PTCB PTCE Dumps

The CDC emphasizes that handwashing prevents illness primarily because germs (pathogens) are commonly spread when people touch contaminated surfaces, objects, or other people and then touch their eyes, nose, or mouth. Proper handwashing removes these pathogens and interrupts this transmission route. The other options are incorrect: (B) is not a reason recognized by CDC; (C) misstates the mechanism (pathogens on hands don’t “weaken the immune system” directly—transmission to entry sites causes infection); and (D) is false—soap and water are often preferred, and alcohol-based sanitizer does not work against all organisms (e.g., spores like C. difficile and some viruses), whereas handwashing does.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• CDC Hand Hygiene guidance for the public and healthcare settings highlighting touch as a primary transmission pathway and the effectiveness of handwashing.

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials on infection control and hand hygiene principles in pharmacy practice.

• USP <795>/<797> introductory hygiene expectations reinforcing handwashing to reduce contamination risk.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

A math formula on a white background Description automatically generated

Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. 20→Correct.2 tablets per day × 10 days = 20 tablets.❌A. 5→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌B. 10→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌D. 40→ Incorrect. Over-dose.

????Reference:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Exam: Dosing Conversions

Eliquis (apixaban) is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that increases the risk of serious bleeding.

High-alert medications have anarrow therapeutic indexand requirespecial monitoring.

????Reference:ISMP High-Alert Medication List, FDA Eliquis Safety Warnings.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Amedication erroroccurs when a patientreceives the wrong drug, dose, or administration method, which can result inadverse effects.High-risk medicationsinclude:

Injectable insulins(risk of hypoglycemia, coma).

Antineoplastic (chemotherapy) agents(toxic at incorrect doses).

Oral anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin, apixaban)(can causefatal bleeding).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Topical creams→Correct.While topical medicationscan cause localized irritation or allergies, theyrarely cause systemic toxicitywhen used improperly.❌B. Injectable insulins→ Incorrect.Can cause life-threatening hypoglycemia.❌C. Antineoplastic agents→ Incorrect.High risk of toxicity and organ damage.❌D. Oral anticoagulants→ Incorrect.Incorrect dosing can lead to fatal bleeding.

????Reference:

ISMP List of High-Alert Medications

FDA Guidelines on Medication Errors

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Risk Management

Lot numbers are required for drug recalls and tracking purposes.

Prescription numbers are pharmacy-specific and not on manufacturer packaging.

????Reference:FDA Drug Labeling Requirements, USP Manufacturing Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

OnceBasaglar insulin pensare opened, they must bediscarded after 28 dayseven if insulin remains, as potency decreases.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. 28 days→Correct.FDA-approved discard time for Basaglar.❌A. 1 day→ Incorrect.Too short.kabtak chaoiyue❌B. 7 days→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 14 days→ Incorrect.Incorrect expiration timeframe.

????Reference:

FDA Basaglar Storage Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Medication Storage and Expiration

Under the federal Controlled Substances Act, schedules are codified in Title 21 of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), Part 1308. Schedule II substances are those with a high potential for abuse, with use potentially leading to severe psychological or physical dependence, and which have accepted medical uses in the United States. Methadone is explicitly listed as a Schedule II opioid analgesic. By contrast, metoprolol (a beta-blocker), metformin (a biguanide antidiabetic), and methotrexate (an antimetabolite) are not controlled substances under federal scheduling.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Cephalexin suspension (Keflex)is anantibioticthat must berefrigerated after reconstitutionanddiscarded after 14 daysto maintain stability and potency.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Keep refrigerated; Discard after 14 days→Correct.Proper storage is2-8°C (36-46°F), with a 14-day shelf life.❌A. Protect from light; Discard after 7 days→ Incorrect.Refrigeration is required, not just light protection.❌B. Protect from light; Discard after 14 days→ Incorrect.Light protection is not a major concern for cephalexin.❌C. Keep refrigerated; Discard after 7 days→ Incorrect.Cephalexin is stable for 14 days, not just 7.

????Reference:

USP <795>: Beyond-Use Dating for Reconstituted Suspensions

FDA Drug Stability Guidelines

Chemotherapy drugs (e.g., methotrexate, cisplatin)arehigh-alertdue to theirtoxicity, risk of overdose, and narrow therapeutic index.

????Reference:ISMP High-Alert Medication List, PTCE Study Materials.

According to USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices, the most accurate source for determining proper storage conditions of a medication is the manufacturer's label or package insert, which contains specific temperature and humidity requirements (e.g., refrigeration, protection from light). This information is required by FDA labeling regulations and is essential for maintaining drug stability and potency.

Additionally, the Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Review Guide states:

“Storage requirements should always be verified using the product’s official labeling or manufacturer’s monograph, as these contain validated stability data.”

TheDrug Enforcement Administration (DEA)requires that theft or significant loss ofcontrolled substancesbe reported usingDEA Form 106.

(A) Pregabalin✅Schedule V (Controlled Substance – Must be Reported to DEA)

Pregabalin (brand name:Lyrica) is classified as aSchedule V controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA).

Pharmacies must report its theft or significant loss to the DEA using DEA Form 106.

(B) Piroxicam❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Piroxicam is anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

(C) Prochlorperazine❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Prochlorperazine is anantiemetic and antipsychotic.

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

(D) Pioglitazone❌Not a Controlled Substance – No Reporting Required

Pioglitazone (brand name:Actos) is anantidiabetic medication (thiazolidinedione).

It isnot a controlled substance, so DEA reporting isnot requiredfor theft or loss.

Thepharmacist-in-charge (PIC)must fileDEA Form 106in the event of a significant loss or theft of anySchedule II–V controlled substance.

The loss must be reportedwithin one business dayto theDEAand local law enforcement.

Minor losses due to inventory miscounts do not require DEA reporting but should be documented internally.

DEA Controlled Substances Act (CSA):

DEA Form 106 – Reporting Theft/Loss of Controlled Substances:

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Pharmacy Laws & Regulations

Controlled Substance Classification of Each Drug:DEA Reporting Requirements for Pharmacy Technicians:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Tall Man letteringis amedication safety strategyrecommended by theFDA, ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices), and The Joint Commissiontoprevent medication errorscaused bylook-alike, sound-alike (LASA) drug names.

Thedistinctive portionsof similar drug names are written inuppercase lettersto highlight differences.

Helps pharmacists, technicians, and healthcare professionals distinguish medications that areeasily confuseddue to similar names.

Reduces the risk ofprescription misinterpretationandmedication errorsin pharmacy settings.

How Tall Man Lettering Works:Examples of Tall Man Lettering (ISMP and FDA-Approved List):Regular Name

Tall Man Lettering Version

prednisone

predniSONE

prednisolone

prednisoLONE

hydroxyzine

hydrOXYzine

hydralazine

hydrALAzine

dobutamine

dobutAMINE

dopamine

dopaMINE

A. Highlights the similarities in drug names.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering highlightsdifferences, not similarities, toprevent confusion.

B. Ensures all trade names will be capitalized.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering applies toboth brand and generic names, but it is used specifically for drugs with look-alike names.

D. Keeps the pharmacy inventory in alphabetic order.→ Incorrect. Inventory order is based onstandard drug names, not Tall Man lettering.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Official Tall Man Lettering List.

FDA and The Joint Commission Medication Safety Guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety Strategies.

USP <797> and ISMP Guidelines on Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Medications.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Error Prevention Strategies.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:Conclusion:Tall Man lettering is anessential tool for pharmacy techniciansto helpreduce medication errorsby drawing attention todifferencesbetweensimilar drug names, ensuringsafer dispensing and administrationof medications.

