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Paloalto Networks CloudSec-Pro Dumps

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Total 258 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cloud Security Professional Questions and Answers

Question 1

Given the following JSON query:

$.resource[*].aws_s3_bucket exists

Which tab is the correct place to add the JSON query when creating a Config policy?

Options:

A.

Details

B.

Compliance Standards

C.

Remediation

D.

Build Your Rule (Run tab)

E.

Build Your Rule (Build tab)

Question 2

Who can access saved searches in a cloud account?

Options:

A.

Administrators

B.

Users who can access the tenant

C.

Creators

D.

All users with whom the saved search has been shared

Question 3

Prisma Cloud cannot integrate which of the following secrets managers?

Options:

A.

IBM Secret Manager

B.

AzureKey Vault

C.

HashiCorp Vault

D.

AWS Secret Manager

Question 4

An administrator sees that a runtime audit has been generated for a Container. The audit message is “DNS resolution of suspicious name wikipedia.com. type A”.

Why would this message appear as an audit?

Options:

A.

The DNS was not learned as part of the Container model or added to the DNS allow list.

B.

This is a DNS known to be a source of malware.

C.

The process calling out to this domain was not part of the Container model.

D.

The Layer7 firewall detected this as anomalous behavior.

Question 5

Which three types of runtime rules can be created? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Processes

B.

Network-outgoing

C.

Filesystem

D.

Kubernetes-audit

E.

Waas-request

Question 6

A DevOps lead reviewed some system logs and notices some odd behavior that could be a data exfiltration attempt. The DevOps lead only has access to vulnerability data in Prisma Cloud Compute, so the DevOps lead passes this information to SecOps.

Which pages in Prisma Cloud Compute can the SecOps lead use to investigate the runtime aspects of this attack?

Options:

A.

The SecOps lead should investigate the attack using Vulnerability Explorer and Runtime Radar.

B.

The SecOps lead should use Incident Explorer and Compliance Explorer.

C.

The SecOps lead should use the Incident Explorer page and Monitor > Events > Container Audits.

D.

The SecOps lead should review the vulnerability scans in the CI/CD process to determine blame.

Question 7

Which of the below actions would indicate – “The timestamp on the compliance dashboard?

Options:

A.

indicates the most recent data

B.

indicates the most recent alert generated

C.

indicates when the data was ingested

D.

indicates when the data was aggregated for the results displayed

Question 8

A security team is deploying Cloud Native Application Firewall (CNAF) on a containerized web application. The application is running an NGINX container. The container is listening on port 8080 and is mapped to host port 80.

Which port should the team specify in the CNAF rule to protect the application?

Options:

A.

443

B.

80

C.

8080

D.

8888

Question 9

Given an existing ECS Cluster, which option shows the steps required to install the Console in Amazon ECS?

Options:

A.

The console cannot natively run in an ECS cluster. A onebox deployment should be used.

B.

Download and extract the release tarballEnsure that each node has its own storage for Console data Create the Console task definitionDeploy the task definition

C.

Download and extract release tarball Download task from AWSCreate the Console task definition Deploy the task definition

D.

Download and extract the release tarball Create an EFS file system and mount to each node in the cluster Create the Console task definition Deploy the task definition

Question 10

Which three serverless runtimes are supported by Prisma Cloud for vulnerability and compliance scans? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Swift

B.

Python

C.

Dart

D.

Java

E.

Node.js

Question 11

Which option shows the steps to install the Console in a Kubernetes Cluster?

Options:

A.

Download the Console and Defender image Generate YAML for DefenderDeploy Defender YAML using kubectl

B.

Download and extract release tarball Generate YAML for ConsoleDeploy Console YAML using kubectl

C.

Download the Console and Defender image Download YAML for Defender from the document site Deploy Defender YAML using kubectl

D.

Download and extract release tarball Download the YAML for Console Deploy Console YAML using kubectl

Question 12

Which two of the following are required to be entered on the IdP side when setting up SSO in Prisma Cloud? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Username

B.

SSO Certificate

C.

Assertion Consumer Service (ACS) URL

D.

SP (Service Provider) Entity ID

Question 13

An administrator has deployed Console into a Kubernetes cluster running in AWS. The administrator also has configured a load balancer in TCP passthrough mode to listen on the same ports as the default Prisma Compute Console configuration.

