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Total 238 questions

Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

When entering prescription information into a computer, a pharmacy technician should include which of the following to help prevent a medication dosing error?

Options:

A.

Allergies

B.

Leading zeros

C.

Insurance information

D.

Contraindications

Question 2

According to the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), which of the following is an approved abbreviation?

Options:

A.

U for units

B.

AD for right ear

C.

AU for both ears

D.

gtt for drop

Question 3

Themost effectiveway toprevent the spread of infectionwithin a pharmacy is to:

Options:

A.

Wear powdered latex gloves.

B.

Clean counting trays after use.

C.

Put on shoe covers.

D.

Wash hands for 30 seconds.

Question 4

Which of the following should be taken on anempty stomach?

Options:

A.

Levothyroxine

B.

Amlodipine

C.

Cyclobenzaprine

D.

Loratadine

Question 5

Pristiq has the same mechanism of action as:

Options:

A.

valacyclovir

B.

varenicline

C.

venlafaxine

D.

verapamil

Question 6

What volume (in mL) of adexamethasone injection (20 mg/mL)is required to administer a30 mg dose?

Options:

A.

0.15

B.

0.67

C.

1.5

D.

6.7

Question 7

Which of the following auxiliary labels would be most appropriate to affix to a bottle ofcephalexin oral suspensionafter reconstitution?

Options:

A.

Protect from light; Discard after 7 days

B.

Protect from light; Discard after 14 days

C.

Keep refrigerated; Discard after 7 days

D.

Keep refrigerated; Discard after 14 days

Question 8

A prescription calls for one capsule of a medication to be administered PO ac. daily for 14 days. What directions should appear on the label?

Options:

A.

Take one capsule by mouth daily for 14 days.

B.

Take one capsule by mouth after a meal once daily for 14 days.

C.

Take one capsule by mouth before a meal once daily for 14 days.

D.

Take one capsule by mouth with a meal once daily for 14 days.

Question 9

A pharmacy receives a prescription for hydroxyzine 25 mg q6h for hypertension. The pharmacy technician should alert a pharmacist because:

Options:

A.

hydroxyzine requires special handling

B.

the prescription exceeds the maximum recommended daily dose.

C.

the prescription appears to contain a look-alike sound-alike error.

D.

hydroxyzine is subject to a REMS program.

Question 10

Adult and pediatric strengths of the same vaccine are often packaged similarly.As a safety precaution, theCDCrecommends that pharmacies do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Remove vaccines from the original packaging and repackage

B.

Order each strength from different manufacturers

C.

Store each strength in different locations within the storage unit

D.

Make products available only in an automated dispensing system

Question 11

A pharmacy technician discovers that a shipment received today containsexpired medications. Of the following, it would be most appropriate for the technician to first:

Options:

A.

Perform a drug utilization review

B.

Contact a reverse distributor

C.

Report the issue to MedWatch

D.

Notify the wholesaler or manufacturer

Question 12

What type ofmedication erroris described asa mistake in prescribing, dispensing, or planned medication administration that is detected and corrected before reaching the patient?

Options:

A.

Compliance error

B.

Monitoring error

C.

Omission error

D.

Potential error

Question 13

Which of the following is a controlled substance?

Options:

A.

Metoprolol

B.

Butorphanol

C.

Carvedilol

D.

Propranolol

Question 14

Which of the following medications is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program?

Options:

A.

Xarelto

B.

Suboxone

C.

Warfarin

D.

Haloperidol

Question 15

According to NIOSH, a pharmacy technician must wear personal protective equipment (PPE) to clean up a spill of:

Options:

A.

Amiodarone

B.

Atorvastatin

C.

Methotrexate

D.

Midazolam

Question 16

Multiple-dose vials contain preservatives that inhibit:

Options:

A.

stability and compatibility.

B.

sorption and leaching.

C.

microbial growth.

D.

synergistic reactions.

Question 17

How much of a drug prescribed at5 mg/kgshould be administered to a patient weighing132 lbs?

Options:

A.

33 mg

B.

300 mg

C.

660 mg

D.