A spacer is a non-prescription medical devicethat enhances the delivery of medication from anMDI (metered dose inhaler).

Since the patient never picked it up and it isnot a controlled or perishable item, the pharmacy canreturn it to dispensing stock for resale.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Damaged stock?❌Only if the spacer was opened, broken, or contaminated.

B. The manufacturer?❌Not necessary unless it is defective.

C. The study sponsor?❌Applies only to clinical trial supplies.

????Reference:ISMP Safe Handling of Medical Devices, PTCE Study Guide.

Phenytoin (Dilantin)is ananticonvulsantthatstabilizes neuronal membranesbyblocking sodium channels, reducing seizure activity.

Used forepilepsy, tonic-clonic seizures, and status epilepticus.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Clonidine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

B. Atomoxetine?❌Used forADHD, NOT seizures.

C. Guanfacine?❌Used forhypertension and ADHD, NOT seizures.

????Reference:FDA Drug Label for Phenytoin, Epilepsy Foundation Guidelines.

The prescribed directions are ½ tablet twice daily of 10 mg tablets, which equals 5 mg twice daily and uses 1 tablet per day. A quantity of #30 should last 30 days. If the patient ran out in 16 days, they used about 2 tablets/day, consistent with taking 10 mg twice daily (i.e., a full tablet BID), which is Option D.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• PTCB/ExCPT Math & Dosing sections: Interpreting SIGs, calculating day’s supply from directions and quantity.

• Community Pharmacy Workflow texts: Refill-too-soon troubleshooting and adherence/error assessment.

Repatha (evolocumab) is a PCSK9 inhibitor used for lowering LDL cholesterol. One of its common side effects includes musculoskeletal pain, such as muscle aches and cramps. According to the FDA package insert for Repatha, clinical trials observed arthralgia, myalgia, and back pain as notable adverse events.

In contrast:

Requip (ropinirole) may cause dizziness or nausea.

Restasis (cyclosporine ophthalmic) causes eye irritation.

Restoril (temazepam) is associated with sedation.

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)areFDA-required programsto ensure that thebenefits of certain medications outweigh their risks. REMS programsrestrict prescribing, dispensing, and monitoringdue to the potential for serious side effects or misuse.

Suboxoneis used foropioid dependenceand containsbuprenorphine, apartial opioid agonist, which can causeaddiction, misuse, and respiratory depressionif used improperly.

REMS Requirements for Suboxone:

Prescriber Certification:Only specially certified providers can prescribe Suboxone.

Patient Education:Patients must be informed about the risks of misuse, overdose, and dependence.

Limited Dispensing:Pharmacists must ensure prescriptions meet REMS criteria before dispensing.

A. Xarelto (Rivaroxaban).→ Incorrect. While Xarelto is an anticoagulant, it isnot under REMS.

C. Warfarin.→ Incorrect. Warfarin requires monitoring butdoes not have a REMS program.

D. Haloperidol.→ Incorrect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, but itdoes not have a REMS program.

FDA REMS Program List

Suboxone REMS Guidelines

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – REMS and Medication Safety.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – REMS Regulations.

Why Is Suboxone (Buprenorphine/Naloxone) Under REMS?Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

ISMP’s “Do Not Use” / error-prone abbreviations and dose designations emphasize avoiding trailing zeros (e.g., “120.0 mcg”), because the decimal point can be overlooked, potentially causing a tenfold error (e.g., read as 1200 mcg). ISMP also recommends using a leading zero before a decimal (e.g., 0.2 mg) to prevent misreads; thus 0.2 mg (A) and 1.4 mg (D) adhere to that guidance. 300 mcg (B) uses an acceptable unit (“mcg” rather than “µg”). Therefore, “120.0 mcg” (C) is the most error-prone due to the trailing zero.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• ISMP Error-Prone Abbreviations, Symbols, and Dose Designations list: avoid trailing zeros; always use a leading zero before a decimal.

• PTCB/ExCPT medication safety sections covering safe dose expressions and ISMP recommendations.

• NCC MERP/ISMP educational materials on decimal point misinterpretation and tenfold dosing errors.

Escitalopram (Lexapro)is aselective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)used formajor depressive disorder (MDD) and generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). If escitalopram isnon-formulary, a suitable alternative would besertraline (Zoloft), anotherSSRIwith a similar mechanism of action and indication.

A. Cabergoline→ Incorrect; cabergoline is adopamine agonistused to treathyperprolactinemia, not depression or anxiety.

B. Ciprofloxacin→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibiotic, unrelated to antidepressant therapy.

D. Amantadine→ Incorrect; amantadine is anantiviral and antiparkinsonianagent, not used for depression.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for SSRIs (Escitalopram & Sertraline)

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

According toUSP Chapter <800>(Hazardous Drugs—Handling in Healthcare Settings), solid oral dosage forms ofantineoplastic hazardous drugs (e.g., chemotherapy medications like methotrexate or tamoxifen)shouldnotbe placed inautomated counting or packaging machinesbecause:

Risk of Contamination– Tablets and capsulesmay generate dust or powder residue, which can spread hazardous drug particles into the environment.

Exposure Risks– Pharmacy staff may beexposed to hazardous particleswhen refilling, cleaning, or maintaining the machine. This poses a risk ofinhalation, dermal exposure, or accidental ingestion.

Strict USP <800> Compliance– Hazardous drugs requirespecial handling precautions, includingdesignated counting trays, dedicated equipment, and proper personal protective equipment (PPE). Automated machinesdo not provide the necessary containmentfor hazardous drug particles.

USP Chapter <800>– Mandates specific safety measures for handling hazardous drugs in pharmacies, including avoiding automated dispensing systems for hazardous solids.

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) List of Hazardous Drugs– Identifies drugs requiring special handling to minimize occupational exposure.

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Hazardous Drug Guidelines– Reinforces the need to prevent aerosolization of hazardous drug particles.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers hazardous drug handling, personal protective equipment (PPE), and compliance with USP <800>.

Key References:????Why Not the Other Options?

A. Require a sterile environment❌→ Tablets and capsules arenon-steriledosage forms, and USP <800> focuses on hazardous drug containment rather than sterility.

B. Are often involved in dispensing errors❌→ While hazardous drugs must be dispensed carefully,dispensing errors are not the main reason for avoiding automated machines.

D. Expire sooner than other medications❌→ Expiration dates are unrelated tohazardous drug contamination risks.

"NS" stands for Normal Saline (0.9% sodium chloride solution), which isisotonic with blood plasmaand used forIV hydration and medication dilution.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 0.45% sodium chloride?❌"Half-normal saline"(used in fluid-restricted patients).

C. 23.4% sodium chloride?❌Hypertonic saline(used in severe hyponatremia).

D. Any sodium chloride solution?❌Not specific to "NS" (Normal Saline).

????Reference:USP Intravenous Fluids Standardization.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Methotrexate is a hazardous antineoplastic drug listed by NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health). It requires PPE when handled or cleaned up.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅C. Methotrexate → Correct. Listed as a hazardous drug requiring PPE.

❌A. Amiodarone → Incorrect. Not classified as hazardous.

❌B. Atorvastatin → Incorrect. A statin, not hazardous.

❌D. Midazolam → Incorrect. A benzodiazepine, not hazardous.

????Reference:

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020)

USP <800>: PPE Requirements for Hazardous Drugs

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Levetiracetam (Keppra)is classified as ananticonvulsantused to treatseizures (epilepsy).It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Anticonvulsant→Correct. Levetiracetam is indicated forpartial-onset, myoclonic, and tonic-clonic seizures.❌A. Antibiotic→ Incorrect. Levetiracetam does not treat bacterial infections.❌B. Antihyperglycemic→ Incorrect. Antihyperglycemics lowerblood sugar(e.g., metformin, glipizide).❌D. Antihypertensive→ Incorrect. Antihypertensives lowerblood pressure(e.g., amlodipine, lisinopril).

