Salesforce Development-Lifecycle-and-Deployment-Architect Dumps

The only condition that would make continuous integration unsuitable for UC is if their Salesforce instance has only standard functionality, as this would mean that there is no need for code deployment or version control. Option A is not a valid reason, as test scripts can be generated and executed as part of the continuous integration process. Option B is not a valid reason, as a full sandbox is not a requirement for continuous integration, and other types of sandboxes can be used instead. Option D is not a valid reason, as there are free or low-cost software tools available for continuous integration, such as Jenkins, Git, and Ant

The best practice for moving classes between packages is to set them as deprecated in the source package and recreate them in the target package. This way, the existing subscribers of the source package will not be affected by the change, and the new subscribers of the target package will get the updated classes. Moving the classes directly or changing their names can cause compilation errors and dependency issues.

To delete metadata with a deploy() call, two things are needed: a package.xml file and a destructiveChanges.xml file. The package.xml file specifies the API version and the components to be deployed, while the destructiveChanges.xml file specifies the components to be deleted. The API version does not have to be the current one, as long as it is compatible with the components. The purgeOnDelete option is not required, as it only determines whether the deleted components are stored in the recycle bin or not.

The three benefits of using a partner development org over an individual development org in this scenario are:

• Partner development org has a greater number of licenses available for the team. This means that the developers can test their app with different user profiles and permissions, and also invite beta testers to provide feedback2.
• Partner development org offers higher API limit. This means that the developers can use more API calls to integrate their app with external systems or services, and also leverage the Salesforce APIs to automate their development and deployment processes2.
• Partner development org offers more storage. This means that the developers can store more data and files in their org, and also use more features and components that require storage, such as Big Objects, Platform Events, or Lightning Web Components2.

The other options are not benefits of using a partner development org over an individual development org in this scenario, because:

• Only partner development org supports managed beta testing. This is not true, as both partner development org and individual development org can create and distribute managed beta packages3.
• Partner development org never expires. This is also not true, as partner development orgs have a 12-month expiration period, which can be extended by request

 B and D are the decisions that should be made by an Architecture Review Board (ARB), as they involve choosing the best methodology and authentication mechanism for the project, which have significant impacts on the project scope, quality, and security. A is not a decision that should be made by an ARB, as it is a low-level design decision that can be made by the developers or technical leads. C is not a decision that should be made by an ARB, as it is a testing decision that can be made by the testers or quality assurance leads.

QUESTIONNO: 87

What is the process used to initiate a connection for change sets?

A. Modify the source org to allow an outbound connection to the target org

B. Modify the target org to accept an outbound connection from the source org

C. Modify the target org to accept an inbound connection from the source org

D. Modify the source org to allow an inbound connection to the target org

Answer: A

A is the correct answer, as the process to initiate a connection for change sets is to modify the source org to allow an outbound connection to the target org. B and C are incorrect, as the target org does not need to accept any connection from the source org, but only to deploy the inbound change sets that are sent from the source org. D is incorrect, as the source org does not need to allow any inbound connection to the target org, but only to create and upload the outbound change sets to the target org. You can learn more about this process in the Change Sets Basics module on Trailhead.

An agile team is one that improves and evolves its processes and frequently delivers value to the end users. This is the main characteristic of an agile team, as opposed to a traditional team that follows a fixed plan and delivers on predefined dates. Agile teams use various frameworks, such as Scrum, Kanban, and Extreme Programming, but these are not essential to be agile. Agile teams also have shorter iterations, such as biweekly sprints, but these are not the only way to ensure on-time delivery.

 Creating design standards to require help text on all custom fields and custom objects is an option that an Architect should recommend, as it helps to provide context and guidance for the administrators and users on how the fields and objects are used and what they mean. Creating design standards to consistently use the description field on custom fields is also an option that an Architect should recommend, as it helps to document the purpose and function of the fields and make them easier to maintain and understand. Creating design standards to consistently use the description field on custom objects is not an option that an Architect should recommend, as it is not a mandatory field and may not provide enough information for the administrators. Creating design standards with a document to store all custom objects and custom fields is not an option that an Architect should recommend, as it may be difficult to keep the document updated and synchronized with the actual metadata in the org. Creating design standards to require all custom fields on all custom object page layouts is not an option that an Architect should recommend, as it may clutter the user interface and reduce the usability and performance of the application.

