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Symantec 250-587 Dumps

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Total 108 questions

Symantec Data Loss Prevention 16.x Administration Technical Specialist Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the first step an administrator should take to improve the performance of Network Monitor when network traffic exceeds 1 Gbps?

Options:

A.

Increase system memory (RAM) for existing Network Prevent servers.

B.

Add more Network Prevent servers to the Symantec DLP environment.

C.

Filter out all network traffic that is unreadable to Network Monitor.

D.

Install network taps and connect them to existing Network Monitor servers.

Question 2

A customer needs to integrate information form DLP incidents into external Governance, Risk, and Compliance dashboards.

Which feature should a third-party component integrate with to provide dynamic reporting, create custom incident remediation processes, or support business processes?

Options:

A.

Incident Reporting and Update API

B.

Export incidents using the CSV format

C.

A web incident extraction report

D.

Incident Data Views

Question 3

How should a DLP administrator change a policy that it retains the original file when an endpoint incident has detected a “copy to USB device” operation?

Options:

A.

Add a “Limit Incident Data Retention” response rule with “Retain Original Message” option selected

B.

Modify the agent configuration and select the option “Retain Original Files”

C.

Modify the agent config.db to include the file

D.

Modify the “Endpoint_Retain_Files.int” setting in the Endpoint server configuration

Question 4

Why would an administrator set the Similarity Threshold to s=zero when testing and tuning a Vector Machine Learning (VML) profile?

Options:

A.

To capture the matches to the Positive set

B.

To capture the matches to the negative set

C.

To see the false negatives only

D.

To see the entire range of potential matches

Question 5

Refer to the exhibit.

as

What activity should occur during the baseline phase, according to the risk reduction model?

Options:

A.

Define and build the incident response team

B.

Monitor incidents and tune the policy to reduce false positives

C.

Establish business metrics and begin sending reports to business unit stakeholders

D.

Test policies to ensure that blocking actions minimize business process disruptions

Question 6

Which two (2) detection technology options run ONLY on detection servers and NOT on endpoint agents? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

B.

Vector Machine Learning (VML)

C.

Described Content Matching (DCM)

D.

Exact Data Matching (EDM)

E.

Form Recognition

Question 7

A DLP administrator is attempting to add a new Network Discover detection server from the Enforce management console. However, the only available options are Network Monitor and Endpoint servers.

What should the administrator do to make the Network Discover option available?

Options:

A.

Restart the Symantec DLP Controller service

B.

Apply a new software license file from the Enforce console

C.

Install a new Network Discover detection server

D.

Restart the Vontu Monitor Service

Question 8

A DLP administrator created a new agent configuration for an Endpoint server. However, the endpoint agents fail to receive the new configuration.

What is one possible reason that the agent fails to receive the new configuration?

Options:

A.

The default agent configuration must be disabled before the new configuration can be assigned.

B.

The Endpoint server needs to be recycled so that the new agent configuration can take effect.

C.

The new agent configuration was saved but not applied to any endpoint groups.

D.

The new agent configuration was copied and modified from the default agent configuration.

Question 9

What detection technology supports partial contents matching?

Options:

A.

Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

B.

Described Content Matching (DCM)

C.

Exact Data Matching (DCM)

D.

Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

Question 10

Why would an administrator set the Similarity Threshold to zero when testing and tuning a Vector Machine Learning (VML) profile?

Options:

A.

To capture the matches to the Negative set

B.

To capture the matches to the Positive set

C.

To see the entire range of potential matches

D.

To see the false negatives only

Question 11

What are two (2) reasons an administrator should utilize a manual configuration to determine the endpoint location? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

To specify the endpoint server

B.

To specify an IP address or range

C.

To specify network card status (ON/OFF)

D.

To specify domain names

E.

To specify Wi-Fi SSID names

Question 12

When Symantec DLP and Symantec CloudSOC are integrated, what must you configure in Enforce to tell CloudSOC which traffic or content to send to the Cloud Detection Service for analysis?

Options:

A.

DLP policies with CloudSOC-specific detection rules and response rules

B.

Cloud Detection Service traffic settings on the Servers and Detectors Overview page

C.

Traffic settings in the Agent Configuration for endpoint computers running the WSS Agent

D.

One or more Application Detection Configurations that include Gatelet and Securlet settings

Question 13

Where in the Enforce management console can a DLP administrator change the “UI.NO_SCAN.int” setting to disable the “Inspecting data” pop-up?

Options:

A.

Advanced Server Settings from the Endpoint Server Configuration

B.

Advanced Monitoring from the Agent Configuration

C.

Advanced Agent Settings from the Agent Configuration

D.

Application Monitoring from the Agent Configuration

Question 14

Which two Infrastructure-as-a-Service providers are supported for hosting Cloud Prevent for Office 365? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Any customer-hosted private cloud

B.

Amazon Web Services

C.

AT & T

D.

Verizon

E.

Rackspace

Question 15

Which two components can perform a file system scan of a workstation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Endpoint Server

B.

DLP Agent

C.

Network Prevent for Web Server

D.

Discover Server

E.

Enforce Server

Question 16

Which option correctly describes the two-tier installation type for Symantec DLP?

Options:

A.

Install the Oracle database on the host, and install the Enforce server and a detection server on a second host.

B.

Install the Oracle database on a local physical host, and install the Enforce server and detection servers on virtual hosts in the Cloud.

C.

Install the Oracle database and a detection server in the same host, and install the Enforce server on a second host.

D.

Install the Oracle database and Enforce server on the same host, and install detection servers on separate hosts.

