PMI PMI-ACP Dumps

The correct answer is D – Make use of a Kanban board so that the team will have a clear view of the work in progress (WIP) for the release.

Agile teams use information radiators like Kanban boards to visualize work, improve flow, identify bottlenecks, and maintain team focus. Visibility of work enhances self-organization and accountability while reducing ambiguity and delays.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban boards provide visibility into the work in progress. They support collaboration, improve team focus, and are effective in both Scrum and Kanban approaches.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.1 – Visual Controls)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Visual tools such as task boards and Kanban boards allow the team to manage their flow and workload. This enables collaboration and transparency without micromanagement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options fall short:

A introduces unnecessary meetings, potentially disrupting flow.

B may lead to micromanagement and undermine team ownership.

C implies a command-and-control style, which is contrary to Agile principles.

Answer: D

In Agile, change is considered a natural part of the process, as requirements evolve based on feedback and new insights. The Scrum Master should help the team understand that changes are an opportunity to improve the product and deliver more value to the stakeholders. While it's important to manage changes effectively, it's also crucial to communicate that continuous improvement and adaptation are integral parts of Agile practices. The Scrum Master should foster a positive environment where change is seen as a way to better meet the customer's needs rather than a hindrance to performance.

The correct answer is B – Evaluate the impact of the change request and let the team and Product Owner decide and reprioritize based on value. Agile allows for mid-iteration changes only in exceptional cases where business value is at risk. Such changes must be evaluated collaboratively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams may allow scope changes mid-iteration if the benefit clearly outweighs the cost. In such cases, the Product Owner and team collaboratively assess and decide whether to accommodate the change.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning and Scope Flexibility)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“While mid-iteration changes are discouraged, if the change is critical to business value, the team and Product Owner may replan collaboratively. Agile encourages flexibility with customer-focused decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and D bypass collaborative evaluation.

C is too extreme for a small but valuable change.

Answer: B

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), stories areonly marked complete if they meet the Definition of Done (DoD) and are accepted by the product owner and stakeholders. If the customer (or their representative) raises a legitimate concern during the review, the story should be treated asincompleteuntil consensus is reached or it meets expectations.

Option Ais correct: if the story does not meet customer expectations, it should be reprioritized for the next sprint or refined.

Option BandDincorrectly assume that product owner or team authority overrides customer feedback.

Option Csuggests discarding the story, which is inappropriate if the customer still needs the functionality.

Stakeholder feedback is critical in agile, and the goal isdelivering value, not simply completing a checklist.

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Turn the requests into user stories and prioritize them. In agile, all feature requests must be expressed in the form of user stories and added to the product backlog. Once added, they are prioritized collaboratively with the product owner and stakeholders, usually based on value, risk, and effort.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product backlog refinement includes breaking down large items into user stories, reprioritizing items, and ensuring they are properly understood by the team. This activity is critical in ensuring the right items are worked on at the right time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Refinement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile teams transform customer needs into user stories during backlog grooming. These are then prioritized by the product owner to ensure maximum value is delivered early.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Option A ignores customer needs. Option B (ordering by complexity) does not consider value. Option C skips the important step of converting feature requests into properly structured backlog items.

Answer: D

=========

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2.1), the Scrum Master’s role includesremoving impediments and shielding the team from outside interference. A team member being pulled into work on a different project is a classic example of an impediment. Recording the issue in a risk register is appropriate, but more importantly,the Scrum Master must communicate and resolve the issue.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that agile teams require full dedication and protection from context switching, as multitasking reduces productivity and increases error rates. Merely documenting the issue is not enough—the Scrum Master must take steps toescalate and resolve the interference, potentially by negotiating with the former supervisor or re-clarifying role boundaries.

Therefore,Option Cis correct as it involvesactively addressing the threatrather than passively monitoring or adjusting around it.

The correct answer is D – Increase the opportunities to confirm common understanding with the client.

The rise in defects and change requests indicates a disconnect between what the team is delivering and what the customer expects. Agile emphasizes constant feedback and collaboration. Ensuring shared understanding through frequent interaction and validation reduces misunderstandings and rework.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent interactions with customers and stakeholders help teams build a shared understanding and reduce the risk of misaligned expectations and defects.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“A high defect rate often results from unclear requirements. Teams should improve communication loops with stakeholders to confirm understanding before development begins.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Why the other options are suboptimal:

A doesn’t address the root cause: misalignment with the client.

B is reactive and temporary, not a sustainable solution.

C may help but should be preceded by improving collaboration and understanding.

Answer: D

══════════════════════════════════════════════════

Continuous delivery is a key practice in DevOps, ensuring that code is always in a deployable state. This practice allows for faster, more reliable releases, promoting automation and consistent feedback loops in the development process. It helps teams to iterate quickly and deploy changes frequently, which is a hallmark of DevOps.

Effective stakeholder engagement starts withshared understanding and agreement on goals and requirements. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2 Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the need tocollaborate with stakeholders early and often, especially on prioritization and epic-level expectations.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)underscores thatmisunderstandings are reduced when all parties are aligned on what "done" means, and epics and requirements arecollaboratively defined.

Option Ais correct: agreement and shared understanding reduce misalignment and conflict.

Option Bintroduces unnecessary delays in planning.

Option Cis useful but insufficient if initial requirements are misunderstood.

Option Dmay help in contract terms but doesn’t solve day-to-day misalignment.

The correct answer is D — The team should reevaluate time and cost estimates to reflect the latest understanding of the work effort.

Agile supports progressive elaboration and adaptive planning. When actual effort consistently exceeds estimates, it signals a need to recalibrate estimation practices. The team should revisit their velocity, estimation techniques, and potentially re-estimate upcoming work with improved understanding.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile uses adaptive planning, where teams update estimates based on new information. This supports better forecasting and risk management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths:

“Estimation accuracy improves over time. Agile teams regularly inspect estimation practices and adjust based on historical data and team maturity.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

—

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Speak to the agile lead about the concerns.

Agile encourages transparency, collaboration, and open communication across all levels of the team. If a team member identifies a risk or concern, the most agile-aligned approach is to raise it directly and constructively with the agile lead or Scrum Master, who is responsible for protecting the team and facilitating problem-solving.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams promote a culture of openness where team members are encouraged to speak up and raise concerns. Effective leadership listens and collaborates to resolve issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Team members should be empowered to express concerns and challenge assumptions respectfully. Continuous communication and feedback improve project outcomes.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are not ideal:

B promotes blind compliance, which is contrary to agile empowerment.

C suggests overwork, which contradicts sustainable pace.

D may escalate unnecessarily without first engaging the proper leadership channel.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Share information via interactive methods such as a brainstorming session.

Agile promotes collaboration, continuous stakeholder engagement, and open communication. When a stakeholder lacks understanding, the practitioner should use interactive techniques like brainstorming, user story workshops, or product visioning sessions. These methods foster transparency, build trust, and allow stakeholders to co-create the product vision.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective stakeholder engagement relies on interactive communication methods such as workshops, demos, and feedback sessions to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Interactive, face-to-face collaboration provides the richest communication. Agile favors dialogue over documentation to enhance shared understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options are less ideal:

A (status emails) are passive and limited in effectiveness.

B may violate Scrum guidelines—daily standups are not intended for stakeholders.

D delays engagement and limits collaboration to after-the-fact review.

Answer: C

══════════════════════════════════════════════════

The correct answer is B — Prioritize the most valuable product features in the backlog first.

Agile prioritization focuses on delivering value early and frequently. Coaching the product owner to understand value-based prioritization ensures that the most critical features are built and validated first.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams focus on delivering the highest value items first. The product owner prioritizes the backlog based on business value, risk, and stakeholder input.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.3 – Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product backlog prioritization is value-driven. The product owner should assess each item’s value and prioritize those that deliver the greatest return or strategic impact.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A misinterprets story points as a priority metric—story points measure effort, not value.

C addresses risk but not value.

D refers to Minimum Viable Product (MVP), which is a release planning technique, not a backlog sorting method.

Answer: B

—

InKanban, one of the most effective ways to reduce variability in cycle time is by ensuring a consistent size of work items. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7 Flow-based Agile - Kanban), maintaining uniformity in work item size helps stabilize the system and supports reliable forecasts. Large or complex stories increase variability and unpredictability.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)recommendssplitting large user storiesand maintaining size thresholds for items on the board to ensure flow efficiency.

OptionCaligns best with this practice:establishing a policyfor breaking down large stories and adjusting WIP accordingly will help standardize flow, minimize cycle time variation, and improve predictability.

The correct answer is A – Add code cleanup activities to the product backlog and request prioritization by the product owner. In Agile, technical debt should be made visible and managed like any other backlog item. The product owner is responsible for backlog prioritization and must balance feature delivery with quality-related tasks.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made transparent and included in the product backlog. Teams should advocate for addressing it, and the product owner prioritizes its resolution based on the impact to future work.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths’ guidance reinforces this:

“Technical debt erodes long-term productivity and must be tracked and addressed. Agile teams collaborate with product owners to prioritize and schedule code cleanup or refactoring activities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B and C bypass the product owner’s prioritization role.

D delays action unnecessarily and misrepresents Agile’s emphasis on transparency and early resolution.

Answer: A

When significant architectural flaws are discovered, agile teamsinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Adaptation), the product owner and team shouldcollaboratively reassess priorities and rewrite backlog itemsto reflect the rework needed. This is aligned with agile’sincremental delivery and continuous adaptation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)stresses that rework should be handled through backlog refinement and collaborative planning—not panic or reactive decisions.

Option Cis correct: reassessing the backlog with stakeholders aligns with agile practices.

Option Aabdicates product responsibility.

Option Bis too rigid for agile, unless the risk matrix is already very mature and agile-focused.

Option Dcancels value delivery and is unnecessarily drastic.

The correct answer is A – Include it in the product backlog and use a new indicator to annotate that it is technical debt. Agile teams track technical debt transparently by adding it to the product backlog. Marking it with a clear label helps the team and product owner consider it during prioritization and planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Technical debt should be made visible and added to the product backlog. Teams may use tags or indicators to distinguish it and make informed prioritization decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Technical Debt)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Technical debt must be tracked in the backlog to avoid long-term consequences. Tagging it ensures stakeholders are aware and can prioritize its resolution appropriately.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B assumes all technical debt is low priority, which may not be true.