????Reference:

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians

FDA Approved Drug Database (Levetiracetam)

Diflucan (fluconazole) is an antifungal, whileDiprivan (propofol) is a sedative/anesthetic used for surgery.

Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) errorsoccur when medications havesimilar names but different indications.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Clonidine (BP medication) & Klonopin (anxiolytic)→ LASA error but not antifungal vs. anesthetic.

C. Metronidazole (antibiotic) & Metformin (diabetes drug)→ LASA error but different categories.

D. Amiloride (diuretic) & Amlodipine (BP medication)→ LASA error but different categories.

????Reference:ISMP List of High-Risk LASA Medications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

A math formula on a white background Description automatically generated

Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. 20→Correct.2 tablets per day × 10 days = 20 tablets.❌A. 5→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌B. 10→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌D. 40→ Incorrect. Over-dose.

????Reference:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Exam: Dosing Conversions

Thevaricella (chickenpox) vaccine(brand nameVarivax) is alive attenuated virus vaccinethat requiresfreezingto maintain stability.

TheCDC and manufacturers (Merck) require that Varicella vaccine be stored in a freezer at:

Temperature range: -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F)

Acceptable range:-20°C to -10°C (-4°F to 14°F)

Do NOT store in the refrigerator–Refrigeration deactivates the live virus, making the vaccine ineffective.

Store in a stand-alone freezer(not in a refrigerator/freezer combo) to ensure temperature stability.

B. In the refrigerator (2°C to 8°C/36°F to 46°F)❌→Incorrect.

Refrigerationcompromises the vaccine’s potency, leading to inactivation of the live virus.

C. At room temperature (15°C to 30°C/59°F to 86°F)❌→Incorrect.

Room temperature storage causes rapid degradation of the live virus, rendering the vaccine ineffective.

D. In a warmer (30°C to 40°C/86°F to 104°F)❌→Incorrect & Unsafe.

Thisdestroysthe vaccine and makes it completely ineffective.

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States that varicella vaccinesmust be stored in the freezer at -50°C to -15°C (-58°F to +5°F).

Manufacturer (Merck) Guidelines for Varivax– Specifies strict freezer storage requirements.

USP <797> & USP <800> Guidelines– Discuss vaccine stability and proper storage conditions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers vaccine storage and handling protocols.

Proper Long-Term Storage Conditions for Varicella VaccineWhy Not the Other Options?Key References:

Methotrexateis achemotherapy agentand animmunosuppressantused for cancer and autoimmune diseases.

It is classified ashazardous pharmaceutical wasteunderResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)due to itstoxicity.

It must be disposed of followingEPA guidelines for hazardous waste disposal.

????Reference:RCRA hazardous waste disposal regulations;USP <800> guidelines for hazardous drugs.

Lisinopril is anangiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, commonly used forhypertension (high blood pressure)andheart failure. A well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors is apersistent dry, hacking cough.

The cough is caused bybradykinin accumulation, which occurs due to ACE inhibition.

This coughdoes not respond to cough suppressantsand can be bothersome for patients.

If the cough is severe, thepharmacist may recommend switching to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) such as losartan, which does not cause this side effect.

B. Purchase fexofenadine for seasonal allergies❌→ No significant interaction between lisinopril and fexofenadine.

C. Mention that they have lowered their cholesterol❌→ Cholesterol levels do not affect lisinopril’s mechanism of action.

D. Report that their blood pressure has been normal lately❌→ This is expected with effective treatment and does not require pharmacist intervention unless the patient wants to discontinue the medication.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers drug interactions, side effects, and patient counseling.

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines– Lists ACE inhibitor side effects, including dry cough.

FDA Lisinopril Medication Guide– Mentions dry cough as a common adverse effect requiring pharmacist consultation.

Why is the Cough Significant?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are light- and moisture-sensitive, requiring storage in tight, light-resistant containers. Removing them from their original glass container can compromise potency. Therefore, they must always be dispensed in the original container provided by the manufacturer.

According to USP Packaging and Storage Requirements and Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician:

“Nitroglycerin SL tablets lose potency quickly when exposed to air or light. Do not repackage; dispense only in manufacturer-supplied container.”

Other options do not require original container for stability:

Methotrexate – may be repackaged

Metoprolol XL – stable in unit-dose or amber vials

Allopurinol – routine packaging allowed

Lyrica (pregabalin) is an anticonvulsant that causes drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation.

It is commonly prescribed for nerve pain, epilepsy, and fibromyalgia.

????Reference:FDA Pregabalin Drug Label, PTCE Medication Safety Guide.

Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide)belongs to thechemotherapy agentdrug classification. It is analkylating agentused to treat various types ofcancer, including:

Leukemia

Lymphoma

Breast cancer

Ovarian cancer

It works byinterfering with DNA replication in rapidly dividing cells, preventing cancer growth.

A. ACE inhibitor❌→Incorrect

ACE inhibitors (angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors)are used forhypertension and heart failure(e.g., lisinopril, enalapril).

C. Antibiotic❌→Incorrect

Antibioticstreatbacterial infections(e.g., amoxicillin, azithromycin).

D. Narcotic❌→Incorrect

Narcotics (opioids) are pain relievers(e.g., morphine, oxycodone).Cytoxan is not an opioid.

National Cancer Institute (NCI) Drug Dictionary– ClassifiesCytoxan as an alkylating chemotherapy agent.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers chemotherapy drugs and their classifications.

FDA Drug Classification Guidelines– Lists Cytoxan as acytotoxic antineoplastic (chemotherapy) drug.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Therapy duration (length of treatment)must be specified, especially forantibiotics, to ensureappropriate treatment completion and prevent antibiotic resistance.

Typical duration for amoxicillin:

7–10 days for infections

5 days for strep throat

????Reference:CDC Antibiotic Prescribing Guidelines, PTCE Prescription Requirements.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Root-Cause Analysis (RCA)is asystematic approachused toidentify the underlying causes of medication errors. RCA focuses onsystems and processes, not individual blame.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Focusing primarily on systems and processes rather than individual performance→Correct.RCA aims toprevent future errors by improving systems.❌A. Termination of employment→ Incorrect.Blaming individuals does not address system failures.❌C. Immediate reporting to the state board→ Incorrect.RCA is an internal investigation process.❌D. Criminal charges→ Incorrect.RCA focuses on improvement, not legal punishment.

????Reference:

ISMP Guidelines on Root-Cause Analysis

PTCB Medication Safety Principles

Methadone is a Schedule II controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA).

Pharmacies must useDEA Form 222orCSOS (Controlled Substance Ordering System)to orderSchedule II drugs.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Buspirone?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for anxiety).

B. Nortriptyline?❌NOT a controlled substance(an antidepressant).

D. Sildenafil (Viagra)?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for erectile dysfunction).

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Ordering Requirements (21 CFR 1305).

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

A table with text and numbers Description automatically generated with medium confidence

• Convert pounds to kilograms: 220 lb ÷ 2.2 = 100 kg.

• Calculate dose: 10 mg/kg × 100 kg = 1000 mg.

• Convert mg to g: 1000 mg = 1 g.

Therefore, the correct dose is 1 g.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• PTCB/ExCPT math sections—weight-based dosing, unit conversions (lb↔kg; mg↔g), ratio-proportion/dimensional analysis methods.