 Automated browser testing and static code quality analysis are two quality assurance techniques that can help minimize defects in software projects, and that an architect should recommend for Universal Containers to incorporate into its overall CI/CD pipeline. Automated browser testing is a technique that involves using tools or frameworks to simulate user interactions with the web application across different browsers and devices, and to verify the functionality and performance of the application. Static code quality analysis is a technique that involves using tools or frameworks to scan the code and detect any violations of the predefined coding rules and best practices, such as syntax errors, security issues, code smells, etc. Business verification testing and stress testing are also quality assurance techniques, but they are not as suitable or relevant for the CI/CD pipeline, as they are more focused on validating the business requirements and the system capacity.

The best deployment strategy for UC to use in this environment is to refresh the developer’s sandbox, develop changes, refresh the common sandbox, deploy to the common sandbox, test changes, as this will ensure that the developer’s sandbox has the latest production data and metadata, and that the common sandbox has the latest production data and metadata as well as the developer’s changes, before testing and deploying to production. Option B is not correct, as refreshing the developer’s sandbox after testing the changes will erase the changes and make them unavailable for deployment to the common sandbox. Option C is not correct, as refreshing the developer’s sandbox after developing the changes will erase the changes and make them unavailable for deployment to the common sandbox. Option D is not correct, as refreshing the common sandbox before developing the changes will make the common sandbox out of sync with the production data and metadata.

The architect should recommend using Git to create a release branch from the develop branch. All fixes must be made in the release branch. After deployment, merge release with develop. This strategy allows the team to isolate the changes that are ready for deployment from the changes that are still in progress. It also ensures that the fixes are applied to both the release and the develop branches. The other options do not follow the best practices of Git branching and merging.

The org development model is a traditional approach that uses sandboxes as the primary development environments. It relies on tools such as change sets, the Ant Migration Tool, or the Metadata API to deploy changes between orgs. One of the benefits of this model is that it allows automated deployment, meaning that the deployment process can be scripted and executed without manual intervention. This can save time and reduce errors. Another benefit of this model is that it allows automated sandbox provisioning, meaning that the creation and configuration of sandboxes can be done programmatically using the Sandbox API or the Salesforce CLI. This can help maintain consistency and alignment across different environments. Automated defect fixing and automated change tracking are not characteristics of the org development model, but rather of the package development model, which uses source code as the source of truth and supports source tracking and automated testing.

The best way to ensure that tests execute predictably is to ensure that unit tests generate their own test data, as this will avoid any dependency on the existing data or metadata in the org, which may vary across environments3. Option A is not correct, as ensuring that Record Type IDs match both Production and Sandbox orgs is not a reliable way to ensure test predictability, as Record Type IDs are not guaranteed to be the same across orgs, and may change due to refreshes or deployments4. Option B is not correct, as ensuring executed Apex test run as valid users is not a sufficient way to ensure test predictability, as valid users may have different permissions or profiles across orgs, and may not have access to the required data or metadata5. Option D is not correct, as ensuring unit tests execute with seeAllData=true is not a recommended way to ensure test predictability, as this will make the tests dependent on the existing data in the org, which may not be consistent or isolated.

Minor and Major releases should use the same Full copy sandbox for UAT, as this will ensure that the testing environment is consistent and has the same data and configuration as the production org.

Announcing the maintenance window ahead of time, defining a rollback strategy, and temporarily suspending configuration changes in production are all best practices for production deployment. These practices help to minimize the risk of errors, downtime, and conflicts during the deployment process.

To move to the package development model, the administrator must enable both the Dev Hub and the Second-Generation Managed Packages in setup. The Dev Hub is the main org where the administrator can create and manage scratch orgs and packages. The Second-Generation Managed Packages are the new format of packages that support modular development and versioning. The Unlocked Packages are a type of second-generation packages that are not tied to a namespace and can be installed and customized in any org. The Source Tracking for Scratch Orgs is a feature that allows the administrator to track the changes made in a scratch org and push or pull them to or from a source repository.