C is incorrect; agile explicitly recommends tracking tech debt.

D introduces inconsistency and reduces visibility.

────────────────────────────────────

In the context of the chatbot's post-release complaints about edge cases in query responses, User Acceptance Testing (UAT) is the most critical step to avoid such situations. UAT ensures that the chatbot meets the stakeholder's needs and expectations, which would have included verifying its behavior with real users under real-world scenarios. This step would identify any edge case issues and make sure the chatbot is aligned with business goals before going live.

The correct answer is A – Continue working on the task until it is completed. Agile teams commit to the sprint goal and are expected to deliver what they’ve planned to the best of their ability. If a task takes longer than estimated, the team inspects and adapts but generally tries to complete the committed work within the current sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are committed to delivering the work they planned for the iteration. If estimates are off, the team inspects the impact and continues, learning from it for future planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Planning and Commitment)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“If something takes longer than expected, the team should strive to complete it and use the experience to improve future estimation. Agile teams maintain sprint commitment integrity.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

B is punitive and unaligned with Agile values.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on stable teams and sustainable pace.

D breaks commitment and risks value delivery.

Answer: A

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Agile valuesactive stakeholder collaboration and transparency. The best way to address stakeholder concerns is toengage them directlyin the feedback loop. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)both recommend inviting stakeholders toiteration reviewsor demos to provide updates and gather feedback.

Option Cis correct: inviting the regional sales manager to the review fosters transparency and collaboration.

Option AandBdismiss valid stakeholder input, which goes against agile principles.

Option Dis overly cautious and does not proactively resolve the issue.

Kanban is an approach that focuses on visualizing and managing work in process (WIP) to ensure that there is minimal waste and that teams only work on what they can handle at any given time. It provides a flexible framework for continuous improvement, without the overhead of time-boxed iterations like in Scrum. Kanban allows teams to focus on limiting work in process, streamlining workflows, and improving efficiency while avoiding waste. This approach aligns with the organization's desire to minimize overhead and control WIP to maximize flow and productivity.

If a story isnot completed, it isnot counted toward the current sprint velocity. When carrying the story forward to the next sprint, teams shouldre-evaluate the story size, especially if part of the work is already done. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Velocity and Estimation)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile teams are encouraged tore-estimatesuch items based on remaining work.

Option Dis correct: incomplete stories should be re-estimated based on new size or effort.

Option Aviolates velocity principles—onlyfully completedstories count.

Option Bundermines the fixed-length timebox principle of sprints.

Option Cis not directly relevant unless the story’s complexity necessitates research, which is not stated here.

Kanban is a visual management tool that helps teams improve workflow efficiency. One of its key principles is the use of a pull system, where work is pulled into the process when capacity allows, rather than being pushed into the system. This contrasts with a push system, where work is assigned or forced into the workflow regardless of capacity. This approach helps avoid bottlenecks and ensures work is handled efficiently.

Agile relies onregular retrospectivesto reflect, adapt, andimplement improvements. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives), teams should continuouslyinspect their processandcollectively own the changesneeded to improve. This supports a culture of learning and accountability.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)encourages frequent retrospectives that includeopen discussion and shared responsibilityfor change implementation.

Option Ais correct: holding retrospectives and collaborating on actions promotes ownership and progress.

Option Bneglects process change.

Option Climits transparency and team collaboration.

Option Daddresses trust but not the recurring problems.

Sprint planning or any task-level technical meeting should involve thedevelopment team and the product owner, as they are the key players in delivering and clarifying work. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Agile Roles and Responsibilities)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the Scrum Master facilitates the meeting, while thedevelopment teamandproduct ownercollaborate on the details.

Option Dis correct: the core team (developers) and product owner are the correct participants for story elaboration and commitment.

Option AandCinvolve the customer and sponsor unnecessarily for a technical planning meeting.

Option Bincludes "key stakeholders," which may be overkill unless specific business input is needed.

The correct answer is A — Conduct a requirements gathering workshop.

In Agile, workshops such as story-writing or backlog refinement sessions help the team and stakeholders collaboratively explore requirements. These sessions are interactive and iterative and allow for joint discovery, prioritization, and clarification of user needs.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Collaborative workshops enable teams to gather requirements and clarify expectations in an iterative fashion. They engage stakeholders in prioritizing and decomposing work into user stories.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Workshops are a key practice for backlog development. They are particularly useful when initiating complex projects with minimal requirements, allowing the team to iteratively develop stories with stakeholders.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B assumes delivery before refinement, risking misalignment.

C places the burden on the product owner alone.

D is waterfall-oriented and contradicts iterative backlog evolution.

Answer: A

—

Agile emphasizessustainable paceandcontinuous improvement, not overworking or overcommitting. The appropriate response is to identify why the team overcommitted, learn from it, andadjust future sprint planning. This aligns with thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Velocity)andSection 5.6: Retrospectives, which recommend using retrospectives to address such issues.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains that over-committing leads to poor predictability, and inspecting root causes helps refine estimation and velocity in future sprints.

Option Cis correct: it supports learning and improves future planning.

Option Apromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Bmisunderstands velocity—it’s a measurement, not something to be increased by will.

Option Dundermines team stability and agile planning based on consistent team capacity.

When teams face conflicts about priorities or direction, they shouldfall back on agile values and principles. According to theAgile Manifesto and PMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.2 Agile Mindset), decisions should be grounded in values such ascollaboration, sustainability, simplicity, and delivering customer value.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset)highlights that teams should beself-organizing, and consensus should emerge from aligning decisions with core agile values—rather than defaulting to top-down directives or contractual obligations.

Option Ais correct: referring to theagile framework and team valuesenables internal resolution in a collaborative and value-driven way.

Option B(contracts) andOption C(priority list) are more rigid and transactional.

Option Dbypasses the team’s ability to self-resolve, which is not ideal for a mature agile team.

The correct answer is D – Assume the team member's tasks to meet iteration goals and notify the Product Owner. Agile teams are self-organizing and accountable. High-performing teams take ownership of shared goals and redistribute work as needed to maintain commitment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams collaborate to deliver sprint goals, adapting to changes such as unavailability of team members. They adjust workload and communicate impacts transparently.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When team composition changes, the team must redistribute work to ensure delivery. Ownership, trust, and flexibility are core traits of high-performing agile teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A signals dysfunction and abdicates team responsibility.

B implies external management of team staffing.

C violates the principle of self-organization.

The correct answer is A – Conduct frequent demos and obtain feedback from users throughout the development of the next release. Agile is feedback-driven. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews) help gather customer input to continuously enhance the product and optimize value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent demonstrations and validation with stakeholders ensure that teams deliver value continuously and adapt the product based on real-time feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Feedback and Product Review)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Customer feedback loops are vital to agile. Demos provide a mechanism for validating delivered functionality, identifying improvement opportunities, and maximizing product value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts continuous delivery and customer collaboration.

C may help with scale, but doesn’t directly address value improvement.

D is more about process quality than business value.

Answer: A

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In Scrum, responsibilities are distributed among the product owner, scrum master, and development team to ensure clear accountability and efficient value delivery.

The product owner manages the product backlog, ensures alignment with business goals, and defines the priorities for the team.

The scrum master facilitates the Scrum process, removes impediments, and ensures adherence to Agile principles.

The development team owns the sprint backlog and is responsible for incremental delivery toward the sprint goal.

This division of responsibilities ensures that each role focuses on their core areas, fostering transparency, collaboration, and value-driven development.

The correct answer is D — Facilitate a team retrospective.

A drop in team morale and performance signals the need for a structured conversation where the team can reflect, diagnose root causes, and propose changes. Retrospectives are the Agile mechanism for identifying and addressing performance issues in a collaborative, non-blaming environment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives allow teams to reflect on their performance, discuss what's working or not, and commit to improvement actions. This is the key mechanism for continuous team development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Team disengagement often stems from unresolved issues or lack of empowerment. Retrospectives are critical for rebuilding engagement, trust, and improving team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A skips team-level resolution and risks undermining trust.

B manipulates metrics without solving the root problem.

C is useful for daily progress updates but not for deep reflection.

Answer: D

—

—

The correct answer is C – Request that the Product Owner include a spike in the next iteration's backlog so they can perform an initial investigation.

A spike is a time-boxed activity that allows teams to research or experiment to gain knowledge about technical or functional aspects of an upcoming feature or integration. Since the team lacks experience with the new component, using a spike will allow them to explore and reduce uncertainty before actual development begins.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are research activities that help teams gain the knowledge needed to reduce uncertainty and risk in upcoming stories.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Spikes are used when the team is not confident about how to implement a story due to technical or domain uncertainty. Spikes help mitigate risk and inform estimation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are suboptimal:

A involves team extension, which contradicts Agile's preference for stable, cross-functional teams.

B is misaligned—technical investigation is a team responsibility, not the Product Owner's.

D avoids learning and may compromise solution quality.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C – Ensure the team captures the technical dependencies as issues within the backlog and prioritize based on value optimization. In Agile, technical considerations are factored into backlog refinement and sprint planning. Dependencies should be visualized and managed as part of adaptive planning while still striving to deliver maximum value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Backlog items with technical dependencies should be identified and addressed collaboratively. Agile teams balance value with feasibility and technical constraints to optimize delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement and Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“While business value drives prioritization, technical constraints influence the ordering of stories. Agile planning is adaptive; dependencies and delivery risks are identified early and managed through backlog reordering.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A may discard valuable features unnecessarily.

B risks accumulating technical debt and incomplete work.

D shifts responsibility away from the team and PO unnecessarily.

Answer: C

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The "Life Timeline" exercise is a technique used to buildpsychological safety and vulnerability-based trust. According toMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), exercises that encourage sharing personal stories and emotional journeys fosterdeep interpersonal connection, which is foundational tohigh-performance teams.

ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Building Trust)emphasizes the role of emotional intelligence and trust-building in agile teams, stating that teams become high-performing when they feelsafe to express themselveswithout fear of judgment.

Option Bis correct: the exercise builds vulnerability and trust—key drivers of high performance.