Question 17

A DLP administrator has added several approved endpoint devices as exceptions to an Endpoint Prevent policy that blocks the transfer of sensitive data. However, data transfers to these devices are still being blocked.

What is the first action an administrator should take to enable data transfers to the approved endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Disable and re-enable the Endpoint Prevent policy to activate the changes

B.

Double-check that the correct device ID or class has been entered for each device

C.

Verify Application File Access Control (AFAC) is configured to monitor the specific application

D.

Edit the exception rule to ensure that the “Match On” option is set to “Attachments”

Question 18

Which two actions are available for a “Network Prevent: Remove HTTP/HTTPS content” response rule when the content is unable to be removed? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Allow the content to be posted

B.

Remove the content through FlexResponse

C.

Block the content before posting

D.

Encrypt the content before posting

E.

Redirect the content to an alternative destination

Question 19

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of Endpoint response rule is shown?

as

Options:

A.

Endpoint Prevent: User Notification

B.

Endpoint Prevent: Block

C.

Endpoint Prevent: Notify

D.

Endpoint Prevent: User Cancel

Question 20

A DLP administrator determines that the \SymantecDLP\Protect\Incidents folder on the Enforce server contains. BAD files dated today, while other. IDC files are flowing in and out of the \Incidents directory. Only .IDC files larger than 1MB are turning to .BAD files.

What could be causing only incident data smaller than 1MB to persist while incidents larger than 1MB change to .BAD files?

Options:

A.

A corrupted policy was deployed.

B.

The Enforce server’s hard drive is out of space.

C.

A detection server has excessive filereader restarts.

D.

Tablespace is almost full.

Question 21

How should a DLP administrator exclude a custom endpoint application named “custom_app.exe” from being monitored by Application File Access Control?

Options:

A.

Add “custom_app.exe” to the “Program Exclusion List” in the agent configuration settings.

B.

Add “custom_app.exe” to the “Application Whitelist” on all Endpoint servers.

C.

Add a “custom_app.exe” Application Monitoring Configuration and de-select all its channel options.

D.

Add “custom_app.exe” as a filename exception to the Endpoint Prevent policy.

Question 22

Which two automated response rules will be active in policies that include Exact Data Matching (EDM) detection rule? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Endpoint Discover: Quarantine File

B.

All: Send Email Notification

C.

Endpoint Prevent: User Cancel

D.

Endpoint Prevent: Block

E.

Network Protect: Quarantine File

Question 23

Which option is an accurate use case for Information Centric Encryption (ICE)?

Options:

A.

The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of encryption keys.

B.

The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage through use of encryption keys.

C.

The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied to removable storage on an endpoint use of certificates.

D.

The ICE utility encrypts files matching DLP policy being copied from network share through use of certificates

Question 24

Which tool must a DLP administrator run to certify the database prior to upgrading DLP?

Options:

A.

Enforce Migration Utility

B.

SymDiag

C.

Upgrade Readiness Tool

D.

Lob_Tablespace Reclamation Tool

Question 25

A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized by department.

What does the DLP administrator need to configure to generate this report?

Options:

A.

Custom attributes

B.

Status attributes

C.

Sender attributes

D.

User attributes

Question 26

Which two detection technology options ONLY run on a detection server? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Form Recognition

B.

Indexed Document matching (IDM)

C.

Described Content Matching (DCM)

D.

Exact data matching (EDM)

E.

vector Machine Learning (VML)

Question 27

What should an incident responder select in the Enforce management console to remediate multiple incidents simultaneously?

Options:

A.

Smart response on the Incident page

B.

Automated Response on the Incident Snapshot page

C.

Smart response on an Incident List report

D.

Automated response on an Incident List report

Question 28

Which two detection technology options run on the DLP agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Optical Character Recognition (OCR)

B.

Described Content Matching (DCM)

C.

Directory Group Matching (DGM)

D.

Form Recognition

E.

Indexed Document Matching (IDM)

Question 29

A DLP administrator is preparing to install Symantec DLP and has been asked to use an Oracle database provided by the Database Administration team.

Which SQL *Plus command should the administrator utilize to determine if the database is using a supported version of Oracle?

Options:

A.

select database version from < database name > ;

B.

select * from db$version;

C.

select * from v$version;

D.

select db$ver from < database name > ;

Question 30

What is one difference between Exact Data Matching (EDM) and Exact Match Data Identifiers (EMDI)?

Options:

A.

EDM requires an index and EMDI does not.

B.

EDM rules can be evaluated by the DLP Agent and EMDI rules cannot.

C.

EDM is its own detection rule type and EMDI is a Data Identifier validation check.

D.

EDM is better at detecting non-standard delimiters (in ID numbers) than EMDI.

Question 31

Which network Prevent action takes place when the network Incident list shows the message is “Modified”?

Options:

A.

Remove attachments from an email

B.

Obfuscate text in the body of an email

C.

Add one or more SMTP headers to an email

D.

Modify content from the body of an email

Question 32

In the context of Network Discover scanning of Exchange servers, what is the Exchange Autodiscover service?

Options:

A.

It is a service on the Discover server that you enable to retrieve files from the Exchange server for detection analysis against your DLP policies.

B.

It is a service on the Exchange server that you enable to fetch Exchange server and mailbox information from Active Directory.

C.

It is a service on the Enforce server that you enable to resolve custom attributes in Network Discover incidents for Exchange servers.

D.

It is a service on the Exchange server that you enable to send files from the Exchange server for detection analysis against your DLP policies.

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Total 108 questions