The creation and execution of Release Management processes are the responsibility of the Dev/Build Team and the Center of Excellence. The Dev/Build Team is in charge of developing, testing, and deploying the changes to the system, while the Center of Excellence is in charge of defining and managing the best practices, standards, and governance for the system. The Steering Committee is a group of senior stakeholders that provides strategic direction and oversight for the project, but does not create or execute the Release Management processes. The End Users are the people who use the system, but do not create or execute the Release Management processes.

A Center of Excellence is a mechanism that can help to increase the use of standard Salesforce functionality, by defining and managing best practices, standards, and governance across the organization. A Center of Excellence can also facilitate cross-functional collaboration, knowledge sharing, and alignment of Salesforce initiatives with business goals. A Change Control Board is a group of stakeholders that reviews and approves changes to the system, but does not necessarily promote the use of standard Salesforce functionality. A Requirements Traceability Matrix is a document that links requirements to their sources and test cases, but does not necessarily increase the use of standard Salesforce functionality. A Project Management Office is a group that oversees the execution of projects, but does not necessarily increase the use of standard Salesforce functionality.

Mock objects are needed when writing test classes to simulate the behavior of real objects or external services that are not available or accessible in the test context. Using a Mock allows the test class to bypass the dependencies of other objects, methods, state, or behaviors, and therefore, the developer has total control of their own code. This is especially useful when the code makes an HTTP callout, as the test class cannot actually call an external web service. A Mock is needed to provide a fake response for the HTTP callout. A Mock is not needed for the classes that extend the batchable interface, as the test class can use the Test.startTest and Test.stopTest methods to execute the batch jobs synchronously. A Mock is not a shortcut for bypassing long running processes, as the test class should still test the functionality and performance of the code.

The best option for UC is to refresh Stage now, and do not refresh UAT. This way, Stage will be on the preview instance and UAT will not. This will allow UC to test their application on both the current and the next Salesforce version, and ensure that they can release on the current version without any issues. Option B is incorrect because it is not necessary to check the Sandbox Preview Guide or refresh and redeploy to UAT. Option C is incorrect because it is too late to work with support to get on the preview instance after the cutoff dates. Option D is incorrect because it will result in both Stage and UAT being on the same version, which will not allow UC to test their application on the next Salesforce version.

Following an ALM process can help avoid defects from being deployed to production, by ensuring that the code is tested and validated in different environments before reaching the end users. It can also help release new features on a consistent schedule, by establishing a clear roadmap and timeline for the development and deployment phases. Moreover, it can help prevent existing working functionality from stopping, by implementing backup and rollback strategies, as well as monitoring and troubleshooting tools. Training new users after each minor and major release is not a benefit of ALM, but rather a best practice for user adoption and change management. Defining metrics for application development project success is not a benefit of ALM, but rather a part of the project management and evaluation process.

The testing of the JavaScript part of the Aura component can be tested in the Jest framework and the Apex controllers can be tested using test classes. The testing can be viewed in the lightning.force.com/c/jasminetests.app URL. The page loads and runs Jasmine test and writes pass/fail information to the screen. The Lightning test service AppExchange package is not required for testing Aura components, but for testing Lightning web components. The $T test helper object is not a valid object for testing Lightning components.

A source control tool provides the ability for distributed teams to work in isolation, as they can create branches and merge their changes later. It also provides the ability to backup code/configuration changes, as they can be stored in a remote repository and retrieved if needed.

The architect should suggest the following actions to help UC discover the failing unit tests earlier: Train the administrators to make their changes in a special “admin changes” sandbox, and then promote to production, and ensure a metadata backup is committed to version control every day and a diff published to the release team. Training the administrators to use a sandbox can help prevent direct changes to production that can break the code or the unit tests. Ensuring a metadata backup and a diff can help identify any changes that have been made to production and compare them with the source of truth.

 The daily release process is the most suitable for creating a new report to support an urgent client request, as it can deliver the functionality in a timely manner. Creating the report in a full sandbox and then deploying it to production can ensure the quality and security of the report.

