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Paloalto Networks Practitioner Dumps

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Total 227 questions

Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Question 1

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

Question 2

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

Question 3

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Options:

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

Question 4

Which two descriptions apply to an XDR solution? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It employs machine learning (ML) to identity threats.

B.

It is designed for reporting on key metrics for cloud environments.

C.

It ingests data from a wide spectrum of sources.

D.

It is focused on single-vector attacks on specific layers of defense.

Question 5

Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Types of physical storage media used

B.

Data-at-rest encryption standards

C.

Acceptable use of the SaaS application

D.

Vulnerability scanning and management

Question 6

What type of address translation does a NAT perform?

Options:

A.

Private to public

B.

Logical to physical

C.

Physical Io logical

D.

Public to private

Question 7

Which SOAR feature coordinates across technologies, security teams, and external users for centralized data visibility and action?

Options:

A.

Case management

B.

Integrations

C.

Ticketing system

D.

Playbooks

Question 8

Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?

Options:

A.

All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network

B.

East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic

C.

East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic

D.

East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4

Question 9

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

Question 10

Which term describes data packets that move in and out of the virtualized environment from the host network or a corresponding traditional data center?

Options:

A.

North-South traffic

B.

Intrazone traffic

C.

East-West traffic

D.

Interzone traffic

Question 11

In the attached network diagram, which device is the switch?

as

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

D

Question 12

What is an event-driven snippet of code that runs on managed infrastructure?

Options:

A.

API

B.

Serverless function

C.

Hypervisor

D.

Docker container

Question 13

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

Question 14

In which phase of the cyberattack lifecycle do attackers establish encrypted communication channels back to servers across the internet so that they can modify their attack objectives and methods?

Options:

A.

exploitation

B.

actions on the objective

C.

command and control

D.

installation

Question 15

Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Pre-exploit protection

C.

Bare-metal

D.

Static

Question 16

Which of the following is a Routed Protocol?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

C.

Internet Protocol (IP)

D.

Domain Name Service (DNS)

Question 17

Which product functions as part of a SASE solution?

Options:

A.

Cortex

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

Kubernetes

D.

Prisma SD-WAN

Question 18

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

Question 19

Which Palo Alto Networks subscription service complements App-ID by enabling you to configure the next- generation firewall to identify and control access to websites and to protect your organization from websites hosting malware and phishing pages?

Options:

A.

Threat Prevention

B.

DNS Security

C.

WildFire

D.

URL Filtering

Question 20

Which of these ports is normally associated with HTTPS?

Options:

A.

443

B.

5050

C.

25

D.

80

Question 21

What type of attack redirects the traffic of a legitimate website to a fake website?

Options:

A.

Watering hole

B.

Pharming

C.

Spear phishing

D.

Whaling

Question 22

What is an advantage of virtual firewalls over physical firewalls for internal segmentation when placed in a data center?

Options:

A.

They are dynamically scalable.

B.

They possess unlimited throughput capability.

C.

They are able to prevent evasive threats.

D.

They have failover capability.

Question 23

Which feature of cloud-native security platforms (CNSPs) focuses on protecting virtual machine (VM), container, and serverless deployments against application-level attacks during runtime?

Options:

A.

Workload security

B.

Data security

C.

Asset inventory

D.

Configuration assessment

Question 24

Which option is an example of a North-South traffic flow?

Options:

A.

Lateral movement within a cloud or data center

B.

An internal three-tier application

C.

Client-server interactions that cross the edge perimeter

D.

Traffic between an internal server and internal user

Question 25

With regard to cloud-native security in layers, what is the correct order of the four C's from the top (surface) layer to the bottom (base) layer?

Options:

A.

container, code, cluster, cloud

B.

code, container, cluster, cloud

C.

code, container, cloud, cluster

D.

container, code, cloud, cluster

Question 26

Organizations that transmit, process, or store payment-card information must comply with what standard?

Options:

A.

HIPAA

B.

CISA

C.

GDPR

D.

PCI DSS

Question 27

Which type of LAN technology is being displayed in the diagram?

as

Options:

A.

Star Topology

B.

Spine Leaf Topology

C.

Mesh Topology

D.

Bus Topology

Question 28

TCP is the protocol of which layer of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

Transport

B.

Session

C.

Data Link

D.

Application

Question 29

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 30

Which security component can detect command-and-control traffic sent from multiple endpoints within a corporate data center?

Options:

A.

Personal endpoint firewall

B.

Port-based firewall

C.

Next-generation firewall

D.

Stateless firewall

Question 31

Which of the following is an AWS serverless service?

Options:

A.

Beta

B.

Kappa

C.

Delta

D.

Lambda

Question 32

Which option is a Prisma Access security service?

Options:

A.

Compute Security

B.

Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

C.

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)

D.

Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)

Question 33

Which protocol is used by both internet service providers (ISPs) and network service providers (NSPs)?

Options:

A.

Routing Information Protocol (RIP)

B.

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)

C.

Open Shortest Path First (OSPF)

D.

Split horizon

Question 34

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

Question 35

Which two workflows are improved by integrating SIEMs with other security solutions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Hardware procurement

B.

Log normalization

C.

Initial security team training

D.

Incident response

Question 36

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

Options:

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

Question 37

What is a characteristic of the National Institute Standards and Technology (NIST) defined cloud computing model?

Options:

A.

requires the use of only one cloud service provider

B.

enables on-demand network services

C.

requires the use of two or more cloud service providers

D.

defines any network service

Question 38

Which native Windows application can be used to inspect actions taken at a specific time?

Options:

A.