Option Afocuses on trust but doesn't emphasizevulnerability, which is central here.

Option Cis too generic.

Option Dmisframes the purpose—it’s about building connection, not assessing competencies.

Velocity is a measure of how much work a team completes in a given sprint, typically measured in story points or other units of effort. While velocity can be useful for tracking progress and forecasting future work, it has some limitations when it comes to accurate capacity planning.

Velocity can vary from sprint to sprint due to multiple factors, such as the complexity of the tasks, interruptions, or even external influences. This variability can make it difficult to predict how much work a team can handle in future sprints, leading to inaccurate capacity planning.

Agile promotestransparency and ongoing communicationwith all stakeholders, including legal and compliance teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications), one of the Scrum Master's responsibilities is tokeep stakeholders informedof project progress and projections using tools like burnup/burndown charts, velocity trends, or product roadmaps.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes thatsharing the trajectoryof progress and scope delivery builds trust and provides clarity to non-technical stakeholders.

Option Cis correct: sharing actual progress and trends with legal ensures alignment and transparency.

Option Amisplaces the responsibility—it's the stakeholders who need visibility.

Option Bshifts product decisions prematurely.

Option Dassumes satisfaction trumps contractual obligations—this can cause legal issues.

The correct answer is C – Identify and monitor issues through a risk burndown chart.

Risk burndown charts track how risk exposure is increasing or decreasing over time. This agile artifact is used to communicate risk trends and drive conversations around risk mitigation. It’s especially useful when risks threaten iteration goals or release timelines.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Risk burndown charts are visual tools that track remaining project risk. They help identify whether risks are increasing or decreasing and enable proactive management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Risk Management in Agile)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Tracking risks visually, such as in a risk burndown chart, helps stakeholders understand exposure levels and fosters risk-mitigation behavior across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Risk Management)

Why the other options fall short:

A delays action and does not help real-time monitoring.

B tracks tasks, not risk.

D (issue log) may help but lacks the proactive visual trend tracking provided by a burndown chart.

Answer: C

The correct answer is C — All stakeholders are responsible for identifying risks during standups, retrospectives, and other team meetings.

Agile promotes collective ownership. Risk identification and mitigation are shared responsibilities involving the entire team, including the product owner, developers, and other stakeholders. Agile meetings (e.g., stand-ups, retrospectives) are excellent forums for surfacing risks early.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In agile projects, everyone is responsible for identifying and managing risk. Teams inspect frequently, enabling early detection and resolution of issues.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Risk management is embedded in agile events. Teams don’t defer risk analysis to a specialist—they collaborate continuously to identify, discuss, and respond to risks.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A ignores active risk management needs.

B assumes individual rather than shared responsibility.

D misrepresents the PO’s role—risks may appear in the backlog, but management is team-based.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is D — Periodically, at both the release and project level.

Agile planning is iterative and layered. When new requirements or constraints emerge, plans should be updated at the appropriate levels—sprint, release, and potentially the overall project level. Periodic adjustments ensure continued alignment with business needs and system dependencies.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile planning is done at multiple levels: product vision, roadmap, release, iteration, and daily. These plans are continually updated based on new learning and stakeholder feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Effective planning includes periodic updates at all planning horizons. Adjusting at both the project and release levels ensures strategic alignment and tactical feasibility.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A misses the iterative nature of Agile planning.

B and C are too narrow in scope.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer isC – Initiate an estimation sessionbecause agile planning isiterative and collaborative. When delivery timing is in question, especially during a release planning session, the team must firstestimatethe size of the work (epics and user stories). Once estimates are made (often using story points or relative sizing techniques), velocity can be used to forecast delivery timelines.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimation is typically performed at the beginning of a release or iteration planning session to determine how much work can be completed. Teams use estimation to size items and then apply their known or projected velocity to forecast completion.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookalso states:

“Before making any delivery commitments, teams should first engage in collaborative estimation to understand the scope and effort of the work. These estimates then inform velocity-based forecasting.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A– Scrum Masters do not estimate work; estimation is a team activity.

B– You cannot determine deliverables based on velocity until the work has been estimated.

D– Historical data can support forecasting but must be preceded by proper estimation of current backlog items.

Answer: C

A psychologically safe environment is essential for aproductive retrospective, especially in the presence of team conflict. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives)recommends reviewingworking agreements or ground rulesto remind the team of respectful behavior and to promote openness. This helps reset expectations and encourages participation without fear of judgment.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)emphasizes that retrospectives are abouttrust and transparency, and setting the tone properly enables team learning and resolution.

Option Ais correct: reviewing ground rules reinforces team norms and supports safety.

Option Bmay make individuals feel singled out.

Option Cignores the interpersonal issue and postpones resolution.

Option Descalates unnecessarily and bypasses team ownership.

The Scrum Master’s role as a servant leader is to support the team, not to resolve conflicts for them. It is important for the team to work through their disagreements themselves, as this fosters collaboration and improves their problem-solving skills. The Scrum Master should encourage open communication and guide the team toward healthy conflict resolution, ensuring that the disagreements are addressed constructively. This approach helps the team build trust, improves their cohesion, and strengthens their ability to handle challenges in the future.

Managing technical debt is crucial for the long-term health of the project. The most effective approach is to include technical debt tasks in every sprint, ensuring that the debt is addressed incrementally without disrupting the flow of new feature development. By treating technical debt as a priority alongside new features, the team can reduce the impact of technical debt over time, maintain product quality, and align with stakeholder expectations. Continuous review of the impact ensures that the team is making informed decisions and balancing both short-term delivery and long-term maintainability. This approach also allows the team to meet performance expectations and customer satisfaction more consistently.

The correct answer is C – The team should discuss their definition of done (DoD) and make changes to ensure there is common understanding of the acceptance criteria.

A shared understanding of what “done” means ensures consistent quality across team members. When this understanding is missing, defects and inconsistencies arise. The Definition of Done (DoD) should be reviewed and updated collaboratively to set a clear standard for completeness and quality.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Definition of Done provides a shared understanding of when work is complete. This includes quality criteria, testing, and documentation. It should be revisited regularly to maintain alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Quality issues often result from unclear or inconsistent DoD. Revisiting and refining it ensures consistent expectations across the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A (TDD) may help, but won’t solve the fundamental alignment issue.

B accepts a problem without resolving it.

D imposes a process without team collaboration, which is not agile.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B — Set the velocity to the delivered story points of the last sprint.

Agile velocity is a historical measure, not a target. It represents the amount of work a team actually completed in a previous sprint and should be used to help guide future sprint planning. Teams should not inflate, manipulate, or "game" their velocity; instead, they should use it as a basis for realistic planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Velocity is calculated by totaling the points for all fully completed stories. It is a measure of what the team can complete—not what it hopes to complete—and should be used as an empirical baseline for planning.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Velocity should be based on historical data from previous sprints. Teams should not artificially inflate velocity by changing estimation practices or slicing stories merely to appear more productive.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A promotes splitting for manipulation, not for clarity.

C suggests altering estimation practices for the sake of metrics.

D implies gaming the system to falsely increase velocity.

Answer: B

—

The correct answer is D – Facilitate a just-in-time exploration of the functionality by the customer and the team.

Agile promotes emergent planning and just-in-time elaboration. When a customer cannot clearly define how a feature should function, collaborative exploration at the point of need (just-in-time) ensures shared understanding, timely feedback, and minimized waste.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“User stories are deliberately kept light to encourage conversation. These conversations often occur just before the story is scheduled for development—known as just-in-time elaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Preparation and Refinement)

Andy Crowe also explains:

“Agile teams defer detail until the last responsible moment. This supports flexibility and better understanding through collaboration. Facilitating exploration sessions when needed helps clarify expectations and reduce uncertainty.”

(Andy Crowe, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Value Delivery)

Why other options are less suitable:

A may be helpful for technical uncertainty, but the issue here is lack of functional clarity from the customer.

B (iteration 0) is more of a preparatory stage; it is not typically used mid-project.

C suggests decomposition but without resolving the lack of understanding; it assumes the problem is granularity, not clarity.

Hence, the correct agile action is to engage collaboratively at the point of need: D

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Upon joining a team, a Scrum Master should focus onfacilitating team collaboration, removing impediments, and creating a psychologically safe space. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Scrum Master Role)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 3: Team Performance)stress that early efforts should center onservant leadership, helping the team identify and solve their own challenges.

Option Cis correct: supporting the team through facilitation reflects the core role of a Scrum Master.

Option Ais prescriptive and not aligned with cross-functional team philosophy.

Option Bmay be necessary later, but first, trust and team dynamics must be established.

Option Dfalls under the Product Owner’s responsibility, not the Scrum Master’s.

In Scrum, teams are self-organizing, meaning they are responsible for managing internal dynamics and conflicts. The scrum master should act as a servant leader by facilitating conflict resolution rather than imposing decisions.

The scrum master should mediate the situation by fostering open communication and helping the team address concerns constructively.

Encouraging team collaboration and respectful communication is key to maintaining morale.

Escalating to senior management or removing a team member should be a last resort.

Attending meetings does not directly resolve the issue but can help the scrum master observe and intervene when necessary.

By facilitating conflict resolution and supporting team self-organization, the scrum master ensures a healthy and productive work environment.

Agile teams areself-organizingand should strive forconsensus-based decision making. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.1 Team Empowerment)supports facilitative leadership where leadersguide decision-making, not override it. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)emphasizes that leaders shouldfoster collaboration and respectdiverse views to prevent disengagement.

Option Ais correct: encouraging consensus builds ownership, trust, and engagement.

Option BandCstill place control with the leader, reducing team empowerment.

Option Dis too passive; agile leaders participate actively as facilitators.

Thefirst step for a new Scrum Masteris to gaincontext and alignment. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.3: Agile Mindset), agile leaders must understand theproduct vision and goalsto provide proper support to the team and align delivery efforts with organizational objectives.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset)emphasizes that new leaders should start byunderstanding stakeholder expectations, enterprise context, and business driversbefore making operational decisions like backlog setup or sprint planning.

Option Bis correct: understanding the project vision provides critical context.

Option Ais premature without first understanding the broader organizational objectives.

Option C(sprint 0) can be useful but should follow alignment on vision and context.