In the build pipeline, the administrator wants twistcli to talk to Console over HTTPS. Which port will twistcli need to use to access the Prisma Compute APIs?

Options:

A.

8084

B.

443

C.

8083

D.

8081

Question 14

Which method should be used to authenticate to Prisma Cloud Enterprise programmatically?

Options:

A.

single sign-on

B.

SAML

C.

basic authentication

D.

access key

Question 15

Which two statements are true about the differences between build and run config policies? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Run and Network policies belong to the configuration policy set.

B.

Build and Audit Events policies belong to the configuration policy set.

C.

Run policies monitor resources, and check for potential issues after these cloud resources are deployed.

D.

Build policies enable you to check for security misconfigurations in the IaC templates and ensure that these issues do not get into production.

E.

Run policies monitor network activities in your environment, and check for potential issues during runtime.

Question 16

An administrator needs to detect and alert on any activities performed by a root account.

Which policy type should be used?

Options:

A.

config-run

B.

config-build

C.

network

D.

audit event

Question 17

Which container image scan is constructed correctly?

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --docker-address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/ latest

B.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 myimage/latest

C.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 --container myimage/ latest

D.

twistcli images scan --address https://us-west1.cloud.twistlock.com/us-3-123456789 --container myimage/ latest --details

Question 18

An administrator for Prisma Cloud needs to obtain a graphical view to monitor all connections, including connections across hosts and connections to any configured network objects.

Which setting does the administrator enable or configure to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

ADEM

B.

WAAS Analytics

C.

Telemetry

D.

Cloud Native Network Firewall

E.

Host Insight

Question 19

You have onboarded a public cloud account into Prisma Cloud Enterprise. Configuration Resource ingestion is visible in the Asset Inventory for the onboarded account, but no alerts are being generated for the configuration assets in the account.

Config policies are enabled in the Prisma Cloud Enterprise tenant, with those policies associated to existing alert rules. ROL statements on the investigate matching those policies return config resource results successfully.

Why are no alerts being generated?

Options:

A.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert notification.

B.

The public cloud account does not have audit trail ingestion enabled.

C.

The public cloud account does not access to configuration resources.

D.

The public cloud account is not associated with an alert rule.

Question 20

The security team wants to target a CNAF policy for specific running Containers. How should the administrator scope the policy to target the Containers?

Options:

A.

scope the policy to Image names.

B.

scope the policy to namespaces.

C.

scope the policy to Defender names.

D.

scope the policy to Host names.

Question 21

Prisma Cloud Compute has been installed on Onebox. After Prisma Cloud Console has been accessed. Defender is disconnected and keeps returning the error "No console connectivity" in the logs.

What could be causing the disconnection between Console and Defender in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Port 8083 is not open for Console and Defender communication.

B.

The license key provided to the Console is invalid.

C.

Port 8084 is not open for Console and Defender communication.

D.

Onebox script installed an older version of the Defender.

Question 22

Match the correct scanning mode for each given operation.

(Select your answer from the pull-down list. Answers may be used more than once or not at all.)

as

Options:

Question 23

Which two processes ensure that builds can function after a Console upgrade? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

allowing Jenkins to automatically update the plugin

B.

updating any build environments that have twistcli included to use the latest version

C.

configuring build pipelines to download twistcli at the start of each build

D.

creating a new policy that allows older versions of twistcli to connect the Console

Question 24

Which three elements are part of SSH Events in Host Observations? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Startup process

B.

User

C.

System calls

D.

Process path

E.

Command

Question 25

Per security requirements, an administrator needs to provide a list of people who are receiving e-mails for Prisma Cloud alerts.

Where can the administrator locate this list of e-mail recipients?

Options:

A.

Target section within an Alert Rule.

B.

Notification Template section within Alerts.

C.

Users section within Settings.

D.

Set Alert Notification section within an Alert Rule.

Question 26

An administrator sees that a runtime audit has been generated for a container.

The audit message is:

“/bin/ls launched and is explicitly blocked in the runtime rule. Full command: ls -latr”

Which protection in the runtime rule would cause this audit?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

File systems

C.

Processes

D.

Container

Question 27

Which two CI/CD plugins are supported by Prisma Cloud as part of its Code Security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Checkov

B.