• Pharmacy calculations texts—standard conversion 1 kg = 2.2 lb, 1000 mg = 1 g.

Linaclotide (brand name: Linzess)must be dispensed in its original containerbecause:

It is highly moisture-sensitive, and removing it from its original container may lead to degradation.

The manufacturer provides a desiccantin the original packaging toprotect against humidity.

A. Furosemide❌→Does not require original container.

While furosemide tablets should be stored properly,they do not require dispensing in the original container.

C. Valsartan❌→Does not require original container.

Valsartan tablets arestable outside the original container.

D. Sertraline❌→Does not require original container.

Sertraline (Zoloft)can be repackagedwithout stability issues.

FDA Linzess Storage Guidelines– States that Linzessmust be stored in its original container with desiccant.

USP <797> & <800> Guidelines– Cover proper storage and handling of moisture-sensitive drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Includes special drug storage requirements.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Needlegauge (G)refers to thediameter of the needle’s lumen(opening).The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle diameter.

Lower gauge (e.g., 13G, 18G)→Larger needle(wider opening)

Higher gauge (e.g., 27G)→Smaller needle(narrower opening)

Common Needle Gauges and Their Uses:Gauge (G)

Needle Diameter (mm)

Common Use

13G

2.4 mm

IV drug administration (large-bore)

18G

1.2 mm

Drawing thick medications (e.g., oil-based injections)

20G

0.9 mm

General intramuscular (IM) injections

27G

0.4 mm

Subcutaneous (SC) or intradermal (ID) injections (e.g., insulin, vaccines)

Since27Gis the highest gauge listed, it corresponds to thesmallestneedle diameter, making it the correct answer.

A. 13G❌→ One of the largest gauges, used for IV fluids or blood transfusions.

B. 18G❌→ Large needle used for thick medications likedepot injections or contrast agents.

C. 20G❌→ Common forintramuscular injectionsbut larger than 27G.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers needle gauges, injection routes, and proper medication administration.

USP <797> & USP <800>– Provide sterile compounding guidelines, including appropriate needle gauge selection.

CDC Vaccine Administration Guidelines– Recommend25-30Gfor subcutaneous and intradermal injections.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Meclizine (Bonine, Dramamine Less Drowsy)is anover-the-counter (OTC) antihistamineused to treatmotion sickness and vertigo. It works by blockinghistamine (H1) receptorsin thevestibular system, reducing nausea and dizziness associated with motion sickness.

B. Olanzapine→ Incorrect; olanzapine is anatypical antipsychoticused forschizophrenia and bipolar disorder, not motion sickness.

C. Promethazine→ Incorrect; promethazine is anantihistaminethat treatsnausea and motion sickness, but it isonly available by prescription (Rx).

D. Scopolamine→ Incorrect; scopolamine is aprescription (Rx) medicationintransdermal patch formused formotion sickness prevention.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Meclizine (OTC Drug Labeling)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (OTC Medications & Indications)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Meclizine, Promethazine, and Scopolamine

Intradermal (ID) injectionsare deliveredinto the dermis (just below the epidermis).

Used forallergy testing, tuberculosis (TB) testing, and some vaccines.

Theneedle angle is 10–15 degrees, and only asmall volume (0.1 mL – 0.5 mL)is injected.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Intraperitoneal?❌Injected into theperitoneal cavity, used in animal research.

B. Intravenous (IV)?❌Injected into aveinfor rapid drug action.

C. Intramuscular (IM)?❌Injecteddeep into the muscle(e.g., vaccines, pain medications).

????Reference:CDC Injection Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide.

Naproxen (Aleve, Naprosyn) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) used for pain and inflammation.

????Reference:FDA NSAID Safety Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

TheNational Drug Code (NDC)is a10- or 11-digit numberidentifying a drug'smanufacturer, product, and package size.

????NDC Format:

XXXXX−YYYY−ZZ\text{XXXXX} - \text{YYYY} - \text{ZZ}XXXXX−YYYY−ZZ

First 5 digits= Manufacturer

Middle 4 digits= Drug, strength, and formulation

Last 2 digits=Package size

✅A. Package size→Correct.Since the first two segments(00781-1506)are identical, the difference is in thelast segment, which representspackage size.❌B. Dosage→ Incorrect. Thedosage (mg strength) remains the same.❌C. Manufacturer→ Incorrect. Themanufacturer is the same (first 5 digits are identical).❌D. Strength→ Incorrect. Thestrength is unchanged.

????Reference:

FDA NDC Directory

PTCB Inventory Management Guidelines

Insurance requires accurate “days supply” calculations.If a30-daysupply is incorrectly entered as a90-daysupply, the system will reject early refills.

????Reference:PTCE Pharmacy Billing and Reimbursement Guidelines.

Cleaning counting trays removes medication residue to prevent cross-contamination, especially with penicillin or sulfa drugs.

????Reference:ISMP Pharmacy Cleaning and Contamination Prevention Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Hospitals mayredispenseunopened, sealed, unit-dose medicationsreturned frominpatients, as long as they areproperly storedand not tampered with.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Unopened units-of-use returned from inpatients may be redispensed→Correct.Hospital pharmacies canredispense sealed unit-dose medications from inpatients.❌A. Unlabeled medications may be dispensed by the nurse at discharge→ Incorrect.Unlabeled meds cannot be dispensed due to safety concerns.❌B. Unopened units-of-use returned from outpatients may be redispensed→ Incorrect.Medications dispensed to outpatients cannot be returned to stock.❌D. Crediting of unused doses is not feasible→ Incorrect.Many hospitals have systems for crediting unused doses.

????Reference:

USP <795> and <797>: Hospital Medication Storage

PTCB Medication Safety Regulations

Pseudoephedrineis regulated under theCombat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)of 2005 due to its potential use in methamphetamine production.

It is availableover-the-counter (OTC) but behind the pharmacy counter, and its sale requires:

Proof of ID

Purchase limits (3.6 g per day, 9 g per month)

A log of purchases maintained by the pharmacy

Loratadine, acetaminophen, and naproxendo not have federal restrictions like pseudoephedrine.

????Reference:U.S.Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA)of 2005.

To determine the total number of10 mg prednisone tabletsrequired to fill the prescription, let's break it down by daily dosing:

First 2 days→ 20 mgtwice daily(b.i.d) =40 mg per day

Total for 2 days:40 mg × 2 =80 mg

Next 2 days→ 20 mgonce daily=20 mg per day

Total for 2 days:20 mg × 2 =40 mg

Next 2 days→ 10 mgonce daily=10 mg per day

Total for 2 days:10 mg × 2 =20 mg

Final 2 days→ 5 mgonce daily=5 mg per day

Total for 2 days:5 mg × 2 =10 mg

Days 1–4:(20 mg doses) → Each 20 mg dose requirestwo 10 mg tablets

Total for these 4 days:(20 mg × 4 days) = 80 mg

Tablets required:80 mg ÷ 10 mg =8 tablets

Days 5–6:(10 mg doses) → Each day requiresone 10 mg tablet

Total for these 2 days:10 mg × 2 =20 mg

Tablets required:20 mg ÷ 10 mg =2 tablets

Days 7–8:(5 mg doses) → Each day requireshalf of a 10 mg tablet

Total for these 2 days:5 mg × 2 =10 mg

Tablets required:1 full tablet (split into halves for two doses)

Step 1: Understanding the Prescription DirectionsStep 2: Determining the Number of 10 mg Tablets NeededFinal Calculation:8 tablets (Days 1-4) + 2 tablets (Days 5-6) + 1 tablet (Days 7-8) = 15 tablets

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers dosage calculations, unit conversions, and prescription interpretation.