Event Viewer

B.

Timeline inspector

C.

Task Manager

D.

Task Scheduler

Question 39

Which VM-Series virtual firewall cloud deployment use case reduces your environment's attack surface?

Options:

A.

O Multicloud

B.

O 5G -

C.

Micro-segmentation

D.

DevOps

Question 40

Which type of malware replicates itself to spread rapidly through a computer network?

Options:

A.

ransomware

B.

Trojan horse

C.

virus

D.

worm

Question 41

Which component of the AAA framework verifies user identities so they may access the network?

Options:

A.

Allowance

B.

Authorization

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

Question 42

In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

PaaS

C.

On-premises

D.

IaaS

Question 43

Which internet of things (loT) connectivity technology operates on the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands, as well as all bands between 1 and 6GHz when they become available for 802.11 use. at ranges up to 11 Gbit/s?

Options:

A.

3G

B.

Z-wave

C.

802.11ax

D.

C-band

Question 44

Which type of attack obscures its presence while attempting to spread to multiple hosts in a network?

Options:

A.

Advanced malware

B.

Smishing

C.

Reconnaissance

D.

Denial of service

Question 45

What is a key benefit of Cortex XDR?

Options:

A.

It acts as a safety net during an attack while patches are developed.

B.

It secures internal network traffic against unknown threats.

C.

It manages applications accessible on endpoints.

D.

It reduces the need for network security.

Question 46

An administrator finds multiple gambling websites in the network traffic log.

What can be created to dynamically block these websites?

Options:

A.

URL category

B.

Custom signatures

C.

Decryption policy

D.

Application group

Question 47

SecOps consists of interfaces, visibility, technology, and which other three elements? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

People

B.

Accessibility

C.

Processes

D.

Understanding

E.

Business

Question 48

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

Question 49

Which option would be an example of PII that you need to prevent from leaving your enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Credit card number

B.

Trade secret

C.

National security information

D.

A symmetric encryption key

Question 50

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

Question 51

What are two limitations of signature-based anti-malware software? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is unable to detect polymorphic malware.

B.

It requires samples lo be buffered

C.

It uses a static file for comparing potential threats.

D.

It only uses packet header information.

Question 52

What is the function of an endpoint detection and response (EDR) tool?

Options:

A.

To provide organizations with expertise for monitoring network devices

B.

To ingest alert data from network devices

C.

To monitor activities and behaviors for investigation of security incidents on user devices

D.

To integrate data from different products in order to provide a holistic view of security posture

Question 53

Which Palo Alto Networks solution has replaced legacy IPS solutions?

Options:

A.

Advanced DNS Security

B.

Advanced WildFire

C.

Advanced Threat Prevention

D.

Advanced URL Filtering

Question 54

What are two capabilities of identity threat detection and response (ITDR)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Securing individual devices

B.

Matching risks to signatures

C.

Scanning for excessive logins

D.

Analyzing access management logs

Question 55

What are two key characteristics of a Type 1 hypervisor? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

is hardened against cyber attacks

B.

runs without any vulnerability issues

C.

runs within an operating system

D.

allows multiple, virtual (or guest) operating systems to run concurrently on a single physical host computer

Question 56

Which option describes the “selective network security virtualization” phase of incrementally transforming data centers?

Options:

A.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host communication paths are strictly controlled

B.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is forwarded to a Web proxy server

C.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is encapsulated and encrypted using the IPSEC protocol

D.

during the selective network security virtualization phase, all intra-host traffic is load balanced

Question 57

Which Palo Alto Networks tools enable a proactive, prevention-based approach to network automation that accelerates security analysis?

Options:

A.

MineMeld

B.

AutoFocus

C.

WildFire

D.

Cortex XDR

Question 58

Which component of cloud security is used to identify misconfigurations during the development process?

Options:

A.

Container security

B.

SaaS security

C.

Code security

D.

Network security

Question 59

What does “forensics” refer to in a Security Operations process?

Options:

A.

Collecting raw data needed to complete the detailed analysis of an investigation

B.

Validating cyber analysts’ backgrounds before hiring

C.

Reviewing information about a broad range of activities

D.

Analyzing new IDS/IPS platforms for an enterprise

Question 60

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

Question 61

Which type of system collects data and uses correlation rules to trigger alarms?

Options:

A.

SIM

B.

SIEM

C.

UEBA

D.

SOAR

Question 62

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

Options:

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

Question 63

What are three benefits of SD-WAN infrastructure? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Improving performance of SaaS applications by requiring all traffic to be back-hauled through the corporate headquarters network

B.

Promoting simplicity through the utilization of a centralized management structure

C.

Utilizing zero-touch provisioning for automated deployments

D.

Leveraging remote site routing technical support by relying on MPLS

E.

Improving performance by allowing efficient access to cloud-based resources without requiring back-haul traffic to a centralized location

Question 64

Which tool supercharges security operations center (SOC) efficiency with the world’s most comprehensive operating platform for enterprise security?

Options:

A.

Prisma SAAS

B.

WildFire

C.

Cortex XDR

D.

Cortex XSOAR

Question 65

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

Question 66

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

Question 67

Which capability does Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM) provide for threat detection within Prisma Cloud?

Options:

A.

Real-time protection from threats

B.

Alerts for new code introduction

C.

Integration with threat feeds

D.

Continuous monitoring of resources

Question 68

Routing Information Protocol (RIP), uses what metric to determine how network traffic should flow?

Options:

A.

Shortest Path

B.

Hop Count

C.

Split Horizon

D.

Path Vector

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Total 227 questions