Option Dskips necessary discovery and planning.

Predictable flow in agile is achieved byreducing variabilityin story size and complexity. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile and Kanban), working withsmall, similarly sized user storiesincreases throughput predictability and improves cycle time.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)supports breaking large stories into smaller, testable chunks as a way tostabilize delivery and forecasting.

Option Ais correct:small user storiesreduce variability and support predictable flow.

Option Bsupports testability but doesn’t directly improve flow.

Option CandDare too broad or conceptual to specifically improve predictability.

The in-person demonstration meeting is crucial because it allows the team to directly engage with the product owner, ask clarifying questions, and immediately address any feedback or concerns. This fosters better communication, understanding, and collaboration between the team and the product owner. Being able to have a real-time conversation helps the team ensure they are building the right product, and it allows the product owner to provide nuanced feedback that might not be as clear through asynchronous communication (like sending a link).

The face-to-face interaction provides an opportunity for both parties to align more effectively on the product vision, avoid misunderstandings, and prevent misalignment on priorities, ultimately ensuring that the product being developed meets expectations.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement), managing stakeholder expectations starts with establishing ashared visionand involving stakeholders in key activities likeiteration reviews. This ensures transparency, feedback, and alignment on progress and priorities.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)supports the idea that acommon vision and shared goalsfoster trust and improve stakeholder relationships.

Option Ais correct: a shared vision and active involvement lead to better stakeholder alignment.

Option BandCare partially right butlimit collaborationor dismiss stakeholder input.

Option Dis inconsistent with agile’s emphasis onopen, continuous communication.

The correct answer is C – Passive-aggressive. When a team delivers work but avoids open discussion or interaction, especially in meetings, it may indicate passive-aggressive behavior. This behavior might reflect unresolved tension, lack of engagement, or unwillingness to collaborate transparently.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams thrive on open communication and collaboration. Passive-aggressive behavior, where communication is avoided despite task completion, can hinder trust and team health.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths warns:

“Silence or avoidance in agile teams may signal underlying issues. While work might be completed, lack of transparency and communication should be addressed early to maintain team cohesion.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to real-time communication and is unrelated to emotional dynamics.

B is contradicted by the lack of vocal interaction.

D implies disorder or lack of structure, which is not evident here.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – The Product Owner is responsible for both the budget and the release plans.

In Scrum and Agile frameworks, the Product Owner acts as the voice of the customer and is responsible for maximizing the value of the product. This includes managing the product backlog, prioritization, and release planning. Additionally, in Agile environments, budget management—especially in terms of what value is delivered with what investment—is a key aspect of the Product Owner’s role.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner manages the backlog and prioritizes work based on value delivery. The Product Owner is also typically responsible for budgeting and release planning, often in collaboration with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Roles and Responsibilities)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Release planning and value-based budget decisions fall under the Product Owner’s responsibilities, as they are closest to business stakeholders and value prioritization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is partially correct but misplaces budget responsibility.

B is traditional and does not reflect Agile delegation to the team and Product Owner.

C promotes team ownership but budget and release planning specifically lie with the Product Owner.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – The Agile team should engage stakeholders regarding the proposed designs and ensure that sufficient engagement occurs throughout the project in an adaptive way.

Agile thrives on continuous stakeholder engagement. Ignoring feedback or rigidly sticking to past decisions defeats Agile's principle of responding to change over following a plan. Even if designs have been created, collaboration must continue.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Engaging stakeholders early and often helps ensure alignment and mitigates late surprises. Adaptive planning allows for feedback and refinement throughout the lifecycle.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Stakeholder collaboration and frequent inspection are cornerstones of Agile. Late feedback is better than no feedback. Teams must adapt.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options:

B discourages collaboration.

C emphasizes documentation over interaction.

D is drastic and unnecessary.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Hold a meeting with the team and the Product Owner to develop the team charter, working agreement, guiding principles, and product vision. This collaborative approach fosters shared understanding, ownership, and alignment early in the project.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team chartering process includes developing working agreements, clarifying the product vision, defining team norms, and establishing the team's mission. Early alignment builds trust and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“A strong start includes co-creating team values, the product vision, and working agreements. Doing this together builds a strong foundation for delivery.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Chapter 4 – Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

B separates the Product Owner from the team early on.

C reverses the roles—vision should be owned by the Product Owner.

D is helpful, but not a prerequisite for team alignment and success.

Answer: A

The correct answer is B – Manage communication between all team members and the customer to promote effective and transparent collaboration. Agile values open, direct, and frequent communication, particularly between team members and stakeholders. Transparency, collaboration, and shared understanding reduce misunderstandings and promote customer satisfaction.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile values individuals and interactions over processes and tools. Frequent, open, and direct communication with stakeholders is essential. Agile teams are encouraged to engage stakeholders frequently to ensure alignment and transparency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Agile fosters transparency and trust through direct communication. Information should flow freely between all team members and stakeholders to facilitate quick feedback and mutual understanding.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A and C limit communication and transparency.

D is useful for conflict resolution, but not for broad issue management or stakeholder communication.

Answer: B

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To prevent the issue of the customer declining to accept the final deliverable after the demo, the project manager should prioritize frequent releases and feedback loops. By releasing new features or updates frequently, customers have the opportunity to provide feedback earlier in the process, which allows for adjustments to be made during development rather than at the end. This iterative process ensures that the final product better aligns with the customer's expectations and requirements.

In Scrum, the goal is to have open discussions during estimation, where all team members, including junior developers, can express their thoughts and assumptions. The Scrum Master should encourage the junior developers to keep their estimations because these can highlight different perspectives, constraints, or assumptions that others may not have considered. This helps create a more comprehensive understanding of the work and fosters a collaborative environment. It also builds confidence in junior team members, allowing them to contribute more effectively and learn from their peers in the process.

In a newly formed team, especially in a regulated environment like pharmaceuticals, guiding the team to collaborate effectively and share knowledge is essential. As the team lacks subject matter expertise, fostering an environment of continuous learning and collaboration will help them quickly build knowledge and improve their performance.

It is crucial to organize a meeting to clarify roles and responsibilities. This ensures everyone understands their individual contributions and how they relate to the team’s goals. Clear role definitions are particularly important in a cross-functional team to avoid confusion and ensure smooth collaboration.

The correct answer is D — Get the product owner and team to meet to prioritize the work.

Agile teams prioritize collaboratively with the product owner, who represents the business value perspective. Technical tasks (sometimes called “chores”) may not deliver immediate business functionality but are important for sustaining delivery capacity. It’s essential to balance technical work with feature delivery through backlog prioritization.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams work with the product owner to prioritize backlog items, including technical debt or tasks that improve efficiency. Prioritization is a shared activity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Product owners collaborate with teams to ensure technical tasks that improve delivery capacity are balanced with business features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A dismisses tasks that could improve long-term velocity.

B ignores team ownership.

C escalates prematurely rather than promoting collaboration.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is A – Use an information radiator to help increase the transparency of work for key stakeholders.

Information radiators (such as Kanban boards, burndown charts, and story maps) make work status visible to the entire team and stakeholders in real-time, improving communication without additional meetings or reporting overhead.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators to promote transparency, show progress, and increase stakeholder engagement without adding administrative burden.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“Effective agile environments display work status where everyone can see it. Visual indicators allow stakeholders and team members to remain informed without direct queries.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Monitoring and Control)

Other options explained:

B creates unnecessary manual effort.

C may disrupt team rhythm; daily stand-ups are sufficient in Scrum.

D encourages siloed behavior and contradicts collaboration.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A — Suggest the product owner start by focusing on the next 2 sprints instead of 10.

Agile embraces progressive elaboration — planning is done in detail only for the near term, while long-term plans remain high level and flexible. By encouraging short-term focus, the Scrum Master helps the product owner shift from a predictive mindset to an adaptive one.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects plan at multiple levels (release, iteration, and daily), focusing on near-term commitments while allowing flexibility for change. Planning multiple sprints in detail violates the principle of adaptability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Progressive Elaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Detailed long-term estimates reduce agility. The product owner should learn to prioritize work based on value, and accept that estimates beyond the next sprint or two are rough forecasts.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

B undermines agile principles by reverting to waterfall planning.

C misuses the retrospective, which is team-focused.

D may alienate the product owner rather than encourage a mindset shift.

Answer: A

—

As a servant leader, the agile coach’s role is to support and empower the team, helping them overcome obstacles that hinder their progress. In this case, the coach should focus on identifying and removing any impediments that are slowing down the work, whether they are technical, process-related, or communication-based. This approach enables the team to work more efficiently, enhances their ability to self-organize, and ensures they can deliver high-quality results. Simply adjusting the work plan or assigning more resources may not address the underlying issues, and a command-and-control approach is counterproductive in an Agile environment.

To reduce stakeholder risk and encourage early investment in high-risk/high-reward projects, agile recommends breaking the solution intosmall, incremental deliverablescalledMinimally Marketable Features (MMFs). According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Roadmap and MMFs)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), delivering MMFs early allows the business to realize value quickly, validate assumptions, and reduce risk—especially helpful for uncertain or experimental projects.

Option Bis correct: MMFs demonstrate business value early, promoting trust and investment confidence.

Option A (PPC)andD (EV)are traditional project tracking metrics, not suited for early-stage agile investment justification.

Option C(story points) is used forcapacity planning, not financial justification.

Theproduct owneris responsible formaintaining and prioritizing the product backlogbased on stakeholder input. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Product Backlog and Prioritization)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), when a sponsor is dissatisfied, the product owner should confirm that their needs are clearly prioritized and represented in the backlog.

Option Bis correct: ensuring priorities are accurately captured aligns delivery with stakeholder expectations.

Option Ais reactive and not productive.

Option Cpresumes funding is the issue without confirming alignment.

Option Dundermines the product owner’s role.

Agile fosters asafe-to-fail environmentwhere experimentation is encouraged. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Process Improvement)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement), teams should be empowered totest new ideasandlearn from outcomes, regardless of whether those experiments succeed or fail.

Option Dis correct: promoting experimentation supports learning and innovation.

Option Adiscourages risk-taking and limits growth.

Option Bcreates fear and undermines psychological safety.

Option Cmixes accountability with experimentation, which can discourage honest learning.