Basic Pharmacy Math Principles– Ensuring proper medication dispensing based on prescription instructions.

Pharmacy Practice Guidelines– Proper dispensing techniques for titration therapy, such as steroid tapering.

Key References:

Pharmacy staff should always visually inspect nonsterile compounds for signs of incompatibility to ensure medication safety and efficacy. The presence ofprecipitationis a key indicator of an incompatibility issue in nonsterile compounded preparations. Precipitation occurs when a solute (drug) comes out of solution, forming visible solid particles. This can result from changes in pH, solvent composition, or chemical interactions between ingredients.

A. Photolysis:

Decomposition of a drug due to light exposure, leading to color changes or potency loss, but it is not a physical incompatibility visible as precipitation.

B. Hydrolysis:

Chemical breakdown of a drug due to water, common in ester and amide-containing drugs, but not a visual incompatibility like precipitation.

D. Oxidation-Reduction:

A chemical reaction that may change drug color or effectiveness but does not typically lead to visible precipitation in nonsterile compounds.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Compounding—Nonsterile Preparations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Quality Assurance)

Remington: The Science and Practice of Pharmacy

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)is anSNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor)used to treatmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Major depressive disorder→Correct.Desvenlafaxine is FDA-approved fordepression.❌A. Hypertension→ Incorrect.Not an antihypertensive.❌C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy→ Incorrect.Alpha-blockers like Tamsulosin treat BPH.❌D. Atrial fibrillation→ Incorrect.Beta-blockers, not SNRIs, manage atrial fibrillation.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Database: Desvenlafaxine

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Procardiais thebrand name for Nifedipine, acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used totreat hypertension and angina.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Nifedipine→Correct.Procardia = Nifedipine.❌B. Felodipine→ Incorrect.Another CCB, but not the generic for Procardia.❌C. Diltiazem→ Incorrect.A different CCB (Cardizem).❌D. Amlodipine→ Incorrect.A CCB (Norvasc), but not the generic for Procardia.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book

PTCB Exam: Generic & Brand Name Medications

Vistaril = Hydroxyzine, anantihistamine used for anxiety, nausea, and allergies.

Meclizine (Antivert) is also an antihistaminebut is used primarily formotion sickness and vertigo.

????Reference:FDA Approved Drug List, PTCE Medication Guide.

USP <800> mandates that hazardous drug exposure requires immediate decontamination.

Flushing the affected area with large amounts of water for at least 15minutes is the first step.

For eye exposure, an eye wash station must be used immediately.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Writing a report first?❌Incident reports should be done AFTER flushing the area.

B. Ice bag?❌Ice can worsen chemical burns.

C. Soapy water?❌Soap may react with chemicals, causing further irritation.

????Reference:USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling, OSHA Chemical Safety Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)is athyroid hormone replacementused to treathypothyroidism. It must be takenon an empty stomachbecause food, calcium, and ironinterfere with its absorption.

Administration Guidelines for Levothyroxine:

Take30-60 minutes before breakfastwith afull glass of water.

Avoidcalcium, iron, and antacidsfor4 hoursafter taking it.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Levothyroxine→Correct.Absorption is reduced by food, calcium, and iron.❌B. Amlodipine→ Incorrect.A calcium channel blocker that can be taken with or without food.❌C. Cyclobenzaprine→ Incorrect.A muscle relaxant with no food restrictions.❌D. Loratadine→ Incorrect.An antihistamine that does not require fasting.

????Reference:

American Thyroid Association (ATA) Levothyroxine Guidelines

FDA Drug Labeling for Synthroid

FDA recall classifications are defined by the likelihood and severity of health consequences:

• Class I: Reasonable probability that use/exposure will cause serious adverse health consequences or death (e.g., microbial contamination of a sterile product or a life-threatening wrong drug situation).

• Class II: May cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, or where the probability of serious adverse consequences is remote.

• Class III: Not likely to cause adverse health consequences; often labeling or packaging issues that do not impact safety/efficacy.

For nystatin suspension:

• Bacterial contamination (A) or fungal contamination (C) represents a clinically significant contamination with potential for harm—this aligns with Class I (or Class II in some limited contexts depending on product/route), but certainly not Class III.

• Wrong active ingredient present (B) (e.g., presence of carbamazepine) is a serious error that can cause significant harm and is typically Class I.

• Incorrect lot number on the label (D) is a labeling defect not likely to cause adverse health consequences, aligning with a Class III recall.

????Reference:PTCE Pharmacy Dilution Calculations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Ahazardous drug spill kitisrequiredunderUSP <800>, which outlinessafe handling practices for hazardous drugs (HDs). The kit must contain:

Disposable scoop and scraper(to safely collect broken glass and contaminated material).

Absorbent pads or spill control pillows(for liquid spills).

Chemotherapy-rated gloves, gown, goggles, and mask(for protection).

A hazardous waste disposal bag(to properly dispose of contaminated materials).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. A disposable scoop for glass fragments→Correct.Adisposable scoop is essentialto safely removehazardous drug spills containing broken glass.❌A. Permeable, disposable protective garments→ Incorrect. PPE for hazardous drug spills must beimpermeable(e.g., coated gowns).❌B. Sufficient supplies to absorb a spill of about 10,000 mL→ Incorrect.Most spill kits are designed for smaller spills (≤1000 mL), not massive industrial spills.❌C. Reusable absorbent sponges or toweling→ Incorrect.All absorbent materials must be disposable to prevent contamination.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020 Update)

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Management

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Methotrexate is a hazardous antineoplastic drug listed by NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health). It requires PPE when handled or cleaned up.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅C. Methotrexate → Correct. Listed as a hazardous drug requiring PPE.

❌A. Amiodarone → Incorrect. Not classified as hazardous.

❌B. Atorvastatin → Incorrect. A statin, not hazardous.

❌D. Midazolam → Incorrect. A benzodiazepine, not hazardous.

????Reference:

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020)

USP <800>: PPE Requirements for Hazardous Drugs

Needlegauge (G)refers to thediameter of the needle’s lumen(opening).The higher the gauge number, the smaller the needle diameter.

Lower gauge (e.g., 13G, 18G)→Larger needle(wider opening)

Higher gauge (e.g., 27G)→Smaller needle(narrower opening)

Common Needle Gauges and Their Uses:Gauge (G)

Needle Diameter (mm)

Common Use

13G

2.4 mm

IV drug administration (large-bore)

18G

1.2 mm

Drawing thick medications (e.g., oil-based injections)

20G

0.9 mm

General intramuscular (IM) injections

27G

0.4 mm

Subcutaneous (SC) or intradermal (ID) injections (e.g., insulin, vaccines)

Since27Gis the highest gauge listed, it corresponds to thesmallestneedle diameter, making it the correct answer.

A. 13G❌→ One of the largest gauges, used for IV fluids or blood transfusions.

B. 18G❌→ Large needle used for thick medications likedepot injections or contrast agents.

C. 20G❌→ Common forintramuscular injectionsbut larger than 27G.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers needle gauges, injection routes, and proper medication administration.

USP <797> & USP <800>– Provide sterile compounding guidelines, including appropriate needle gauge selection.

CDC Vaccine Administration Guidelines– Recommend25-30Gfor subcutaneous and intradermal injections.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)is anSNRI antidepressantoften confused withparoxetine (Paxil), another SSRI antidepressantdue tosimilar names andoverlapping indications.

????Reference:ISMP List of Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) Medications.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

MedWatchis theFDA's Safety Information and Adverse Event Reporting Program, used totrack drug and device safety concerns.Pharmacists and healthcare professionals should report:

Adverse drug reactions (ADRs).

Medical device failures or malfunctions.