 The best option for UC given the scenario is to opt for a multi-org strategy, where each org can have its own sales process, common rules, and operate in locale. A multi-org strategy can accommodate the different languages, sales processes, and legal requirements of the two business units. A multi-org strategy can also allow for more innovation and flexibility, as each org can customize and optimize its own functionality. A single-org strategy may not be able to support the different languages, sales processes, and legal requirements of the two business units. A single-org strategy may also limit the innovation and flexibility, as the org has to follow a standardized and consistent approach.

 C and D are the correct answers, as Load Test and Performance Test are the test types that should be suggested to ensure that a large inbound call center does not experience platform slowdowns under high call volume for the Lead object. A load test is a test that measures the performance and behavior of the system under a specific load, such as a large number of concurrent users or requests. A performance test is a test that measures the speed, responsiveness, and stability of the system under various conditions, such as different configurations or environments. These tests can help to identify and prevent any potential issues or bottlenecks that could affect the user experience or the system functionality. A is incorrect, as Unit Test is not a test type that should be suggested for this scenario, as it is a test that verifies the functionality and logic of a single unit of code, such as a method or a class, but not the performance or behavior of the system as a whole. B is incorrect, as Stress Test is not a test type that should be suggested for this scenario, as it is a test that measures the performance and behavior of the system under extreme or abnormal conditions, such as exceeding the capacity or resources of the system, but not the performance or behavior of the system under normal or expected conditions. You can learn more about these tests in the Testing Strategies module on Trailhead.

C is the correct answer, as creating a custom metadata type and including this in your deployment to production is the best way to manage this deployment. A custom metadata type is a metadata component that can store important configuration data, such as custom settings, and can be deployed along with other components, such as Apex classes. A is incorrect, as scripting the deployment of all functionality via the Force.com Migration Tool is not a good way to manage this deployment, as it does not address the issue of deploying the custom settings that hold the configuration data. B is incorrect, as manually deploying and populating custom settings in production using a change set is not a good way to manage this deployment, as it can introduce errors and inconsistencies, as well as require additional steps and permissions. D is incorrect, as manually deploying and populating the custom settings in production prior to the Apex class deployment is not a good way to manage this deployment, as it can create dependency and timing issues, as well as require additional steps and permissions. You can learn more about this topic in the [Custom Metadata Types] module on Trailhead.

The advice that a technical architect should provide in a Change Advisory Board meeting is troubleshooting strategies for deployment issues. This is because the Change Advisory Board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the IT environment, and the technical architect should provide guidance on how to resolve any potential problems that may arise during the deployment process1. The other options are not relevant for the Change Advisory Board meeting, as they are more related to the requirements analysis, design, or testing phases of the development lifecycle.

 This is the correct answer because it is a risk to have a fixed release date and budget, but unknown and changing requirements. This may lead to unrealistic expectations, scope creep, and poor quality of the application. The requirements should be solicited by an external community if they are the end users or stakeholders of the application. The project can use either the waterfall or agile methodology, depending on the nature and complexity of the project, but the methodology should be aligned with the requirements and the release date.

 B and D are the correct answers, as Force.com IDE and Force.com Migration Tool are the deployment tools that will support the request of creating a new custom object to track Shipping Containers and making it available globally by all Salesforce instances and further maintained and modified regionally by local administrators. Force.com IDE and Force.com Migration Tool are both tools that use the Metadata API to retrieve and deploy metadata components, such as custom objects, from one org to another. They also allow for selective deployment, meaning that only the components that are needed can be deployed, without affecting the rest of the org. A is incorrect, as Tooling API is not a deployment tool, but an API that provides access to metadata and code, as well as customizing and automating the development process. C is incorrect, as Change sets are not a deployment tool that will support the request, as they are limited to deploying components between connected orgs, and do not allow for selective deployment or regional modifications. You can learn more about these tools in the Deploy Changes with the Force.com Migration Tool and Deploy Changes with the Force.com IDE units on Trailhead.

 A and B are the best techniques to ensure a smooth and timely deployment, as they ensure that the code is consistent, version-controlled, and validated against the target environment. C is not a good technique, as it creates an unnecessary sandbox that does not reflect the production environment. D is not a good technique, as it does not allow for testing and validation before deploying to production.