In agile,early and frequent feedbackfrom stakeholders and clients is critical to ensure that what is being built delivers the intended value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 and Section 7.2.2)promotes regularproduct review sessions (e.g., sprint reviews)with stakeholders to validate progress and obtain immediate feedback.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) explains thatproduct validation is continuousand not left to the end of the project. Regular review sessions allow clients toconfirm that the product meets expectations, reducing the risk of building the wrong solution.

Therefore,Option Dis correct: holding product review sessions with the client aligns with agile values of transparency, collaboration, and value delivery.

In Kanban, limiting work in progress (WIP) is a key practice to improve task flow and reduce bottlenecks. By restricting the number of tasks that can be worked on at any given time, the team is forced to focus on completing the tasks that are already in progress before taking on new ones. This helps reduce the accumulation of tasks in the "In Progress" column, ensures that tasks move through the workflow more efficiently, and ultimately helps to meet project timelines more effectively. It also promotes better quality, as team members can focus on fewer tasks at a time.

The correct answer is C – Show the stakeholder the progress radiators for the project.

Progress radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards, visually communicate the status of work in progress, completed items, and remaining scope. They are effective tools for quickly bringing stakeholders up to speed without interrupting the team or requiring extensive reporting.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Progress is tracked and made visible using information radiators such as burndown charts, task boards, and velocity charts. These tools allow stakeholders to monitor project health in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Transparency and visibility are essential in agile. Information radiators keep stakeholders informed and promote collaboration without relying on status reports.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Monitoring and Control)

Other options explained:

A and D offer limited insights or are inappropriate for immediate understanding.

B is valuable but time-limited; radiators provide continuous insight.

Answer: C

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Thestorming phase(from Tuckman’s model: Forming–Storming–Norming–Performing) is marked byconflict and role negotiation. Theagile coach or Scrum Masterplays a critical role in guiding teams through this phase withstructured facilitation and conflict-resolution techniques.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Development Stages)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the agile coach must providesupport, guidance, and toolsto help the team evolve toward self-organization and maturity.

Option Bis correct: effective facilitation helps the team progress toward high performance.

Option Apromotes dysfunction.

Option Crisks escalating unresolved conflict.

Option Dis overly individual-focused and not team-centric.

The correct answer is C – Seek regular input from project stakeholders, and reflect this input in the backlog’s priorities. Agile is a stakeholder-driven process, and backlog refinement should be informed by continuous feedback. The product owner maximizes value by regularly reviewing stakeholder needs and reprioritizing accordingly.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The product owner is responsible for maintaining the backlog and ensuring it reflects stakeholder priorities. Ongoing engagement with stakeholders ensures the product delivers maximum value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Product Backlog Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile product owners engage stakeholders continuously to update priorities and deliver value incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is good practice but doesn’t address the stakeholder engagement challenge.

B confuses story size with business value.

D lacks the agility required in a fast-moving project.

Answer: C

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According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communication)andPMBOK® Guide (6th Edition, Section 13.3 Manage Stakeholder Engagement),transparency with stakeholdersis fundamental in agile environments. Delays or deviations from expected outcomes must bepromptly communicatedto affected stakeholders to adjust expectations and plans.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes that one of the key values in agile isresponding to change over following a plan, and that includes openly discussing risks and delays with impacted parties.

Thus,Option Dis correct: the agile coach shouldproactively engage marketing stakeholdersto inform them about the delay and support revised planning.

In this case, the risk description for "Incomplete requirements specification" has been identified as a high likelihood and high impact risk. To mitigate this, the most appropriate strategy would be to conduct thorough requirements analysis and validation. This ensures that the integration of the new tool with the customer relationship management system aligns with the business objectives and avoids misunderstandings or gaps in the product requirements, which could cause delays or rework later in the project. This step addresses the core challenge of ensuring the product meets the business needs and integrates smoothly with existing systems.

The correct answer is C – Invite the new release manager to the sprint demo and ask for help. Agile encourages stakeholder collaboration and visibility. Sprint reviews (also known as demos) are key opportunities for stakeholders, including release managers, to engage directly with the team and provide feedback. Since the issue is related to environmental instability and the new release manager is a key stakeholder, involving them in the sprint review enables mutual understanding and sets the stage for collaboration.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use the sprint review to present completed work to stakeholders and receive direct feedback. It is also an opportunity to engage stakeholders who can influence the delivery environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Agile encourages frequent stakeholder collaboration. Sprint reviews should include key stakeholders who are responsible for operational and release matters to ensure alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Options A and D are passive approaches and may not lead to effective communication. Option B (attending daily standups) may be helpful but is not the best opportunity for strategic involvement compared to a sprint demo.

Answer: C

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In agile environments, planning should be flexible and adaptable to changing circumstances. Just-in-time (JIT) refinement refers to the practice of refining the backlog and details of the product features as they become more relevant, rather than attempting to plan everything upfront. This allows the team to respond to changes and new information as they emerge, which aligns with agile principles of iterative development and adaptability.

The correct answer is C – Determine who is best qualified to address the challenges. Agile teams are self-organizing and empowered to make technical decisions. When challenges arise, the team collaboratively identifies who is best suited to resolve issues, rather than relying on external direction or top-down task assignment.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing. When challenges or new work arises, the team decides how to proceed, including task allocation based on skills and availability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths also notes:

“Team members decide how work is divided and who tackles what. When technical complexity is involved, those with relevant expertise are encouraged to step in, with support from the rest of the team.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A violates the principle of team autonomy.

B delays delivery rather than solving the problem.

D incorrectly places the Product Owner in a team management role.

Answer: C

The correct answer is C — Work with the customer to understand which user stories will deliver the best business value, re-prioritize the backlog, and share it with the customer to provide release plans.

Agile allows for adaptive planning and continuous prioritization but also provides transparency and planning via product roadmaps and release planning. Collaborating with the customer to align on value and priorities fosters trust and offers predictability through rolling wave planning.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile release planning provides a high-level roadmap of deliverables based on value. It enables stakeholder alignment while remaining flexible to changing priorities.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Release Planning)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile doesn't reject roadmaps—it refines them iteratively. Teams work with stakeholders to determine business value and build release forecasts that evolve with each iteration.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A is rigid and misrepresents agile's balance between planning and adaptability.

B inappropriately shifts responsibility to the customer.

D is valid but lacks the engagement and re-prioritization aspect.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is A – High-risk features can be prioritized to fit into releases with less work in progress. Agile emphasizes risk-driven delivery: high-risk and high-value features should be addressed early to reduce uncertainty. Managing WIP also helps improve focus and throughput.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams often deliver the highest risk or highest value items early in the project. This helps reduce uncertainty and allows for faster feedback and adaptation.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value Delivery and Risk)

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Prioritizing high-risk features early is a proactive risk management strategy. Teams can reduce the likelihood of failure by discovering major issues early and correcting them while time and budget allow.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Option B delays addressing risk.

Option C focuses on low-value items and may not satisfy customer concerns.

Option D adjusts WIP but doesn’t directly address prioritizing the risky features.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C — Training in areas of weakness.

Velocity can be improved when the team removes skill-based bottlenecks. If some members struggle due to lack of knowledge or technical gaps, their productivity—and the team's velocity—will be impacted. Targeted training helps the team overcome these weaknesses and deliver more efficiently.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Improving technical and team skills through training and mentoring increases team performance and agility. Learning is a continuous improvement activity that directly impacts delivery capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.4 – Developing People and Teams)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Velocity is driven by team capabilities. When teams address their weakest areas—through training, pairing, or knowledge sharing—they improve quality and throughput.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A supports communication but doesn’t directly impact skill-based bottlenecks.

B helps with planning but not necessarily performance.

D describes the work cadence, not a practice that enhances velocity.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is C – Conduct retrospectives at the end of every sprint.

According to the Agile framework, regular retrospectives are a key practice to inspect and adapt the process. If team members have concerns about the Scrum Master's processes, the appropriate time and space to bring up and resolve such issues is the Sprint Retrospective.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a time-boxed event that enables the team to inspect itself and create a plan for improvements to be enacted during the next iteration. It provides a structured opportunity for feedback and reflection.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5, Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Teams must take ownership of their process. The role of the agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is to facilitate improvement via mechanisms like retrospectives. They are not responsible for enforcing process, but for enabling continuous improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A may undermine the team's self-organization and brings hierarchy into team-level process adjustments.

B may address some confusion, but doesn’t actively involve the team in process improvement.

D is inappropriate—sprint planning is for work planning, not process feedback.

Therefore, the most agile-appropriate and validated solution is: C

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The correct answer is D – Use the team's historical velocity to calculate a range of features that can be delivered. Agile emphasizes forecasting over commitment, and this is achieved through empirical data such as velocity. Providing a range based on historical velocity allows for realistic planning while acknowledging uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile forecasting is based on empirical data. Teams use their past velocity to forecast how much work they can complete in a given time frame. This forecast is typically expressed as a range to account for variability.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Forecasting)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Rather than commit to fixed scope, agile teams use historical velocity and prioritized backlogs to forecast delivery. Forecasts are probabilistic, not promises.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Estimation and Forecasting)

Incorrect options:

A violates agile’s core value of responding to change over following a fixed plan.

B delays valuable forecasting data.

C implies commitment rather than forecast.

Answer: D

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Story point estimation in agile is acollaborative team activity, and consensus is critical. Techniques likePlanning Pokerare designed to reveal differences in understanding. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Estimating Techniques)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), when there's adiscrepancy in estimates, it is essential todiscuss and understand the rationalebehind differing views.

Option Cis correct: the team shoulddiscuss and clarifyto reach a shared understanding.

Option Aignores potential misunderstandings.

Option Bunnecessarily delays estimation.

Option Dis incorrect—the team, not the customer, estimates the effort.

Estimation challenges are common among new agile teams. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and Estimating Techniques), improving estimation accuracy involvesteam collaboration, continuous feedback, and inspecting and adapting techniquessuch as Planning Poker, affinity estimation, or triangulation. These discussions should happen in dedicated planning or retrospective meetings, but estimation issues can be flagged and lightly discussed in daily scrums to initiate deeper review.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)advises that estimation is ateam activity, not an individual one, and that teams learn and improve accuracy over time throughfeedback loops and shared insights.