Visual Studio Code

C.

CircleCI

D.

IntelliJ

Question 28

A security team notices a number of anomalies under Monitor > Events. The incident response team works with the developers to determine that these anomalies are false positives.

What will be the effect if the security team chooses to Relearn on this image?

Options:

A.

The model is deleted, and Defender will relearn for 24 hours.

B.

The anomalies detected will automatically be added to the model.

C.

The model is deleted and returns to the initial learning state.

D.

The model is retained, and any new behavior observed during the new learning period will be added to the existing model.

Question 29

Which three actions are required in order to use the automated method within Azure Cloud to streamline the process of using remediation in the identity and access management (IAM) module? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Install boto3 & requests library.

B.

Configure IAM Azure remediation script.

C.

Integrate with Azure Service Bus.

D.

Configure IAM AWS remediation script.

E.

Install azure.servicebus & requests library.

Question 30

A customer is reviewing Container audits, and an audit has identified a cryptominer attack. Which three options could have generated this audit? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

The value of the mined currency exceeds $100.

B.

High CPU usage over time for the container is detected.

C.

Common cryptominer process name was found.

D.

The mined currency is associated with a user token.

E.

Common cryptominer port usage was found.

Question 31

Which statement about build and run policies is true?

Options:

A.

Build policies enable you to check for security misconfigurations in the IaC templates.

B.

Every type of policy has auto-remediation enabled by default.

C.

The four main types of policies are: Audit Events, Build, Network, and Run.

D.

Run policies monitor network activities in the environment and check for potential issues during runtime.

Question 32

Which two statements apply to the Defender type Container Defender - Linux?

Options:

A.

It is implemented as runtime protection in the userspace.

B.

It is deployed as a service.

C.

It is deployed as a container.

D.

It is incapable of filesystem runtime defense.

Question 33

Console is running in a Kubernetes cluster, and you need to deploy Defenders on nodes within this cluster.

Which option shows the steps to deploy the Defenders in Kubernetes using the default Console service name?

Options:

A.

From the deployment page in Console, choose pod name for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply the DaemonSet to twistlock namespace.

B.

From the deployment page configure the cloud credential in Console and allow cloud discovery to auto-protect the Kubernetes nodes.

C.

From the deployment page in Console, choose twistlock-console for Console identifier, generate DaemonSet file, and apply DaemonSet to the twistlock namespace.

D.

From the deployment page in Console, choose twistlock-console for Console identifier, and run the curl | bash script on the master Kubernetes node.

Question 34

Which step is included when configuring Kubernetes to use Prisma Cloud Compute as an admission controller?

Options:

A.

copy the Console address and set the config map for the default namespace.

B.

create a new namespace in Kubernetes called admission-controller.

C.

enable Kubernetes auditing from the Defend > Access > Kubernetes page in the Console.

D.

copy the admission controller configuration from the Console and apply it to Kubernetes.

Question 35

A customer has a requirement to scan serverless functions for vulnerabilities.

What is the correct option to configure scanning?

Options:

A.

Configure serverless radar from the Defend > Compliance > Cloud Platforms page.

B.

Embed serverless Defender into the function.

C.

Configure a function scan policy from the Defend > Vulnerabilities > Functions page.

D.

Use Lambda layers to deploy a Defender into the function.

Question 36

How many CLI remediation commands can be added in a custom policy sequence?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

5

Question 37

Under which tactic is “Exploit Public-Facing Application” categorized in the ATT&CK framework?

Options:

A.

Defense Evasion

B.

Initial Access

C.

Execution

D.

Privilege Escalation

Question 38

Taking which action will automatically enable all severity levels?

Options:

A.

Navigate to Settings > Enterprise Settings and enable all severity levels in the alarm center.

B.

Navigate to Policies > Settings and enable all severity levels in the alarm center.

C.

Navigate to Settings > Enterprise Settings and ensure all severity levels are checked under "auto-enable default policies.

D.

Navigate to Policies > Settings and ensure all severity levels are checked under "auto-enable default policies.

Question 39

An administrator has been tasked with a requirement by your DevSecOps team to write a script to continuously query programmatically the existing users, and the user’s associated permission levels, in a Prisma Cloud Enterprise tenant.

Which public documentation location should be reviewed to help determine the required attributes to carry out this step?