Medication errors that lead to harm.

Product quality issues related to safety.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Medical device malfunctions→Correct.MedWatch monitors medical device safety, including pacemakers, insulin pumps, and inhalers.❌A. Medication reimbursement complaints→ Incorrect.Billing and insurance issues are not handled by MedWatch.❌B. Damaged medications received from a wholesaler→ Incorrect.These issues should be reported to the wholesaler or manufacturer, not MedWatch.❌C. Complaints about pharmacy staff→ Incorrect.These concerns should be reported to the state board of pharmacy.

????Reference:

FDA MedWatch Program

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Reporting

Multiple-dose vials (MDVs)containpreservativesto inhibit microbial growth. These vials are designed formultiple withdrawalsover time, increasing the risk of contamination. Preservatives, such asbenzyl alcohol or phenol, help prevent bacterial or fungal contamination after repeated needle insertions.

A. stability and compatibility→ Incorrect. Preservatives do not inhibit drug stability; they prevent microbial contamination.

B. sorption and leaching→ Incorrect. Sorption (adsorption/absorption of drugs onto container surfaces) and leaching (release of chemicals from containers) are unrelated to preservatives.

D. synergistic reactions→ Incorrect. Synergistic reactions refer to drug interactions, not contamination prevention.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Guidelines on Multiple-Dose Vials

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Under federal DEA requirements for transferring controlled substance prescriptions in Schedules III–V, the receiving pharmacist must document key original prescription details, including the date of original dispensing, the original date of issuance, the original number of refills authorized, the number of refills remaining, and pertinent information about the transferring pharmacy (name, address, DEA, and Rx number), as well as the name of the transferring pharmacist. Information such as the medication’s expiration date or the receiving pharmacy’s DEA number is not required to be newly noted by the receiving pharmacy for the transfer record. The prescriber’s DEA number is part of the original prescription, but federal transfer documentation specifically requires noting the original dispensing date rather than re-recording the prescriber’s DEA.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• DEA regulations for transfers of Schedule III–V prescriptions (21 CFR 1306.25) — required information for transferring and receiving pharmacists.

• PTCB/ExCPT prep materials: controlled substance prescription transfer documentation requirements.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

High-alert medicationsaredrugs that carry a higher risk of significant patient harmif used incorrectly.IV propranololis abeta-blocker (adrenergic antagonist)that can causesevere bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrestif administered improperly.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Adrenergic antagonist→Correct.Propranololblocks beta receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.❌B. Chemotherapeutic agent→ Incorrect.Propranolol is not a chemotherapy drug.❌C. Opioid→ Incorrect.Propranolol is not an opioid.❌D. Anticoagulant→ Incorrect.Propranolol does not affect blood clotting.

????Reference:

ISMP List of High-Alert Medications

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Risk Management

Risperdal Consta (risperidone long-acting injection) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is supplied as a powder that must be reconstituted with a diluent before administration as an intramuscular (IM) injection.

According to the manufacturer’s storage guidelines:

Refrigeration Requirement:Risperdal Consta should be stored in a refrigerator (36°F to 46°F or 2°C to 8°C) to maintain stability.

Room Temperature Stability:If removed from refrigeration, Risperdal Consta can remain stable at room temperature (≤77°F or 25°C)for up to 14 days. After this period, the product should not be used if it has not been administered.

This stability information is critical for pharmacy technicians handling the medication, as it ensures proper storage and prevents medication degradation, which can affect efficacy and safety.

Risperdal Consta (Janssen Pharmaceuticals) Prescribing Information– Official manufacturer guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Storage and Stability– Covers best practices for proper drug storage and handling.

United States Pharmacopeia (USP) Standards– Guidelines on temperature control for pharmaceutical products.

Pharmacy Technician References:This information is essential for pharmacy technicians preparing Risperdal Consta for dispensing or administration, ensuring compliance with manufacturer and regulatory guidelines.

Cefdinir is a cephalosporin (β-lactam) antibiotic. Patients with a penicillin allergy can have cross-reactivity with cephalosporins due to similar β-lactam structures, although the risk is lower with later generations like cefdinir. Because of this known potential cross-sensitivity, it is standard practice to assess for penicillin allergy when dispensing cephalosporins. Option A is incorrect because penicillin allergy is not an absolute, specific contraindication to cefdinir in all cases; risks must be assessed. Option B is incorrect (fluoroquinolones are unrelated class). Option D is overly general and not a standard rationale.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials on antibiotic classes and allergy cross-reactivity (β-lactams: penicillins and cephalosporins).

• ISMP medication safety guidance on allergy screening and β-lactam cross-sensitivity.

• Community pharmacy counseling references on assessing penicillin allergies before dispensing cephalosporins.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Cyclophosphamideis ahazardous drugclassified byNIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health).USP Chapter 800mandates thatall surfaces exposed to hazardous drugs (HDs), including counting trays, must be decontaminated after each useto prevent cross-contamination.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Decontaminated after each use→Correct.Hazardous drug residues must be removed after each use to prevent contamination.❌A. Activated before each use→ Incorrect. There is no"activation"process for hazardous drug counting trays.❌B. Disposed of after each use→ Incorrect.Counting trays are reusable but must be properly cleaned.❌D. Sterilized before each use→ Incorrect.Sterilization applies to sterile compounding, not hazardous drug handling.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (Cyclophosphamide)

TheM-M-R II (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccinemust bereconstituted only with the manufacturer-supplied diluentto maintain its efficacy and stability.

The manufacturer-provided diluent contains stabilizing agents that preserve the live attenuated virus.

Using normal saline can alter the pH and degrade the vaccine, making it ineffective.

The vaccine must be discarded if reconstituted incorrectlyand not administered.

A. Administer the vaccine as the diluents are equivalent.❌→Incorrect

Normal saline is NOT equivalent to the manufacturer’s diluentand can compromise the vaccine’s potency.

B. Report the incident to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).❌→Incorrect

Vaccine errors should be reported to the CDC’s Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS), not the DEA(which handles controlled substances, not vaccines).

C. Contact the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for guidance.❌→Incorrect

The EPA regulates hazardous waste, not vaccine errors.The CDC or vaccine manufacturer should be contacted for guidance.

CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States thatvaccines must be reconstituted only with manufacturer-supplied diluents.

FDA Guidelines for M-M-R II Vaccine– Confirms that improper reconstitutionrenders the vaccine ineffective.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers proper vaccine handling and error prevention.

Why Is Normal Saline Not an Acceptable Diluent?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Nasonexis anasal corticosteroidused to treatallergic rhinitis. Thegeneric name is mometasone furoate.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Mometasone furoate→Correct.Theactive ingredient in Nasonex.❌B. Loteprednol etabonate→ Incorrect.A corticosteroid, but used for eye inflammation.❌C. Desloratadine→ Incorrect.An antihistamine, not a steroid.❌D. Fluticasone→ Incorrect.Similar corticosteroid, but the generic for Flonase, not Nasonex.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book (Nasonex and Generics)

PTCB Exam: Generic & Brand Name Medications

Look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug name pairs (e.g., hydralazine vs hydroxyzine) are a well-recognized cause of wrong-drug errors. ISMP and technician training resources emphasize verifying the National Drug Code (NDC) and/or barcode scanning against the prescription to ensure the correct drug, strength, and manufacturer are selected before counting. The NDC uniquely identifies the labeler, product, and package; thus, verifying the NDC is a stronger safety check than relying on tablet color (which can vary) or lot number (used for traceability/recalls, not drug selection). Strength verification is important, but first you must ensure the correct drug; NDC verification accomplishes both drug and strength confirmation.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• ISMP community pharmacy medication safety guidance on LASA verification and barcode/NDC checks.