Option Bis correct because discussing estimating challenges—even briefly during daily scrums—raises team awareness and drives improvement.

Option AandCdeal with symptoms rather than the root cause.

Option Dsuggests using metrics for performance evaluation, which contradicts agile values (Agile Manifesto: "Individuals and interactions over processes and tools").

In Kanban, lead time is a key performance indicator (KPI) that should be regularly monitored. Lead time measures the amount of time it takes for a work item to move from the start of the process to its completion. By monitoring lead time, the team lead can assess how efficiently work is flowing through the system and identify areas where bottlenecks or delays may be occurring. Reducing lead time is one of the primary goals in Kanban to improve overall process efficiency and delivery speed.

Kanban is continuous and can lead toburnout or low moraledue to lack of visible milestones. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)suggest thatrecognizing and celebrating milestones or delivery pointsis essential to maintain motivation, especially in long-running Kanban teams.

Option Ais correct:celebrating completed workgives the team a sense of closure and achievement, improving engagement.

Option Bmight help temporarily but doesn’t address theroot motivational issue.

Option Cadds pressure and is counterproductive.

Option Dmay improve flow but doesn't directly address thelack of visible progress recognition.

The correct answer is C – Explain that the Kanban board enables the team to complete the work and increases transparency on work that is not done.

Agile values transparency, visibility, and collaboration. Kanban boards are a form of information radiator—tools that openly display the team’s workflow, work-in-progress (WIP), and progress toward goals. Their visibility helps stakeholders and the team remain aligned and encourages accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams use information radiators such as Kanban boards to provide transparency and make status, bottlenecks, and priorities visible to all. This fosters trust, communication, and quick decision-making.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Visibility into progress and issues enhances communication and alignment across stakeholders. Information radiators like task boards or Kanban boards are vital tools for agile success.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Tools and Techniques)

Other options are inappropriate:

A and D compromise transparency and contradict agile values.

B misstates the purpose of the Kanban board—it’s not about assigning work post-completion.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A — A formalized agile approach offers controlled flexibility in dealing with unknown variables in a manner that adds business value.

Agile is designed to operate effectively under conditions of high uncertainty. It allows for controlled experimentation, feedback loops, and adaptive changes, all while maintaining a focus on delivering business value. This makes it ideal for environments reliant on data analytics and frequent changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide the flexibility to respond to changing conditions and unknowns while ensuring that value delivery remains aligned with stakeholder needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.2 – Agile Principles)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile’s incremental delivery model enables teams to validate assumptions and adapt based on feedback and data—making it a natural fit for data-driven organizations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B is factually incorrect and overly simplistic.

C misrepresents agile as a formal change-control process.

D is an opinion, not a principle.

The correct answer is A – Cross-train some members in the automation framework to broaden their capacity with that skill. Agile teams are cross-functional and self-organizing. Cross-training helps build resilience, reduce skill bottlenecks, and ensure continuous delivery without unnecessary delays or dependence.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cross-training improves team performance and flexibility. Agile encourages developing T-shaped skills—broad knowledge across functions and deep knowledge in one.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Cross-Functionality)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“High-performing agile teams actively cross-train to address skill gaps and reduce dependencies. This enhances velocity and self-sufficiency.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B undermines team self-management and is not the PO’s responsibility.

C delays the needed skill improvement.

D sacrifices quality and value.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D — Work with the team to analyze the market opportunity and create a tailored agile approach if needed.

Agile promotes context-based tailoring. Just because an approach works well in one project doesn’t guarantee it will fit another. The agile leader should collaborate with the team to analyze current needs and adapt or design the most suitable process accordingly.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“There is no one-size-fits-all approach. Agile methods should be tailored to suit the project context and objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Tailoring Agile)

Mike Griffiths:

“Teams must evaluate project needs and customize their process accordingly. Blind reuse of past methods often fails to address unique challenges.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

A involves stakeholders, but D emphasizes team and tailoring for delivery.

B ignores the unique needs of the new project.

C undermines agility and team ownership.

Answer: D

—

In the scenario described, the team is discussing the root causes of the technical problems that led to delayed deliverables, which indicates they are being proactive. One of the agile principles is to deliver working software frequently and adapt to change, and this situation shows the team is reflecting on their issues to improve future performance by identifying ways to balance the demands placed on the team (workload, deadlines, etc.) with their available capacity and necessary competencies.

The correct answer isC – Facilitate a conversation about the user story between the development team and the product owner.In Agile,collaboration,self-organization, andface-to-face conversationare foundational principles for resolving disagreements and achieving a shared understanding.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The agile practitioner facilitates healthy communication and constructive dialogue between the product owner and the development team to align understanding and priorities. Agile coaches and Scrum Masters serve the team by removing obstacles to collaboration, not by acting as decision-makers.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.3 – Facilitating Agile Practices)

Further, the guide emphasizes:

“Effective teams discuss issues collaboratively. When disagreements arise, the agile leader’s role is to facilitate communication and resolution through shared understanding, not to dictate decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.1 – Agile Mindset and Behaviors)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookalso states:

“Agile encourages close collaboration between business and technical teams. When conflicts arise regarding a user story, the agile practitioner’s role is to facilitate meaningful discussions to ensure mutual understanding and team-driven resolution.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

Aundermines team self-organization and implies a command-and-control model.

Bis confrontational and goes against agile values of respect and collaboration.

Dcontradicts the facilitative role of the agile practitioner, who should not act as an authoritative decision-maker.

Thus, the most agile-consistent approach is toenable conversation and clarity between roles.

Answer: C

To address declining morale, mistrust, and isolation within the team, the agile project manager should focus on fostering collaboration, trust, and team cohesion. Cross-training and mentoring provide opportunities for team members to learn from one another, share knowledge, and build stronger interpersonal relationships. This not only enhances productivity but also helps break down silos, encourages mutual support, and increases trust across the team.

The correct answer is D — Suggest an iterative approach including timely engagement of all key stakeholders and hold regular review meetings.

Engaging stakeholders continuously and using iteration reviews to validate deliverables ensures that misunderstandings are addressed early. This is especially critical in situations where expectations were not met in previous projects. Agile thrives in environments that require responsiveness to feedback.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Early and continuous stakeholder engagement and regular reviews help ensure alignment and satisfaction, especially when past experiences were negative.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile promotes iterative delivery and early validation, minimizing the risk of misaligned expectations and unmet requirements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and C are useful, but don’t directly prevent recurrence of the problem.

B is vague and lacks concrete action.

Answer: D

The correct answer is C – Ask the Product Owner to select an item from the backlog on which to work. The Product Owner is responsible for prioritizing the product backlog. When a team finishes its sprint work early, it should collaborate with the Product Owner to identify the next highest-value item to pull into the sprint.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner owns the backlog and prioritization. If work is completed early, the team may pull in the next most important backlog item, subject to capacity and readiness.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Iteration Execution)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If there’s remaining capacity in the sprint, teams should consult the Product Owner to select the next item. The Scrum Master facilitates, but the PO owns content decisions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A skips prioritization.

B misplaces decision-making authority.

D incorrectly involves the Scrum Master in backlog decisions.

Answer: C

When the team determines that the highest-priority item will take longer than expected in the current sprint, it is essential to engage the product owner. The product owner is responsible for maintaining the product backlog and defining the priority of work items. By scheduling a meeting with the product owner, the team can collaboratively reassess the priorities and make adjustments based on the evolving understanding of the work required.

The product owner can help determine if the current high-priority item should be moved to the next sprint or if other adjustments to the backlog are needed. This ensures that the team is always focused on delivering the most valuable work within the given sprint time frame. Engaging with the product owner fosters collaboration and ensures alignment between the team and stakeholders, maintaining flexibility and focus on delivering customer value.

In Agile, it's important to continuously refine and prioritize requirements while managing dependencies. The team should work collaboratively to identify and prioritize the key dependencies that must be resolved to ensure that the user stories meet the Definition of Ready (DoR) criteria. By focusing on the highest priority dependencies first, the team can maintain progress while adapting to changes, rather than getting stalled trying to resolve all dependencies at once. This allows for more flexibility and efficient delivery.

The correct answer is A – Self-organize. One of the fundamental principles of agile is that teams are self-organizing and cross-functional. During iteration planning, once the stories are accepted into the sprint, the team collaborates to break down those stories into tasks and assign work among themselves based on skills and interest.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are self-organizing, meaning they collectively decide how to accomplish their work, rather than being directed by others. This principle supports autonomy and trust, and enhances team ownership and commitment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“Agile teams are trusted to manage themselves. Once user stories are selected during iteration planning, the team decomposes stories into tasks and self-assigns work collaboratively.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts agile principles of self-assignment and voluntary collaboration.

C may be valuable for clarification but is not the first action after stories are added.

D identifying the Scrum Master is irrelevant to the task breakdown phase.

Answer: A

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Agile teams evaluate new tools or technologies throughspikes—time-boxed research or experimentation tasks. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), the appropriate way to introduce new technology is toengage the teamin the decision and create abacklog itemfor a spike to evaluate its viability.

Option Cis correct: it follows agile collaboration and backlog grooming practices.

Option Askips team consensus and formal prioritization.

Option Bcontradicts self-organizing team principles.

Option Dmay delay necessary action and is better suited for process discussions, not technical trials.

The first step for the Scrum Master should be to identify the key stakeholders as early as possible. Understanding who the key stakeholders are, such as internal or external individuals or groups that have an interest in the project, allows the team to prioritize communication and engagement with them from the outset. Identifying stakeholders early ensures that their needs and expectations can be taken into account when planning and executing the project. This helps avoid misunderstandings or misaligned goals later in the project.

The correct answer is C – Agile leader (e.g., Scrum Master). One of the key responsibilities of an agile leader is to protect the development team from external interruptions so that the team can maintain focus and maximize productivity.

From PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The agile leader shields the team from outside disruptions to allow them to remain focused on their commitments. They work to establish working agreements, communication protocols, and help manage stakeholder access to the team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Responsibilities of the Agile Leader)

From PMBOK® Guide – 7th Edition (tailoring for agile environments):

“Leaders in agile environments facilitate communication, clear obstacles, and protect teams from disruptions and distractions that can compromise the team’s ability to deliver value.”

From Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book:

“Scrum Masters and agile leaders act as gatekeepers to the team, ensuring that stakeholder interactions are managed and that the team can focus on iteration goals.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Option A (Product owner) is responsible for backlog clarity, not for shielding the team from distractions.

Option B (Project manager) is not a standard agile role; agile uses roles such as Scrum Master or Agile Coach.

Option D (Developers) may address distractions, but it is the agile leader's role to proactively prevent them.

Answer: C

=========

The correct answer is B – Discuss the situation with the functional manager. The Scrum Master serves as a facilitator and servant leader, helping resolve impediments that interfere with the team’s ability to deliver. When conflicting assignments arise, the Scrum Master should facilitate communication with functional managers to clarify priorities and reinforce team commitments.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master removes impediments and facilitates collaboration with stakeholders, including functional managers, to ensure the team can focus on sprint goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Agile Leadership and Stakeholder Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When external interference affects team performance, the Scrum Master should engage in dialogue with stakeholders to clarify roles and commitments, promoting alignment and removing blockers.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A is extreme and not within the Scrum Master's authority.

C is unnecessarily escalatory.

D is confrontational and undermines collaboration.

Answer: B

The correct answer is A – Send the member to training. Agile encourages cross-functional teams and continuous improvement. When a team member identifies a skill gap that affects delivery, addressing it promptly through training or mentoring increases team capability and autonomy.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams strive for cross-functionality. When skill gaps hinder progress, organizations support learning to reduce dependencies and improve throughput.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Empowering team members through skill development enhances flexibility and velocity. Encouraging proactive learning improves team performance.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B defers ownership of the solution.

C unnecessarily delays action.

D delays learning due to unnecessary constraints.

Answer: A

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A quick mock-up (or prototype) is a highly effective way to visually represent the product's features and functionality to stakeholders. This allows stakeholders to get a tangible sense of what the product will look like and how it will work. By iterating on this mock-up and adjusting it based on feedback, the team can build consensus and gain stakeholder approval more effectively. This approach encourages active collaboration and ensures that the product aligns with stakeholder expectations early in the development process.

The correct answer is A – Refocus the sprint review meetings to demonstrate working software and seek feedback on the product.

Sprint reviews are designed to showcase the completed product increment to stakeholders and receive feedback. The primary goal is to validate that the work delivered provides value to the customer—not to present technical details. Demonstrating working software is one of the core tenets of Agile.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Sprint reviews are working sessions designed to elicit feedback and foster collaboration. Teams demonstrate completed work and adjust the backlog based on stakeholder input.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Value Delivery)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“The output of every iteration should be potentially shippable product. The sprint review is for stakeholders to see that output and provide feedback to inform future development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options explained:

B may be helpful, but it doesn’t solve the immediate issue of misaligned sprint reviews.

C misunderstands the purpose of the sprint review—it’s not about architecture.

D changes the audience instead of correcting the approach.

Answer: A

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In Agile, the Definition of Done (DoD) typically requires that the feature be both developed and fully integrated into the release package before it is considered complete. Even though the feature was successfully tested and demonstrated by QA, if it is not included in the release package, it is not technically completed according to the DoD. Therefore, its story points should not be added to the burndown chart until it is actually part of the release. This ensures that the team’s progress is accurately tracked based on completed, released work.

The correct answer is D – Develop and distribute a high-level summary of how Agile offers greater benefits than predictive to the organization's executive directors, and if executive directors agree with the summary, distribute it organization-wide.

Cultural change must be supported from the top. Executive buy-in is crucial for any organizational transformation. Agile coaches work with leadership to promote Agile values, educate key decision-makers, and cascade change throughout the organization in a structured and supported way.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Cultural change requires executive sponsorship. Coaches must engage with senior leadership to build understanding, alignment, and support before broader rollout.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.1 – Introducing Agile)

Mike Griffiths confirms:

“Agile adoption is most effective when leadership embraces its principles. Change must be seeded and supported at the executive level before diffusing to teams.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2 – Agile Mindset)

Other options:

A gives control to mid-management, which may hinder transformation.

B misdirects effort (vendors, not coaching focus).

C risks premature deployment without leadership support.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A — Stakeholders should have regularly been engaged to obtain feedback and reduce the functionality risk.

In Agile, stakeholder engagement and iterative feedback loops ensure that the solution being built is aligned with business value. Simply meeting documented requirements is insufficient. Agile practices such as demos and user feedback sessions minimize the risk of building features that fail to deliver value.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile emphasizes ongoing stakeholder engagement. Demonstrating working software at the end of each iteration and gathering feedback ensures that the product is delivering business value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Value-driven delivery is achieved not just by delivering what was asked for, but by ensuring it actually meets customer needs. Regular feedback from stakeholders is critical to avoid building low-value features.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to the lean principle of “decide as late as possible,” but feedback, not delay, would have addressed the issue.

C is unrelated to this context.

D lacks the collaborative engagement approach emphasized in Agile.

Answer: A

—

This situation introduces technical uncertainty. In agile, such scenarios are best addressed byspikesorincremental implementationandearly feedback. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Experimentation)suggests that uncertain work should be prototyped, tested early, and shown during sprint reviews for feedback and learning.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)recommends testing high-risk integrations early and iteratively, rather than over-planning.

Option Dis correct: developing, testing, and demonstrating early minimizes risk and aligns with agile principles.

Option Aleans toward waterfall-style planning and over-documentation.

Option Bincorrectly assumes non-functional requirements are less valuable—they’re critical in many systems.

Option Cmay delay necessary architectural work and increase risk.

By moving to an iterative approach, the organization can focus more on delivering value and benefits incrementally, with each iteration producing a working product or a usable increment. This allows the team to receive feedback from stakeholders more frequently and make adjustments as needed, ensuring that the most valuable features are prioritized and delivered in a timely manner. Unlike a predictive approach, where the focus is often on completing tasks according to a strict plan, an iterative approach allows for flexibility and continuous improvement, ensuring the product better aligns with user needs and business objectives.

The Walking Skeleton approach involves developing a minimal, end-to-end working system with just enough functionality to demonstrate how the product works in its simplest form. This is often used in Agile to ensure the core structure of the product is in place, and it allows stakeholders to see how basic features are implemented and how the product will evolve. By highlighting this approach, the project manager can help the sponsor understand the essential features and the incremental development process, making it clear what will be developed and when, without overwhelming them with detailed planning at this stage.

The correct answer is B — Balance risk reduction and value-adding activities in the next iteration.

Agile recommends actively managing risks as part of iteration planning. While delivering customer value remains a top priority, severe risks should be mitigated as early as possible. The team should consider allocating capacity in the next sprint to reduce risk while still maintaining delivery focus.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams incorporate risk mitigation work into iteration planning. Teams should prioritize high-impact risks early and balance risk management with delivering customer value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Agile Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Agile does not separate risk management into a different process—it is embedded within backlog prioritization. Addressing risk early can prevent downstream impacts, and teams must weigh risk vs. value regularly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A disrupts current iteration goals and contradicts agile time-boxing.

C ignores the severity of the risk.

D escalates unnecessarily—agile promotes team-level decision-making first.

Answer: B

—

Agile teamsembrace changeandcollaborate with customersto deliver value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1: Agile Mindset)supports responding to change—even late in the development cycle—if it results in business value. The team shouldaccept the new goal, replan with the product owner, andadjust scope or priority if needed, rather than resist or escalate.

Option Ais correct: it reflects the agile value ofresponding to change and delivering early value.

Option Bis too rigid and contrary to agile principles.

Option Cimplies a punitive model that does not align with collaborative agile contracts.

Option Dintroduces unnecessary cost and overhead without first trying to replan collaboratively.

The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

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Thesprint review/demois the meeting where the teamshows completed work to stakeholdersandgathers feedback. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3: Sprint Review)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement), stakeholders such as department heads or executives should attend sprint demos to stay informed and provide input.

Option Cis correct: sprint demos foster transparency and stakeholder involvement.

Option Ais typically for the Scrum team and product owner.

Option Bis for team internal coordination only.

Option Dis reserved for team process improvement—not stakeholder participation.

The correct answer is B — Two-way communication.

Agile thrives on collaboration and transparency. In sprint planning, the product owner presents the business needs (via user stories), and the team responds with estimates and commitments. This mutual communication fosters alignment, shared understanding, and trust, which is characteristic of two-way communication.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects rely on high levels of communication and collaboration, especially between the product owner and development team.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths:

“Two-way communication allows feedback and clarification. Sprint planning is a prime example where the PO and team interact to shape and commit to sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to managing emotions, not communication style.

C is unrelated to agile practice.

D (reciprocal communication) is a less common term and not directly aligned with the scenario.

Answer: B

—

In agile, especially under conditions ofuncertainty or anticipated changes, teams should focus oncollaborative product development, includingongoing backlog refinement and continuous product reviews. This approach is endorsed by thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Refinement)andSection 7.2 (Engaging Stakeholders), which emphasizefrequent interaction with the product owneranditerative feedback loopsto adapt quickly.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)supports the practice ofrefining the backlog regularlyand conductingfrequent reviewsto stay aligned with stakeholder expectations.

Option Bis correct: continuous collaboration with the product owner supports flexible, value-driven delivery.

Option Ais only a partial measure.

Option Cpromotes a waterfall mindset.

Option Dignores the nature of changing requirements.

To estimate the project's conclusion using velocity, we use the formula:

Given:

Velocity = 40 story points per sprint

Remaining Work = 240 story points

Sprint Duration = 2 weeks

Since each sprint is 2 weeks, the total duration will be:

6 × 2 weeks = 12 weeks = 3 months

To support quick feature delivery while maintaining quality, the best approach is to automate integration, testing, and deployment activities. This aligns with the principles of Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD), which streamline processes and reduce the manual effort required to test and deploy software. This approach can help the team to quickly release features with confidence that they meet quality standards, reducing manual errors and speeding up the delivery cycle.