This is the correct answer because a partial copy sandbox can provide a subset of production data that is refreshed every 5 days. This way, the user acceptance and functional teams can test independently in isolation, and on current production data that was modified within the last week. A developer pro sandbox has a limited data storage and cannot store enough data for testing. A developer sandbox has no data and is only suitable for development and testing of code. A full sandbox can provide a complete copy of production data, but it can only be refreshed every 29 days, which may not meet the requirement of testing on data that was modified within the last week.

The package development model relies on source tracking to automatically track the metadata changes in the package project. However, not all metadata components are supported by source tracking, and some changes may need to be tracked manually. For example, changes to profiles, permission sets, custom metadata types, and custom settings are not supported by source tracking. You can find the list of unsupported components here1. No manual tracking is required for the changes that are supported by source tracking, nor for the changes made via the Setup UI, as they are automatically captured by the package development model.

 DOM changes introduced by a release can cause automated browser tests to need updating, as they can affect the way the browser interacts with the web page elements and the selectors used to identify them. New standard fields, metadata schema changes, and new Apex methods are not likely to affect automated browser tests, as they are mostly related to the backend functionality and data model of Salesforce. See [Automated Browser Testing] for more details.

 The success criteria for data migration and the manual and automated data validation approaches are two key areas of UC’s data migration test plan that should be included. The success criteria define the expected outcomes and quality standards for the data migration process. The data validation approaches ensure that the data is accurate, complete, and consistent after the migration.

 This is the correct answer because the executive sponsor is the senior leader who provides strategic direction, funding, and support for the project. The executive sponsor is also responsible for approving any changes to the project scope, budget, or timeline that may affect the project outcomes or benefits.

These are the correct answers because they are essential components of a governance framework that helps to manage the changes and enhancements to the Salesforce application. Requirements management is the process of capturing, analyzing, prioritizing, and tracking the business needs and requests. Change control log is the tool that records and tracks the status of all change requests and approvals. Documentation repository is the central place that stores and organizes all the project artifacts and deliverables. Automated testing and continuous integration are not necessary components of a governance framework, but rather best practices for ensuring the quality and reliability of the code and configuration.

The best deployment tool for UC to use to manage their deployment process in an automated fashion is the Force.com Migration Tool, as it is a command-line tool that uses the Metadata API to deploy components from one org to another, and can be integrated with version control systems and continuous integration servers. Option A is not a good choice, as Workbench is a web-based tool that does not support automation or scripting. Option C is not a good choice, as Change Sets are a point-and-click tool that require manual steps to create and deploy. Option D is not a good choice, as Force.com IDE is a desktop tool that does not support automation or scripting.

Two software development methodologies that an architect should suggest to solve the issue of visibility are Scrum and Kanban. Scrum is based on the value of openness, which means that the team members and stakeholders share information and feedback regularly and transparently. Kanban is based on the principle of making everything visible, which means that the team uses a visual board to track the progress and status of the work items. Waterfall is not a good methodology for visibility, as it does not allow for frequent communication and feedback. DevOps is not a methodology, but a culture and practice that aims to improve collaboration and delivery across the software development lifecycle.

A workflow and a trigger are considered minor changes that do not require alignment with a Salesforce major or patch release. However, they still need proper testing, training, and change management before being deployed to production. Therefore, the architect should plan this as a minor release with training and change management.

 Executing all test classes in sandboxes can help identify and fix any errors or failures before deploying to production. Executing selected test classes in production can help reduce the deployment time and avoid running unnecessary tests.

Testing load considering 50% more call volume is a reasonable test load consideration, as it can simulate the expected future growth and ensure that the application can handle the increased demand without compromising the performance or functionality.

To reduce deployment time, UC can use the following strategies:

• Use recent deployment validations and the quick deploy feature, which can allow them to skip the validation step in production and deploy the changes faster, if they have already validated the changes in a sandbox within the last four days.
• Specify the test to run by using RunSpecifiedTests test level, which can allow them to run only the tests that are relevant to the components being deployed, instead of running all the tests in the org.