3 g

Question 18

According to the FDA, a Medication Guide must be given to the patient when dispensing:

Options:

A.

zafirlukast.

B.

Zestril.

C.

zinc.

D.

Zyprexa.

Question 19

Which of the following medication combinations should be avoided due to the increased potential forliver toxicity?

Options:

A.

Motrin and Ativan

B.

Motrin and Tylenol

C.

Percocet and Ativan

D.

Percocet and Tylenol

Question 20

Asyndrome that can be produced by abrupt cessation or rapid dose reduction of a medicationis:

Options:

A.

Tolerance

B.

Addiction

C.

Withdrawal

D.

Dependency

Question 21

According to United States Pharmacopeia (USP) standards, a drug with an expiration date of 3/2025 should only be used by the patient through:

Options:

A.

February 28, 2025

B.

March 1, 2025

C.

March 31, 2025

D.

March 1, 2026

Question 22

Incompatibility of a nonsterile compound may be indicated by:

Options:

A.

a clear solution

B.

the use of a pH buffer system

C.

an unexpected change in odor

D.

suspension particles settling to the bottom of a container

Question 23

Naproxenis indicated to treat:

Options:

A.

Inflammation and pain

B.

Diabetes

C.

Heart arrhythmias

D.

High blood pressure

Question 24

A pharmacy received the following prescription:

Ibuprofen 800 mg

Sig: i tab PO t.i.d. x 7 days

Disp. #21

If the pharmacy technician printed a prescription label instructing the patient to take one tablet by mouth twice a day for seven days, an error would have been made transcribing the:

Options:

A.

dosage frequency

B.

route of administration

C.

days supply

D.

dosage form

Question 25

How muchmentholis required to compound a formula reading:

    Camphor 0.3%

    Menthol 0.25%

    Hydrocortisone 1%

    Aquaphor q.s. ad 600 g

Options:

A.

15 mg

B.

150 mg

C.

1500 mg

D.

15 g

Question 26

Two stock bottles ofAtenololhave the following NDC numbers:

00781-1506-10and00781-1506-01. What is the difference between the bottles?

Options:

A.

Package size

B.

Dosage

C.

Manufacturer

D.

Strength

Question 27

Antacids that contain calcium carbonatemay decrease the serum concentration of:

Options:

A.

Amoxicillin

B.

Bacitracin

C.

Cephalexin

D.

Doxycycline

Question 28

A package with the NDC: 76439-103-10 contains the same medication as a package with which of the following NDCs?

Options:

A.

76439-208-10

B.

76439-103-50

C.

74693-103-10

D.

74693-206-50

Question 29

What is the generic name for Lipitor?

Options:

A.

Provastatin

B.

Fluvastatin

C.

Simvastatin

D.

Atorvastatin

Question 30

Carvedilolmay be a suitable therapeutic substitution for:

Options:

A.

Albuterol

B.

Labetalol

C.

Tramadol

D.

Estradiol

Question 31

To decrease the risk of incorrectly filling a prescription for a drug that has a look-alike/sound-alike name, the pharmacy could:

Options:

A.

use both the brand name and the generic name on the prescription label.

B.

place the drug next to another look-alike/sound-alike drug on the shelf if they are alphabetical.

C.

review the first five digits of the NDC to confirm the correct product.

D.

take hazardous drug precautions.

Question 32

Cyanocobalamin is indicated to treat:

Options:

A.

pernicious anemia

B.

alcohol withdrawal

C.

hypothyroidism

D.

narrow-angle glaucoma

Question 33

Which of the following is anon-profit organizationthat focuses oneducating healthcare providers and consumerswith the goal ofpreventing medication errors?

Options:

A.

FDA

B.

ISMP

C.

DEA

D.

CDC

Question 34

Themanufacturer's packagingof an oral inhaler must include the:

Options:

A.

Average wholesale price

B.

Auxiliary labels

C.

Lot number

D.

Prescription number

Question 35

Which of the following medications is ahormonethat would be appropriate for pharmacies todispose of as hazardous waste?

Options:

A.

Naloxone

B.

Nabumetone

C.