Options:

A.

Prisma Cloud Administrator’s Guide (Compute)

B.

Prisma Cloud API Reference

C.

Prisma Cloud Compute API Reference

D.

Prisma Cloud Enterprise Administrator’s Guide

Question 40

Which two options may be used to upgrade the Defenders with a Console v20.04 and Kubernetes deployment? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Run the provided curl | bash script from Console to remove Defenders, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy Defenders.

B.

Remove Defenders DaemonSet, and then use Cloud Discovery to automatically redeploy the Defenders.

C.

Remove Defenders, and then deploy the new DaemonSet so Defenders do not have to automatically update on each deployment.

D.

Let Defenders automatically upgrade.

Question 41

What happens when a role is deleted in Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

The access key associated with that role is automatically deleted.

B.

Any integrations that use the access key to make calls to Prisma Cloud will stop working.

C.

The users associated with that role will be deleted.

D.

Any user who uses that key will be deleted.

Question 42

What is the function of the external ID when onboarding a new Amazon Web Services (AWS) account in Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

It is a unique identifier needed only when Monitor & Protect mode is selected.

B.

It is the resource name for the Prisma Cloud Role.

C.

It is a UUID that establishes a trust relationship between the Prisma Cloud account and the AWS account in order to extract data.

D.

It is the default name of the PrismaCloudApp stack.

Question 43

Which alert deposition severity must be chosen to generate low and high severity alerts in the Anomaly settings when user wants to report on an unknown browser and OS, impossible time travel, or both due to account hijacking attempts?

Options:

A.

High

B.

Aggressive

C.

Moderate

D.

Conservative

Question 44

Creation of a new custom compliance standard that is based on other individual custom compliance standards needs to be automated.

Assuming the necessary data from other standards has been collected, which API order should be used for this new compliance standard?

Question 45

You are tasked with configuring a Prisma Cloud build policy for Terraform. What type of query is necessary to complete this policy?

Options:

A.

YAML

B.

JSON

C.

CloudFormation

D.

Terraform

Question 46

Which three actions are available for the container image scanning compliance rule? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Allow

B.

Snooze

C.

Block

D.

Ignore

E.

Alert

Question 47

Which two bot categories belong to unknown bots under Web-Application and API Security (WAAS) bot protection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

News bots

B.

Search engine crawlers

C.

Web scrapers

D.

HTTP libraries

Question 48

Which RQL will trigger the following audit event activity?

Options:

A.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation ConsoleLogin AND user = 'root’

B.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN('cloudsql.instances.update','cloudsql.sslCerts.create', cloudsql.instances.create','cloudsq

C.

event from cloud.audit_logs where cloud.service = s3.amazonaws.com' AND json.rule = $.userAgent contains 'parrot1

D.

event from cloud.audit_logs where operation IN ( 'GetBucketWebsite', 'PutBucketWebsite', 'DeleteBucketWebsite')

Question 49

Given the following information, which twistcli command should be run if an administrator were to exec into a running container and scan it from within using an access token for authentication?

• Console is located at

• Token is: TOKEN_VALUE

• Report ID is: REPORTJD

• Container image running is: myimage:latest

Options:

A.

twistcli images scan --address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKENVALUE —containerized —details myimage:latest

B.

twistcli images scan —console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —auth-token MY_TOKEN —local-scan —details myimage:latest

C.

twistcli images scan —address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local —token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized --details REPORT_ID

D.

twistcli images scan --console-address https://prisma-console.mydomain.local --auth-token TOKEN_VALUE —containerized —vulnerability-details REPORT_ID

Question 50

Which three steps are involved in onboarding an account for Data Security? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Create a read-only role with in-line policies

B.

Create a Cloudtrail with SNS Topic

C.

Enable Flow Logs

D.

Enter the RoleARN and SNSARN

E.

Create a S3 bucket

Question 51

In Azure, what permissions need to be added to Management Groups to allow Prisma Cloud to calculate net effective permissions?

Options:

A.

Microsoft.Management/managementGroups/descendants/read

B.

Microsoft.Management/managementGroups/descendants/calculate

C.

PaloAltoNetworks.PrismaCloud/managementGroups/descendants/read

D.

PaloAltoNetworks.PrismaCloud/managementGroups/

Question 52

A customer wants to harden its environment from misconfiguration.