Active Process Builders are configuration items that should be covered by executable tests, as they can have complex logic and actions that affect the behavior and performance of the application. Validation Rules, Workflow Rules, and Case Assignment Rules are also configuration items, but they are simpler and less likely to cause errors or conflicts. Therefore, they can be verified by manual testing or declarative tools.

The correct way to deploy the artifact to the full sandbox is to authorize to the full sandbox org, validate with sfdx:mdapi:deploy, and on successful validation, deploy with sfdx:mdapi:deploy. This is because the artifact is a .zip file, which is in the metadata API format, and not the source format. Therefore, the sfdx:mdapi:deploy command should be used instead of the sfdx:source:deploy command. See Deploy Metadata Using Metadata API for more details.

The fastest approach to spin off a sandbox with up to 10,000 records in each object for testing the integration performance is to spin off a partial copy sandbox using a sandbox template with all the objects required for testing the integration. A partial copy sandbox can copy up to 10,000 records per object using a sandbox template that specifies the objects and fields to copy. A partial copy sandbox can also copy the metadata and the configuration settings from the production org. A developer pro sandbox, a development sandbox, or a full copy sandbox may not be able to copy enough data for testing the integration performance, as they have lower data storage limits. A developer pro sandbox and a development sandbox can only copy 1 GB of data, while a full copy sandbox can only copy 5 GB of data. A full copy sandbox may also take longer to spin-off, as it copies all the data and metadata from the production org.

 The two deployment tools that will support the request are the ANT Migration Tool and VS Code with Salesforce Extension. These tools allow the developers to deploy metadata components from one Salesforce org to another, and also to maintain and modify the code locally in their own machines. Change Sets and Developer Console are not suitable for this scenario, because they do not support deploying to multiple orgs or working offline.

These are the correct answers because they are related to the data quality and integrity of the migrated data. Case association, case ownership, and data transformation are all important aspects of data migration that should be tested. Case assignment rules and escalation rules are not directly related to data migration, but rather to the business logic and workflow of the application. Page layout assignment is also not related to data migration, but rather to the user interface and security of the application.

The problem is that UAT is on a preview release and SIT is not. A preview release is a version of Salesforce that contains the features and enhancements that will be available in the next major release. Preview releases are usually available a few weeks before the official release date, and they are assigned to a subset of instances. If UAT and SIT are on different instances, they may have different release versions, which can cause deployment issues. For example, if UAT has a preview release that contains some new metadata types that are not available in SIT, then deploying those metadata types from SIT to UAT will fail. To avoid this problem, the architect should check the Sandbox Preview Guide1 and the Release Notes2 to see if there are any changes that affect the deployment, and refresh and redeploy the sandboxes accordingly. There is a problem, and it is not expected behavior. Using the DX command line instead will not solve the problem, as it will still encounter the same version mismatch. SIT is not on a preview release and UAT is not, as that would not cause any deployment issues.

 Creating a release calendar, training and aligning all the teams is the best way to avoid conflicts and ensure smooth releases between major, minor, and Salesforce seasonal releases. A release calendar can help the teams plan ahead, coordinate their efforts, and avoid overlapping or conflicting changes. Training and aligning the teams can help them understand the release processes, the best practices, and the expectations for each release type. Gating all release decisions at the center of excellence, sharing the test plans, or creating a spreadsheet of metadata changes are not sufficient or scalable solutions for this problem.

 Two options that should be considered when making production changes in a highly regulated and audited environment are: all changes including hotfixes should be reviewed against security principles, and any production change should have explicit stakeholder approval. These options can help ensure that the changes are compliant with the regulations and have the necessary authorization and documentation. No manual steps should be carried out is not a valid option, as some changes may require manual steps, such as data migration or post-deployment verification. After deployment, the development team should test and verify functionality in production is also not a valid option, as testing and verification should be done in a lower environment before deploying to production, and the responsibility of testing and verifying functionality in production should be assigned to a different team than the development team. See Application Lifecycle and Deployment for more details.