• PTCB/ExCPT Medication Safety sections: LASA risk-reduction strategies; NDC use in product selection.

• FDA/Drug listing education: NDC identifies labeler–product–package; used to ensure correct product selection.

Cleaning counting trays removes medication residue to prevent cross-contamination, especially with penicillin or sulfa drugs.

????Reference:ISMP Pharmacy Cleaning and Contamination Prevention Guidelines.

TheM-M-R II (Measles, Mumps, and Rubella) vaccinemust bereconstituted only with the manufacturer-supplied diluentto maintain its efficacy and stability.

The manufacturer-provided diluent contains stabilizing agents that preserve the live attenuated virus.

Using normal saline can alter the pH and degrade the vaccine, making it ineffective.

The vaccine must be discarded if reconstituted incorrectlyand not administered.

A. Administer the vaccine as the diluents are equivalent.❌→Incorrect

Normal saline is NOT equivalent to the manufacturer’s diluentand can compromise the vaccine’s potency.

B. Report the incident to the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA).❌→Incorrect

Vaccine errors should be reported to the CDC’s Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS), not the DEA(which handles controlled substances, not vaccines).

C. Contact the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) for guidance.❌→Incorrect

The EPA regulates hazardous waste, not vaccine errors.The CDC or vaccine manufacturer should be contacted for guidance.

CDC Vaccine Storage and Handling Guidelines– States thatvaccines must be reconstituted only with manufacturer-supplied diluents.

FDA Guidelines for M-M-R II Vaccine– Confirms that improper reconstitutionrenders the vaccine ineffective.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers proper vaccine handling and error prevention.

Why Is Normal Saline Not an Acceptable Diluent?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4 enzymes, increasingbudesonide levels inthe blood, leading tohigher risk of side effects (immune suppression, adrenal insufficiency).

Budesonide is a corticosteroid used for Crohn’s disease and asthma.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Dairy products?❌No significant interaction.

C. Leafy greens?❌Affectswarfarin (not budesonide).

D. Aged cheese?❌Interacts withMAO inhibitors, not budesonide.

????Reference:FDA Drug-Food Interaction Guide, PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines.

Risedronate (Actonel)is abisphosphonateused to treat osteoporosis.

Bisphosphonates can causesevere esophagitis and esophageal ulcersif not taken properly.

Patients must take the medication witha full glass of waterand remainupright for at least 30 minutesafter administration to reduce esophageal irritation.

Other medications in the options:

Ropinirole: A dopamine agonist for Parkinson’s disease; no such requirement.

Repaglinide: A meglitinide for diabetes; no such requirement.

Rifampin: An antibiotic for tuberculosis; no such requirement.

????Reference:PTCE study materials; drug administration guidelines forbisphosphonates.

According toUSP <800>andOSHA guidelines, exposure control forhazardous drugs (HDs)must begin as soon as the drugenters the facilityto ensure proper handling, storage, and administration safety. This includes:

Receiving:

Hazardous drugs must beunpacked in a designated areathat isseparate from regular medications.

They shouldnot be opened in sterile or positive-pressure areasto prevent contamination.

Storage:

HDs must be stored in anegative-pressure room with proper ventilation.

They must be placed indesignated binsto reduce exposure risks.

Handling and Compounding:

Usepersonal protective equipment (PPE)such as gloves, gowns, and masks when handling hazardous drugs.

Use abiological safety cabinet (BSC) or compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)when preparing hazardous drugs.

A. Is dispensed→ Incorrect;control measures must start earlier, before dispensing.

C. Is compounded→ Incorrect; safety measures beginbefore compounding, when the drug arrives at the pharmacy.

D. Is placed on the pharmacy shelf→ Incorrect;exposure control measuresbegin before storage, duringreceiving and handling.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling Guidelines

OSHA Hazardous Drug Safety Standards

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) Hazardous Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The FDA Orange BookprovidesTherapeutic Equivalence (TE) codesto indicate whether a generic drug isequivalentto a brand-name drug.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. The Orange Book→Correct.Liststherapeutic equivalence (TE) codesfor FDA-approved generics.❌A. Remington→ Incorrect.Pharmacy reference book, not used for TE codes.❌C. SDSs→ Incorrect.Used for chemical safety, not drug equivalence.❌D. Package insert→ Incorrect.Does not contain TE codes.

????Reference:

FDA Orange Book

PTCB Exam: Therapeutic Equivalence

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To calculate the percentage ofpsylliumin the final preparation:

Formula:

A math equations with numbers and symbols Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Sincepsylliummakes up500 gout of1000 g (1 kg)of the bulk laxative, it accounts for50%of the total formulation.

????Reference:

USP <795>Compounding Standards

PTCE ExamPharmaceutical Calculations

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Pristiq (desvenlafaxine)andVenlafaxine (Effexor)belong to the same class ofserotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They both work by inhibiting the reuptake ofserotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE), increasing their levels in the synaptic cleft to enhance neurotransmission, which is effective in treatingmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

A. Valacyclovir→ Incorrect; valacyclovir is anantiviralused to treatherpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.It inhibits viral DNA replication, not neurotransmitter reuptake.

B. Varenicline→ Incorrect; varenicline (Chantix) is apartial nicotinic receptor agonistused forsmoking cessation, not an SNRI.

D. Verapamil→ Incorrect; verapamil is acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used forhypertension and arrhythmias, which has no relation to antidepressant mechanisms.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Desvenlafaxine and Venlafaxine

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

Azithromycin powder for oral suspension, once reconstituted, is labeled to be used within 10 days. By contrast:

• Methylphenidate (e.g., Quillivant XR) has a much longer beyond-use period (months) after pharmacy reconstitution per labeling.

• Famotidine oral suspension (commercial) commonly has a longer in-use timeframe (e.g., around 30 days) after reconstitution.

• Vancomycin oral solutions (e.g., commercially available products like Firvanq or extemporaneously prepared) are typically stable longer than 10 days (often around 14 days refrigerated, per labeling/product guidance).

Therefore, among the options, Azithromycin is the oral suspension with a maximum 10-day stability after reconstitution.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• Manufacturer-labeled stability periods for common oral suspensions used in community pharmacy (e.g., azithromycin 10-day in-use period).

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials: common antibiotic suspension beyond-use periods (amoxicillin/augmentin/azithromycin comparisons).

Root-Cause Analysis (RCA)is asystematic processused inhealthcare and pharmacy settingstoidentify the underlying factors that contributed to an error or safety event. RCA helps pharmacy staff determinewhy a problem occurredand implement corrective actions toprevent future occurrences.

Identify the problem or event.

Gather and analyze data.

Determine the root cause(s).

Develop and implement corrective actions.

Monitor for improvement and prevention of recurrence.

A. Determine which medication should be dispensed→ Incorrect; RCA is focused onerror investigation, not routine dispensing decisions.

B. Decipher prescriber handwriting during order entry→ Incorrect; this is not the purpose of RCA, though poor handwriting may be identified as a contributing factor in an error.

C. Increase pharmacy revenue and inventory turnover→ Incorrect; RCA is aboutpatient safety and error prevention, not financial performance.

Steps in Root-Cause Analysis (RCA):Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) RCA Guidelines

FDA Medication Error Prevention Strategies

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Quality Assurance & Medication Safety)

Breaking Down the SIG Code:"Sig: 1 tab PO q.i.d. p.c. & h.s."

Abbreviation

Meaning

1 tab

Take one tablet

PO

By mouth (oral route)

q.i.d.

Four times daily

p.c.

After meals (post cibum)

h.s.