To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

At this point in the planning process, the team has not yet gathered enough data to provide a precise release date. The team's velocity (the amount of work they can complete in each iteration) has not been established, and the team needs some iterations to stabilize and gather insights. However, they can offer a broad range based on the current understanding of the backlog and priorities. This allows the sponsor to have a rough expectation while also managing the uncertainty involved at this stage in the process.

In an adaptive approach to project management, particularly in agile, empowering team leads to manage their teams’ issues and impediments is a key practice. This allows for more autonomy within the teams, ensures that obstacles are handled promptly, and promotes frequent communication among team leads. By giving the leads the authority to resolve issues, they can ensure smooth collaboration across cross-functional teams and maintain alignment with the overall project goals.

The correct answer is A – Kaizen. Kaizen is a Japanese term meaning "continuous improvement." In Agile, Kaizen refers to the practice of regularly reflecting on processes and results, then making incremental improvements. By tracking impediments and resolving them transparently, the team engages in Kaizen behavior.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams embrace a mindset of continuous improvement (Kaizen), regularly inspecting their work and processes and adapting them for better outcomes.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.6 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile is rooted in lean thinking, including Kaizen. Teams reflect on what went well and what needs to change, often using tools like Kanban boards to visualize and track improvements.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

B refers to goal-setting, not process improvement.

C are metrics, not an outcome of experimentation.

D (Muda) refers to waste, which Kaizen seeks to reduce.

Answer: A

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Sprint reviews are a crucial Scrum event for obtaining early feedback from stakeholders, which allows the team to inspect the progress and adapt the product accordingly. By skipping sprint reviews in favor of only release reviews, the team loses the opportunity to make adjustments and improvements throughout the project. The scrum master should emphasize the importance of regular feedback and ensure the team stays aligned with Scrum principles for continuous improvement and value delivery.

The correct answer is D – Ask the team to estimate the amount of rework needed so that adjustments can be made to both the project and release plan.

Agile planning is adaptive and iterative. New information, including required rework, must be integrated into updated estimates and plans. Agile teams frequently replan based on the realities of work-in-progress.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

══════════════════════════════════════════════════

In agile, work is considered “done” only when it meets the agreed-uponDefinition of Done (DoD), which includes all aspects like coding, review, testing, and documentation. If there's disagreement about completion, thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)recommends revisiting and aligning the DoD between the team and product owner.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)explains that without aclear and shared Definition of Done, misunderstandings about completion status can occur, especially with quality-related tasks like testing.

Option Ais correct because aligning on the DoD resolves current and future misunderstandings.

Option Bintroduces unnecessary escalation.

Option Cpostpones resolution and does not solve the core issue.

Option Dincorrectly assumes testing isn’t part of the story’s completion criteria.

Gold-plating—adding extra features not requested or prioritized—is ananti-patternin agile. Agile emphasizesdelivering the highest-priority features first, and product changes should always go through theProduct Ownerfor prioritization and validation.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog and Value Delivery)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery), when capacity is available, the team should pull more storiesfrom the prioritized backlog, ensuring that all work aligns with stakeholder-defined value.

Option Dis correct: confirm backlog priority and use time to delivercustomer-prioritized value.

Option Asupports scope creep.

Option Bis partially correct but doesn’t optimize the time to deliver value.

Option Cperpetuates gold-plating and undermines value alignment.

The correct answer is A — Coordinate a collaboration session so all the team members are involved in the solution process.

Agile encourages cross-functional collaboration and collective problem-solving. When technical uncertainty arises, the best course of action is to leverage the team’s combined knowledge through collaboration rather than working in isolation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams rely on collaboration, especially when solving complex problems. A diversity of input and joint ownership leads to better and faster decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile practitioners should encourage collaborative decision-making. Technical decisions made in isolation can result in integration issues and delay. Collaboration unlocks shared ownership.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

B shifts focus away from current challenges.

C is long-term and not immediately actionable.

D may help, but it introduces external dependency instead of leveraging team knowledge.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is A – Facilitate team agreement on the definition of done (DoD) during the chartering process.

The “Definition of Done” is a shared understanding among the team of what it means for work to be considered complete. Disputes over whether a deliverable is done usually arise due to the lack of a clearly defined and agreed-upon DoD.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should define and agree on the Definition of Done (DoD) early. This shared understanding reduces ambiguity and misalignment over when a task is complete.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The Definition of Done provides clarity, especially in multi-functional teams. It avoids misunderstandings and disputes about work completeness.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

B refers to a team formation stage but doesn’t address the root cause of conflict.

C and D help improve backlog clarity but don’t resolve issues around completion criteria.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is D – It helps to quickly resolve issues using the sponsor's influence. A sponsor's presence in Scrum ceremonies (like sprint reviews or retrospectives) helps escalate and resolve high-level issues, remove organizational blockers, and reinforce alignment between the team and the business.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Active sponsor engagement can accelerate issue resolution, remove organizational impediments, and provide vital support to the team. Sponsors are valuable allies in ensuring team success and organizational alignment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“When sponsors are visible and engaged, teams benefit from faster decision-making, quicker escalation of issues, and improved morale. Their influence can break through bureaucratic barriers.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A misattributes sprint discipline to sponsor involvement—this is a team responsibility.

B is passive and doesn’t reflect tangible benefits.

C is useful but not the primary advantage of sponsor participation.

Answer: D

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In Agile, continuous integration and regression testing should be part of every iteration to ensure that the product is always in a potentially shippable state. These practices help catch issues early in the development process, preventing defects from accumulating and becoming harder to fix later. By integrating and testing frequently, the team ensures that new code works with existing code and that the product maintains its quality throughout the development lifecycle. This approach aligns with Agile principles of delivering working software regularly and maintaining high-quality standards throughout each iteration.

The correct answer is C — Ask the team to determine how to adapt to this increase in the next retrospective.

The retrospective is the ideal agile forum to inspect and adapt. It allows the team to identify root causes of issues (such as rising defects), reflect on their quality practices, and collaboratively propose solutions like adding more testing, refining definitions of done, or changing working agreements.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should use retrospectives to analyze quality issues, adapt processes, and commit to continuous improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Quality issues like increasing defect rates should be addressed through team introspection and adaptation in retrospectives, not by command-style fixes.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is reactive and bypasses team collaboration.

B encourages unsustainable practices.

D disrupts the team’s current sprint focus and contradicts agile flow.

Answer: C

—

The correct answer is C — The team should have conducted more demonstrations with the product owner during the iteration.

Continuous feedback is essential in Agile. Regular product demos or interim check-ins during the sprint (not just at the end) allow the product owner to validate progress and course-correct early. This ensures that expectations are aligned and surprises are avoided at the sprint review.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholder feedback should be gathered continuously throughout the sprint. Regular engagement and interim demos reduce the risk of misalignment at iteration end.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths:

“Waiting until the sprint review to validate features with the product owner increases risk. Frequent collaboration and demonstrations ensure the work remains on target.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is helpful but doesn't guarantee alignment.

B is testing-focused and misses early collaboration.

D places all responsibility on the product owner, ignoring shared ownership.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Understand the impediments and facilitate issue resolution to enable the team to succeed.

The Agile Project Manager (or Scrum Master) acts as a servant leader by removing impediments and coaching the team toward improvement. Instead of dictating action or adjusting timeboxes, the right approach is to facilitate problem-solving and help the team meet its sprint goal.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master works to remove impediments and support the team’s progress. They do not give commands but instead facilitate improvement.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Roles and Responsibilities)

Mike Griffiths affirms:

“Agile leaders remove roadblocks and create an environment where the team can succeed. They support rather than direct.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options are inappropriate:

A is command-and-control, not servant leadership.

B violates timebox principles of Scrum.

C misplaces responsibility for testing onto customers.

Answer: D

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Planning Pokeris a well-known estimation technique where team members use numbered cards (usually Fibonacci series) to estimatestory point valuesbased on relative size. It’s aconsensus-based estimation method, as described in thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimation Techniques)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Estimating Techniques).

Option Dis correct:Planning Pokeris explicitly designed for estimating stories in terms of points.

Option A (Parametric)is more common in traditional (predictive) planning.

Option B (One-to-one comparison)refers to relative sizing without collaboration.

Option C (Affinity)is another agile technique but typically used forgrouping stories into size buckets, not direct story point consensus estimation.

Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

The correct answer is B – Discuss the issue with the team in the daily stand-up meetings. Agile emphasizes transparency, collaboration, and self-organization. The daily stand-up is an appropriate forum to raise and discuss workload distribution so the team can adjust and support each other.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Daily stand-ups are a tool for fostering open communication, uncovering impediments, and adjusting the plan for the day. It enables the team to help each other balance workloads and remove bottlenecks.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Daily Stand-Ups)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Team members should use stand-ups to discuss challenges. If someone is overloaded, the team can identify ways to redistribute work to maintain balance and avoid burnout.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A escalates the issue unnecessarily and bypasses team self-management.

C is too narrow and private for a team-based issue.

D adds administrative burden without solving the underlying problem.

Answer: B

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Transparency is key in agile. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.1 Communications)emphasizes the use ofinformation radiators—visual displays such as task boards, burndown charts, or Kanban boards thatimmediately communicate project status. These tools make progress visible to all stakeholders without needing detailed documentation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)reinforces thatcollocated displays or shared online boardsreduce misunderstandings and keep stakeholders aligned.

Option Dis correct: a public project board offersreal-time visibilityand promotes transparency.

Option Acontradicts agile by emphasizing documentation over working software.

Option Blimits visibility to a subset of stakeholders and is passive.

Option Cdisrupts the team’s daily focus—stand-ups are not intended for stakeholder participation.

The correct answer is D – Communicate the risk of a negative ROI to the stakeholders, and update the release plan. Agile values transparency and collaboration. When the team identifies risks to business outcomes such as ROI, they must promptly inform stakeholders and work collaboratively to reassess scope, value, and strategy.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams provide ongoing visibility to stakeholders. If delivery metrics reveal financial concerns, the product owner and stakeholders evaluate whether to pivot, persevere, or stop.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Transparency)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile planning is value-based. If ROI is unlikely to be achieved, stakeholders must be informed early so informed decisions can be made.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A assumes trimming scope is sufficient without stakeholder input.

B contradicts team stability and morale principles.

C helps identify inefficiencies but doesn’t replace transparency.

Answer: D