SDP?

Options:

A.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs in the service.

B.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and spoke SDPs in the service.

C.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs and mesh SDPs in the service.

D.

Traffic is flooded to all SAPs, spoke SDPs. and mesh SDPs in the service.

E.

The traffic is not flooded.

Question 117

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, which of the following about IES interfaces is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An IES can only have one interface.

B.

An IES interface can have an SDP or a SAP.

C.

An IES can perform fragmentation.

D.

An IES must have an IP address assigned to it.

Question 118

Click the exhibit.

as

E-pipe 100 is using an SDP (4) with an LSP that uses the path shown (PE1-PE2-PE3-PE4). Which of the following is the expected output from the OAM command?

as

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 119

On an Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR, why must the MTU be explicitly set when configuring an IES spoke termination to a VPLS?

Options:

A.

By default, a VPLS signals an MTU based on the network port.

B.

By default, an IES sets its ip-mtu to the VC MTU of the VPLS.

C.

By default, an IES uses an MTU value based on its SAP.

D.

By default, an IES uses an MTU based on the network port.

Question 120

A VPLS receives a frame with the single VLAN tag 35 on the Q-in-Q SAP 1/1/1:35.*. Which of the following describes default Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR behavior?

Options:

A.

The frame is dropped.

B.

The VLAN tag is removed, and the frame is transported over the network.

C.

The VLAN tag is kept, and the frame is transported over the network.

D.

The VLAN tag is kept, a VLAN of 0 is added, and the frame is transported over the network.

Question 121

Which of the following commands can be used to compare the VC MTU signaled between two PE routers?

Options:

A.

show router route-table

B.

show router Idp bindings

C.

show service service-using

D.

show service egress-label

E.

show router rsvp session

Question 122

Which of the following about IES is FALSE?

Options:

A.

An IES provides a Layer 3 interface to a customer.

B.

A virtual routing/forwarding table is created per IES service.

C.

An IES supports QoS.

D.

An IES interface's IP address, if bound to a port, will appear in the routing table.

Question 123

Which of the following is a benefit of VPRN as compared to VPLS?

Options:

A.

Service providers can apply QoS, ingress/egress traffic shaping and policing on a per service basis.

B.

Different customers with overlapping address space can be accommodated.

C.

There is a clear demarcation of customer and service provider networks.

D.

Customers can connect to the same service using different subnets.

Question 124

An SDP using MPLS encapsulation is configured for an E-pipe service. The network port on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR used by the SDP has an MTU of 8000. What is the SDP path MTU?

Options:

A.

7958

B.

7978

C.

8022

D.

8042

Question 125

Which of the following about route distinguishes on the Alcatel-Lucent 7750 SR is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Route distinguishes are contained in VPN-IPv4 prefixes.

B.

Route distinguishes allow the same IP prefix to be used for more than one destination in a single VPRN.

C.

Route distinguishes allow MP-BGP to manage multiple routes for the same IP prefix.

D.

Route distinguishes are only used by the PE routes.

Question 126

Which of the following about VPRNs is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Customers must use the same routing protocol as the service provider.

B.

Customers belonging to the same VPRN service must use the same subnet.

C.

Service providers only need to perform configurations on the PEs to add additional VPRNs.

D.

For each VPRN, only one customer can be connected at each PE.

Question 127

Which of the following SAPs will toward tagged frames but NOT untagged frames?

Options:

A.

sap 1/1/1

B.

sap 1/1/1:*

C.

sap 1/1/1:*.0

D.

sap 1/1/1:0

E.

None of the above.

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