At bedtime (hora somni)

"Take one tablet by mouth four times daily after meals and at bedtime."✅

(A) Take one tablet by mouth five times daily with meals and at bedtime.❌Incorrect – "q.i.d." means four times daily, not five.

(B) Take one tablet by mouth four times daily without meals and at bedtime with a snack.❌Incorrect – "p.c." meansafter meals, not without meals.

(C) Take one tablet by mouth four times daily before meals and at bedtime.❌Incorrect – "p.c." meansafter meals, not before.

(D) Take one tablet by mouth four times daily after meals and at bedtime.✅Correct – Matches the SIG interpretation.

ISMP List of Common SIG Codes and

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Prescription Interpretation & SIG Code Reading

Putting It Together:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Mycophenolateis animmunosuppressantused inorgan transplantsand isteratogenic (causes birth defects).It requiresRisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Mycophenolate→Correct.High risk ofbirth defects, requiring REMS.❌A. Miconazole→ Incorrect.An antifungal with no REMS requirement.❌C. Phentermine→ Incorrect.Used for weight loss, not teratogenic.❌D. Phenytoin→ Incorrect.Has risks but no REMS requirement.

????Reference:

FDA REMS Program for Mycophenolate

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & REMS

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Glipizide (Glucotrol)is asulfonylurea, a class oforal hypoglycemic agentsused intype 2 diabetes. It works by stimulatinginsulin releasefrom the pancreas, which can causelow blood sugar (hypoglycemia)if insulin levels become too high.

Symptoms of Hypoglycemia:

Shakiness, sweating, dizziness

Confusion, irritability, rapid heartbeat

Severe cases: Seizures, unconsciousness

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Glipizide→Correct.Causeshypoglycemiaas it increases insulin secretion.❌A. Haloperidol→ Incorrect.Antipsychotic (Haldol), not related to blood sugar regulation.❌B. Gemfibrozil→ Incorrect.Lipid-lowering agent (fibrate), does not causehypoglycemia.❌D. Hydrochlorothiazide→ Incorrect.A diuretic that may cause hyperglycemia (increased blood sugar), not hypoglycemia.

????Reference:

American Diabetes Association (ADA) Guidelines on Hypoglycemia

USP Drug Classification Database

PTCB Exam: Diabetes Medications & Side Effects

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is a urinary analgesic that turns urine orange/red, so the correct auxiliary label should warn patients about this effect.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅A. May discolor urine → Correct. Phenazopyridine causes urine discoloration.

❌B. May cause drowsiness → Incorrect. Does not cause sedation.

❌C. Chew or crush the tablets → Incorrect. Should not be crushed.

❌D. Take with food or milk → Incorrect. Not required.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Label for Phenazopyridine

AClass III recallis issued whena drug is unlikely to cause adverse health effects but has a labeling defect, packaging issue, or a minor violation of manufacturing regulations.

Example:A bottle of tablets with a slightly misprinted label.

Pharmacies must remove affected stock but are NOT required to notify patients or physicians.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Posting signs?❌Only required for certain urgent recalls.

C. Notifying physicians?❌Required forClass I and some Class II recalls, not Class III.

D. Contacting patients?❌Not needed fornon-health-threatening recalls.

????Reference:FDA Drug Recall Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Clozapine (Clozaril)is anatypical antipsychoticused to treatschizophrenia. However, it has a severe side effect calledagranulocytosis, which causesa dangerous drop in white blood cells (WBCs) and neutrophils (ANCs), increasing the risk of infections.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Clozapine→Correct.Patients must be enrolled in theClozapine REMS program, and pharmacies must verifyANC and WBC resultsbefore dispensing.❌A. Aripiprazole→ Incorrect.Aripiprazole (Abilify) does not require ANC monitoring.❌B. Fluoxetine→ Incorrect.Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI and does not require blood monitoring.❌C. Amitriptyline→ Incorrect.Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant and does not require ANC monitoring.

????Reference:

FDA Clozapine REMS Program

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Risk Evaluation

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Glipizide (Glucotrol)is asulfonylurea, a class oforal hypoglycemic agentsused intype 2 diabetes. It works by stimulatinginsulin releasefrom the pancreas, which can causelow blood sugar (hypoglycemia)if insulin levels become too high.

Symptoms of Hypoglycemia:

Shakiness, sweating, dizziness

Confusion, irritability, rapid heartbeat

Severe cases: Seizures, unconsciousness

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Glipizide→Correct.Causeshypoglycemiaas it increases insulin secretion.❌A. Haloperidol→ Incorrect.Antipsychotic (Haldol), not related to blood sugar regulation.❌B. Gemfibrozil→ Incorrect.Lipid-lowering agent (fibrate), does not causehypoglycemia.❌D. Hydrochlorothiazide→ Incorrect.A diuretic that may cause hyperglycemia (increased blood sugar), not hypoglycemia.

????Reference:

American Diabetes Association (ADA) Guidelines on Hypoglycemia

USP Drug Classification Database

PTCB Exam: Diabetes Medications & Side Effects

Beyond-use dates (BUDs) apply specifically to compounded medicationsand indicate thetime frame in which the medication remains stable and safe to use.

BUDs are different from expiration dates, which are determined by manufacturers through long-term stability testing.

USP <795> BUD Guidelines for Nonsterile Compounds:

Non-aqueous formulations(e.g., capsules, powders) →6 months

Water-containing oral formulations(e.g., suspensions) →14 days (refrigerated)

Water-containing topical formulations(e.g., creams, lotions) →30 days

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Manufactured preparation expiration dates?❌Expiration dates apply tocommercially manufactured drugs, NOT compounded ones.

C. Shelf-life of manufactured drugs?❌This is determined by themanufacturer’s expiration date.

D. Time to prepare a compound?❌BUDsdo not refer to preparation time.

????Reference:USP <795> & USP <797> Guidelines, PTCE Compounding Study Materials.

Lamivudine (Epivir)is anantiretroviral agent used to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B. Some antiretroviral drugs are classified ashigh-alert medications in certain healthcare settingsbecause:

Dosing errors can lead to treatment failure or resistance.

Severe side effects and toxicities may occur if misused.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)includes some antiretrovirals in theirhigh-alert medication list, especially in hospitals.

A. Meperidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a narcotic analgesic (opioid pain reliever).

B. Olopatadine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's an antihistamine (used for allergies).

D. Tizanidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a muscle relaxant.

ISMP High-Alert Medication List– Includes certainantiretroviral drugs as high-alert medications in some settings.

FDA Drug Labeling for Lamivudine (Epivir)– ListsHIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B as indications.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers high-alert medications and their risks.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

TheZ-Pak(azithromycin 250 mg) is a5-day antibiotic coursewith aloading doseto reach effective levels quickly.

Day 1: 2 tablets (500 mg total)

Days 2–5: 1 tablet (250 mg) daily

????Reference:FDA Azithromycin Dosing Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Materials.

Pharmacy technicians in certain states may initiate the transfer of non-controlled prescriptions under pharmacist supervision.

Controlled substance transfers MUST be done by pharmacists.

????Reference:State Board of Pharmacy Regulations.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To preventheparin dosing errors, theFDA requires labeling to display:

Strength per total volume (e.g., 10,000 units/10 mL)

Strength per mL in parentheses (e.g., 1,000 units/mL)

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Strength per mL enclosed in parentheses→Correct.❌A. Percentage weight per volume→ Incorrect.Heparin is not measured this way.❌B. Volume per total strength→ Incorrect.Reverse order of required labeling.❌D. mL per dose enclosed in parentheses→ Incorrect.Dosing varies by prescription.

????Reference:

FDA Heparin Labeling Guidelines