Norethindrone

D.

Nortriptyline

Question 36

Which of the following is considered a high-alert medication in some settings because it is an antiretroviral agent?"

And provides these options:

Options:

A.

Meperidine

B.

Olopatadine

C.

Lamivudine

D.

Tizanidine

Question 37

Vistarilis a brand name for:

Options:

A.

Prochlorperazine

B.

Meclizine

C.

Ranolazine

D.

Hydroxyzine

Question 38

Which of the following medications is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program?

Options:

A.

Clotrimazole

B.

Amitriptyline

C.

Tamsulosin

D.

Isotretinoin

Question 39

Which of the following questions from a nurse must be referred to a pharmacist?

Options:

A.

"What is the generic name for the antibiotic the prescriber wrote?"

B.

"What is the schedule for my patient's IV antibiotic?"

C.

"Can I piggyback my patient’s IV antibiotic with her heparin drip?"

D.

"Does the IV antibiotic require prior authorization from my patient's insurance?"

Question 40

How many bottles of NPH insulin would a patient need for a 60-day supply, given the following directions?

Inject subcutaneously 23 units every morning and 17 units in the evening.

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

12

D.

24

Question 41

AMedication Guidemust be dispensed with:

Options:

A.

Atenolol

B.

Bupropion

C.

Diltiazem

D.

Levothyroxine

Question 42

Addyi is subject to a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program because it:

Options:

A.

can cause severe hypotension and syncope.

B.

is an emergency oral contraceptive.

C.

contains an opioid analgesic.

D.

is a monoclonal antibody.

Question 43

According to the manufacturer, Risperdal Consta remains stable at room temperature for a maximum of:

Options:

A.

12 hours

B.

7 days

C.

14 days

D.

21 days

Question 44

A patient presents the following prescription:

Clobetasol 0.05% cream

Apply small amount to affected area b.i.d. x 14 days. Avoid face, groin, and axilla.

According to the instructions, the patient should avoid applying the medication to their:

Options:

A.

underarms

B.

feet

C.

scalp

D.

chest

Question 45

Which of the following medications is available in both oral and injectable dosage forms?

Options:

A.

Ketorolac

B.

Dobutamine

C.

Benzonatate

D.

Cefazolin

Question 46

To which drug classification does Cytoxan belong?

Options:

A.

ACE inhibitor

B.

Chemotherapy agent

C.

Antibiotic

D.

Narcotic

Question 47

An error that has the potential to cause harm but is caught and corrected before it reaches the patient should be reported as a(n):

Options:

A.

Adverse drug event (ADE)

B.

Recall

C.

Near miss

D.

Root-cause analysis (RCA)

Question 48

If250 mL of a 15% solutionis diluted to1.2 L, what is the resulting percentage strength?

Options:

A.

0.72%

B.

3.1%

C.

3.6%

D.

72%

Question 49

According tofederal law, aSchedule III narcotic drug prescriptionmay be filled a maximum of how many times?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

12

Question 50

Which of the following is a common side effect of amlodipine?

Options:

A.

Dizziness

B.

Photosensitivity

C.

Agitation

D.

Insomnia

Question 51

According to theInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP), IVpropranololis considered ahigh-alert medicationinacute care settingsbecause it is a(n):

Options:

A.

Adrenergic antagonist.

B.

Chemotherapeutic agent.

C.

Opioid.

D.

Anticoagulant.

Question 52

Hypoglycemiais a common side effect of:

Options:

A.

Haloperidol

B.

Gemfibrozil

C.

Glipizide

D.

Hydrochlorothiazide

Question 53

Adispensing erroris defined as a discrepancy between a prescription and the medication that is:

Options:

A.

Requested by the patient.

B.

On the plan formulary.

C.

Supplied by the wholesaler.

D.

Received by the patient.

Question 54

Medications considered to have anarrow therapeutic index (NTI)generally exhibita(n):

Options:

A.

Shorter window of guaranteed stability.

B.

Incompatibility with therapeutic monitoring.

C.

Synergistic effect on other medications.

D.