The best solution to address the problem of user testing taking a long time due to data setup is to include automated sample data during deployment. This way, the users can have realistic and consistent data to test the functionality and performance of the system. Assigning more users to create test data, testing data creation being outside the scope of continuous integration, or training business users to create test data more efficiently are not effective solutions, as they still require manual effort and may result in inconsistent or inaccurate data.

C and D are the correct answers, as they are the best strategies to address a critical production issue occurring in the middle of development. C is correct, as using a source control system to allow separate branches for current development and production bug fixes can help to isolate the changes and avoid conflicts or overwriting. D is correct, as refreshing a sandbox for replication of the issue and testing the use-case scenarios once the code is fixed can help to ensure the quality and functionality of the solution before deploying it to production. A is incorrect, as creating separate branches for current development and production bug fixes and deploying the fix with current development when ready can delay the resolution of the production issue and introduce new risks or errors. B is incorrect, as utilizing one branch for both development and production bug fixes to avoid out-of-sync branches and simplify deployment can create confusion and complexity in the code and make it harder to test and validate. You can learn more about these strategies in the Application Lifecycle and Deployment module on Trailhead.

Designing the right sandbox strategy for the release is a best practice, as it helps to ensure the quality and consistency of the code/configuration across different environments. Regression testing is mandatory for each release, as it helps to verify that the existing functionality is not broken by the new changes. Maintaining a pre/post deployment checklist for each release is a best practice, as it helps to track the tasks and dependencies for each deployment. Release sign-off is not only required for Production, but also for other environments such as UAT and Staging. Publishing a release calendar for each phase of the release is not a best practice, as it may change due to unforeseen circumstances and create confusion.

 Creating a Center of Excellence with a charter document is a recommended practice for managing multiple projects and aligning them with the business goals and roadmap. A Center of Excellence is a cross-functional team that provides guidance, support, and governance for the Salesforce ecosystem. A charter document defines the vision, mission, roles, and responsibilities of the Center of Excellence.

 In the post refresh plan, modifying external ids to a known valid set of values for UAT is the best way to resolve the issue of objects that have external ids from production no longer pointing to valid external ids in the UAT environment. This way, the data integrity and consistency across the integrated systems can be maintained. Letting UAT point to production integrations and rolling back each transaction after it finishes is not a good practice, as it can cause data loss or corruption in production. Deleting all the data and using an automated testing tool to create new data across all the systems in UAT is not feasible, as it can take a lot of time and resources. Masking the external id so nobody can see the production value is not a solution, as it does not address the underlying problem of invalid references.

 D is the correct answer, as utilizing automated source control, test, and build systems to test and deploy to production can help to maintain quality and reduce the risk of bugs being introduced to production. Automated systems can ensure that the code is consistent, version-controlled, tested, and validated before deploying to production. A is incorrect, as requiring developers to deploy completed code and unit tests directly to production can introduce errors and conflicts, as well as bypass the testing and validation stages. B is incorrect, as deploying all functionality together can create complexity and dependency issues, as well as delay the release of completed features. C is incorrect, as using a spreadsheet to track approved changes that should be released with change sets can be prone to human errors and inconsistencies, as well as lack of automation and integration. You can learn more about this topic in the Continuous Integration and Continuous Delivery module on Trailhead.

 A and C are the correct answers, as they are the project situations that favor an agile methodology. An agile methodology is a flexible and iterative approach that can accommodate changing requirements, deliver value quickly, and enable frequent feedback and collaboration. A is correct, as a digitization project to update an existing customer-facing process and enable quick adjustments is a situation that requires an agile methodology, as it involves transforming a legacy system, adapting to customer needs, and delivering incremental improvements. C is correct, as an environment with a heavy investment in DevOps capabilities for rapid testing and deployment is a situation that requires an agile methodology, as it enables continuous integration and delivery, as well as quality assurance and automation. B is incorrect, as a project to be executed by a third party, with a fixed and formal scope, budget, and timeline is a situation that favors a waterfall methodology, as it involves clear and stable requirements, contractual obligations, and sequential phases. D is incorrect, as a project with well-defined requirements and complex interactions between front- and back-end systems is a situation that favors a waterfall methodology, as it involves detailed planning, design, and testing, as well as minimal changes and dependencies. You can learn more about this topic in the Agile Basics module on Trailhead.