Prisma Cloud Compute Compliance enforcement for hosts covers which three options? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Docker daemon configuration files

B.

Docker daemon configuration

C.

Host cloud provider tags

D.

Host configuration

E.

Hosts without Defender agents

Question 53

What are two alarm types that are registered after alarms are enabled? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Onboarded Cloud Accounts status

B.

Resource status

C.

Compute resources

D.

External integrations status

Question 54

Which RQL query type is invalid?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

IAM

C.

Incident

D.

Config

Question 55

Given a default deployment of Console, a customer needs to identify the alerted compliance checks that are set by default.

Where should the customer navigate in Console?

Options:

A.

Monitor > Compliance

B.

Defend > Compliance

C.

Manage > Compliance

D.

Custom > Compliance

Question 56

An administrator wants to retrieve the compliance policies for images scanned in a continuous integration (CI) pipeline.

Which endpoint will successfully execute to enable access to the images via API?

Options:

A.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance

B.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci

C.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci/images

D.

GET /api/v22.01/policies/compliance/ci/serverless

Question 57

Which component(s), if any, will Palo Alto Networks host and run when a customer purchases Prisma Cloud Enterprise Edition?

Options:

A.

Defenders

B.

Console

C.

Jenkins

D.

twistcli

Question 58

A user from an organization is unable to log in to Prisma Cloud Console after having logged in the previous day.

Which area on the Console will provide input on this issue?

Options:

A.

SSO

B.

Audit Logs

C.

Users & Groups

D.

Access Control

Question 59

Which action would be applicable after enabling anomalous compute provisioning?

Options:

A.

It detects the activity caused by the spambot.

B.

It detects unusual server port activity or unusual protocol activity from a client within or outside the cloud environment.

C.

It detects potential creation of an unauthorized network of compute instances with AutoFocus.

D.

It detects potential creation of an unauthorized network of compute instances either accidentally or for cryptojacking.

Question 60

The development team wants to fail CI jobs where a specific CVE is contained within the image. How should the development team configure the pipeline or policy to produce this outcome?

Options:

A.

Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Jenkins or twistcli.

B.

Set the specific CVE exception as an option in Defender running the scan.

C.

Set the specific CVE exception as an option using the magic string in the Console.

D.

Set the specific CVE exception in Console’s CI policy.

Question 61

Which resources can be added in scope while creating a vulnerability policy for continuous integration?

Options:

A.

Labels and AccountID

B.

Images and labels

C.

Images and cluster

D.

Images and containers

Question 62

Which two IDE plugins are supported by Prisma Cloud as part of its DevOps Security? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

BitBucket

B.

Visual Studio Code

C.

CircleCI

D.

IntelliJ

Question 63

A customer wants to monitor its Amazon Web Services (AWS) accounts via Prisma Cloud, but only needs the resource configuration to be monitored at present.

Which two pieces of information are needed to onboard this account? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

External ID

B.

CloudTrail

C.

Active Directory ID

D.

RoleARN

Question 64

A customer is deploying Defenders to a Fargate environment. It wants to understand the vulnerabilities in the image it is deploying.

How should the customer automate vulnerability scanning for images deployed to Fargate?

Options:

A.

Set up a vulnerability scanner on the registry

B.

Embed a Fargate Defender to automatically scan for vulnerabilities

C.

Designate a Fargate Defender to serve a dedicated image scanner

D.

Use Cloud Compliance to identify misconfigured AWS accounts

Question 65

Which categories does the Adoption Advisor use to measure adoption progress for Cloud Security Posture Management?

Options:

A.

Visibility, Compliance, Governance, and Threat Detection and Response

B.

Network, Anomaly, and Audit Event

C.

Visibility, Security, and Compliance

D.

Foundations, Advanced, and Optimize

Question 66

A customer has a requirement to restrict any container from resolving the name

How should the administrator configure Prisma Cloud Compute to satisfy this requirement?

Options:

A.

Choose “copy into rule” for any Container, set www.evil-url.com as a blocklisted DNS name in the Container policy and set the policy effect to alert.

B.

Set www.evil-url.com as a blocklisted DNS name in the default Container runtime policy, and set the effect to block.

C.