Higher risk of causing serious toxicity.

Question 55

According to NIOSH, pharmacy staff should wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) when handling crushed or broken tablets of:

Options:

A.

megestrol and dutasteride

B.

furosemide and buspirone

C.

glyburide and acetazolamide

D.

glipizide and zolpidem

Question 56

According tofederal law, records regarding thedistribution, receipt, or destructionofcontrolled substancesmust be maintained for a minimum ofhow many years?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

5

D.

7

Question 57

According toUSP Chapter 800, a reusable counting tray used to count outcyclophosphamidecapsules must be:

Options:

A.

Activated before each use.

B.

Disposed of after each use.

C.

Decontaminated after each use.

D.

Sterilized before each use.

Question 58

Medications considered to have a narrow therapeutic index generally exhibit a(n):

Options:

A.

shorter window of guaranteed stability.

B.

incompatibility with therapeutic monitoring.

C.

synergistic effect on other medications.

D.

higher risk of causing serious toxicity.

Question 59

According to theDrug Enforcement Administration (DEA), prescriptions forcontrolled substancesmust include the:

Options:

A.

Patient’s diagnosis

B.

Date of issue

C.

Refill date

D.

Medication’s Schedule

Question 60

During final verification, a pharmacist identifies that a prescription written for ampicillin was entered as amoxicillin. The pharmacist corrects the error and the patient receives the prescribed ampicillin. This situation may be reported as a(n):

Options:

A.

near miss

B.

dispensing error

C.

adverse event

D.

unauthorized drug

Question 61

The ingredients of 1 kg of a bulk laxative are:

    Psyllium:500 g

    Dextrose:497.5 g

    Citric acid:1 g

    Sodium bicarbonate:1 g

    Flavoring:0.5 g

What is the percentage ofpsylliumin the final preparation?

Options:

A.

2.5%

B.

5%

C.

25%

D.

50%

Question 62

Which of the following medications would require the auxiliary label"Do not lie down for 30 minutes after taking"?

Options:

A.

Risedronate

B.

Ropinirole

C.

Repaglinide

D.

Rifampin

Question 63

A patient who received90 tabletsone month ago contacts the pharmacy to request a refill. The insurance rejects the claim, saying that the refill is56 days too soon.The claim rejection is likely the result of submitting an incorrect:

Options:

A.

Days supply

B.

NDC number

C.

Quantity

D.

Indication

Question 64

A pharmacy computer system is likely to display atherapeutic duplication alertif a prescription forBriviactis processed for a patient already taking:

Options:

A.

Ancef

B.

Ambien

C.

Vimpat

D.

Vyvanse

Question 65

According to theDEA, medications in all fivecontrolled substance schedules:

Options:

A.

Have the potential for abuse.

B.

Contain products with hydrocodone.

C.

Have indications approved by the FDA.

D.

Must be verified with the insurance.

Question 66

Colchicineis indicated for the treatment of:

Options:

A.

Hyperlipidemia.

B.

Gout flares.

C.

Hypothyroidism.

D.

Peripheral neuropathy.

Question 67

Which of the following is anantipsychotic?

Options:

A.

Aripiprazole

B.

Rifampin

C.

Ketoconazole

D.

Zolpidem

Question 68

According to theInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP),the abbreviation"HCTZ"forhydrochlorothiazidemay be misinterpreted as:

Options:

A.

Hydrocodone

B.

Hydrocortisone

C.

Hydromorphone

D.

Hydroxyzine

Question 69

Whichvitaminshould be takenbefore and during pregnancyto help avoidneural tube defects?

Options:

A.

Pyridoxine

B.

Ascorbic acid

C.

Thiamine

D.

Folic acid

Question 70

A pediatric patient weighing 17 kg requires gentamicin at 2.5 mg/kg. What volume, in mL, of solution containing 20 mg/mL should be administered?

Options:

A.

0.48

B.

1.5

C.

30

D.

4.8

Question 71

Muscle aches and cramps may be a side effect of:

Options:

A.

Requip

B.

Restasis

C.

Restoril

D.

Repatha

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Total 238 questions