 To run a subset of tests, set the Run Specified Tests test level on the DeployOptions object and pass it as an argument to the deploy() call and specify only the test classes that are required to be executed, as specifying the test method is not supported in DeployOptions. These statements are true regarding running specific tests during deployments. The Run Specified Tests test level allows the developer to choose which tests to run in production, while specifying the test method is not a valid option for the DeployOptions object.

Building an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records and using an open source SFDX plugin and version control are two best practice recommendations an architect should propose to allow UC to deploy CPQ features as part of their CI/CD process. Building an Apex framework to deploy CPQ records is a good practice, as it allows the architect to automate the deployment of the configuration SObjects that drive the business logic of CPQ, and to avoid manual steps or errors. Using an open source SFDX plugin and version control is another good practice, as it allows the architect to leverage the benefits of the Salesforce DX development model, such as source-driven development, modular packaging, and team collaboration. Using a third-party product or data loader to deploy CSV files are not best practices, as they can introduce additional costs, dependencies, or risks to the deployment process.

The product team should review the Checkmarx errors and determine if they need to fix them or not. If the errors are false positives, meaning that they do not indicate a real security issue, the product team should mark them as such and attach an explanation, then submit the security review. This will help the Salesforce security review team to understand the rationale behind the code and avoid unnecessary rejections. The product team should not leave the errors to the Salesforce security review team, as they may reject the request if they find any potential security issue. The product team should not leave a partner support case, as this is not the proper channel for resolving code issues. The product team should not fix all the errors before submitting the security review, as some of them may not be relevant or critical, and fixing them may introduce new bugs or delays.

The reason why the Apex classes are not able to access the metadata of the target org during testing is that UC needs to get the managed package certified by the Salesforce security review. This is because Apex code in a managed package can only access the metadata of the target org if the package has passed the security review and has been granted the Modify Metadata permission. See Apex Metadata API for more details.

The best option is to send a package.xml file with associated metadata in a .zip file to the Release Management team, as this will allow them to use the Metadata API to deploy the components to the production org. Option A is not feasible, as change sets cannot be downloaded from sandboxes. Option B is not sufficient, as the readMetadata call only retrieves the metadata information, not the actual components. Option C is not reliable, as the audit trail may not capture all the changes made in the sandbox.

 Generating a code review checklist to ensure consistency between reviews and different reviewers and conducting a review that combines human efforts and automatic checks by the tool to detect all flaws are two recommended practices to follow when conducting secure code reviews, as they can help improve the quality and security of the code and reduce the risk of vulnerabilities or errors. Focusing on the aggregated reviews to save time and effort, to remove the need to continuously monitor each meaningful change is not a good practice, as it can miss important details or changes that can affect the code functionality or security. Using the code review software as the tool to flag which developer has committed the errors, so the developer can improve is not a constructive way of conducting code reviews, as it can create a blame culture and discourage collaboration and learning. See Secure Coding Guidelines for more details.

The correct statement for the Staging sandbox in the diagram is that when created or refreshed, the Staging sandbox is a full replica of Production, as it is a full copy sandbox that copies all the data and metadata from the production org. Option B is not true, as the Staging sandbox is not automatically refreshed, but manually refreshed by the administrator. Option C is not true, as Salesforce major releases may occur in Staging and Production at different times, depending on the sandbox preview window. Option D is not true, as the Staging environment can be updated more frequently than once every two weeks, depending on the sandbox refresh interval.

Utilizing a dedicated developer pro sandbox to address critical bugs and release to production is the recommended release management strategy, as it allows the development team to work on the new project without being interrupted by the bug fixes, and also ensures that the bug fixes are deployed to production as soon as possible. Including fixes for critical bugs in the ongoing development sandboxes is not recommended, as it may delay the release of the bug fixes and also introduce conflicts with the new code. Keeping teams separate until the end of the project and creating a full copy sandbox to merge their work then is not recommended, as it may create a lot of merge conflicts and integration issues. Addressing critical bugs in the development sandboxes and pushing those changes to production separately is not recommended, as it may create inconsistencies between the development and production environments.