Choose “copy into rule” for any Container, set www.evil-url.com as a blocklisted DNS name, and set the effect to prevent.

D.

Set www.evil-url.com as a blocklisted DNS name in the default Container policy and set the effect to prevent.

Question 67

Which two attributes are required for a custom config RQL? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

json.rule

B.

cloud.account

C.

api.name

D.

tag

Question 68

A customer wants to be notified about port scanning network activities in their environment. Which policy type detects this behavior?

Options:

A.

Network

B.

Port Scan

C.

Anomaly

D.

Config

Question 69

Where can Defender debug logs be viewed? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

/var/lib/twistlock/defender.log

B.

From the Console, Manage > Defenders > Manage > Defenders. Select the Defender from the deployed Defenders list, then click Actions > Logs

C.

From the Console, Manage > Defenders > Deploy > Defenders. Select the Defender from the deployed Defenders list, then click Actions > Logs

D.

/var/lib/twistlock/log/defender.log

Question 70

You are an existing customer of Prisma Cloud Enterprise. You want to onboard a public cloud account and immediately see all of the alerts associated with this account based off ALL of your tenant’s existing enabled policies. There is no requirement to send alerts from this account to a downstream application at this time.

Which option shows the steps required during the alert rule creation process to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect “select all policies” checkbox as part of the alert rule Confirm the alert rule

B.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect one or more policies checkbox as part of the alert rule Confirm the alert rule

C.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect one or more policies as part of the alert rule Add alert notificationsConfirm the alert rule

D.

Ensure the public cloud account is assigned to an account group Assign the confirmed account group to alert ruleSelect “select all policies” checkbox as part of the alert rule Add alert notificationsConfirm the alert rule

Question 71

Which IAM RQL query would correctly generate an output to view users who enabled console access with both access keys and passwords?

Options:

A.

config from network where api.name = ‘aws-iam-get-credential-report’ AND json.rule = cert_1_active is true or cert_2_active is true and password_enabled equals "true"

B.

config from cloud.resource where api.name = 'aws-iam-get-credential-report' AND json.rule = access_key_1_active is true or access_key_2_active is true and password_enabled equals "true"

C.

config from cloud.resource where api.name = 'aws-iam-get-credential-report’ AND json.rule = access_key_1_active is false or access_key_2_active is true and password_enabled equals "*"

D.

config where api.name = ‘aws-iam-get-credential-report' AND json.rule= access_key_1_active is true or access_key_2_active is true and password_enabled equals “true”

Question 72

Which of the following is a reason for alert dismissal?

Options:

A.

SNOOZED_AUTO_CLOSE

B.

ALERT_RULE_ADDED

C.

POLICY_UPDATED

D.

USER_DELETED

Question 73

What will happen when a Prisma Cloud Administrator has configured agentless scanning in an environment that also has Host and Container Defenders deployed?

Options:

A.

Agentless scan will automatically be disabled, so Defender scans are the only scans occurring.

B.

Agentless scans do not conflict with Defender scans, so both will run.

C.

Defender scans will automatically be disabled, so agentless scans are the only scans occurring.

D.

Both agentless and Defender scans will be disabled and an error message will be received.

Question 74

Which report includes an executive summary and a list of policy violations, including a page with details for each policy?

Options:

A.

Compliance Standard

B.

Business Unit

C.

Cloud Security Assessment

D.

Detailed

Question 75

Which two bot types are part of Web Application and API Security (WAAS) bot protection? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Chat bots

B.

User-defined bots

C.

Unknown bots

D.

Customer bots

Question 76

An administrator of Prisma Cloud wants to enable role-based access control for Docker engine.

Which configuration step is needed first to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

Configure Docker’s authentication sequence to first use an identity provider and then Console.

B.

Set Defender’s listener type to TCP.

C.

Set Docker’s listener type to TCP.

D.

Configure Defender’s authentication sequence to first use an identity provider and then Console.

Question 77

During an initial deployment of Prisma Cloud Compute, the customer sees vulnerabilities in their environment.

Which statement correctly describes the default vulnerability policy?

Options:

A.

It blocks all containers that contain a vulnerability.

B.

It alerts on any container with more than three critical vulnerabilities.

C.

It blocks containers after 30 days if they contain a critical vulnerability.

D.

It alerts on all vulnerabilities, regardless of severity.

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