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WGU Secure-Software-Design Dumps

WGU Secure Software Design (D487, KEO1) Exam Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is a countermeasure to the web application security frame (ASF) authentication threat category?

Options:

A.

Role-based access controls restrict access

B.

Credentials and tokens are encrypted.

C.

Cookies have expiration timestamps.

D.

Sensitive information is scrubbed from error messages

Question 2

Which secure coding best practice says to ensure that buffers are allocated correctly and at the right size, that input strings are truncated to a reasonable length, and that resources, connections, objects, and file handles are destroyed once the application no longer needs them?

Options:

A.

Input Validation

B.

Memory Management

C.

Session Management

D.

Data Protection

Question 3

Which type of security analysis is performed by injecting malformed data into open interfaces of an executable or running application and is most commonly executed during the testing or deployment phases of the SDLC?

Options:

A.

Static Analysis

B.

Fuzz Testing

C.

Dynamic Analysis

D.

Manual Code Review

Question 4

Which secure coding best practice says to use well-vetted algorithms to ensure that the application uses random identifiers, that identifiers are appropriately restricted to the application, and that user processes are fully terminated on logout?

Options:

A.

Output Encoding

B.

Input Validation

C.

Access Control

D.

Session Management

Question 5

During penetration testing, an analyst was able to create hundreds of user accounts by executing a script that sent individual requests to the registration endpoint.

How should the organization remediate this vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Use a Tool Like CAPTCHA to Prevent Batched Registrations and Bots

B.

Enforce Strong Password Complexity Standards

C.

Enforce Idle Time-Outs on Session IDs

D.

Ensure All Data Is Encrypted in Transit

Question 6

The product security incident response team (PSIRT) has decided to make a formal public disclosure, including base and temporal common vulnerability scoring system (CVSS) scores and a common vulnerabilities and exposures (CVE) ID report, of an externally discovered vulnerability.

What is the most likely reason for making a public disclosure?

Options:

A.

The potential for increased public awareness of a vulnerability is probable, which could lead to higher risk for customers.

B.

The vulnerability reporter has threatened to make the finding public after being notified that their case was not credible.

C.

The response team has determined that the vulnerability is credible.

D.

Notification of a vulnerability from an external party has occurred.

Question 7

A potential threat was discovered during automated system testing when a PATCH request sent to the API caused an unhandled server exception. The API only supports GET. POST. PUT, and DELETE requests.

How should existing security controls be adjusted to prevent this in the future?

Options:

A.

Property configure acceptable API requests

B.

Enforce role-based authorization

C.

Use API keys to enforce authorization of every request

D.

Ensure audit logs are in place for sensitive transactions

Question 8

Which DREAD category is based on how easily a threat exploit can be found?

Options:

A.

Damage Potential

B.

Affected Users

C.

Discoverability

D.

Reproducibility

Question 9

Which type of security analysis is limited by the fact that a significant time investment of a highly skilled team member is required?

Options:

A.

Fuzz testing

B.

Dynamic code analysis

C.

Manual code review

D.

Static code analysis

Question 10

Which category classifies identified threats that have defenses in place and do not expose the application to exploits?

Options:

A.

Threat Profile

B.

Fully Mitigated Threat

C.

Partially Mitigated Threat

D.

Unmitigated Threats

Question 11

A software security team recently completed an internal assessment of the company's security assurance program. The team delivered a set of scorecards to leadership along with proposed changes designed to improve low-scoring governance, development, and deployment functions.

Which software security maturity model did the team use?

Options:

A.

Building Security In Maturity Model (BSIMM)

B.

Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP) Open Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM)

C.

U.S. Department of Homeland Security Software Assurance Program

D.

International Organization for Standardization ISO/IEC 27034

Question 12

The organization is moving from a waterfall to an agile software development methodology, so the software security group must adapt the security development life cycle as well. They have decided to break out security requirements and deliverables to fit better in the iterative life cycle by defining every-sprint requirements, one-time requirements, bucket requirements, and final security review requirements.

Which type of requirement slates that the team must identify primary security and privacy contacts?

Options:

A.

Final security review requirement

B.

Bucket requirement

C.

Every-sprint requirement

D.

One-time requirement

Question 13

What is the last slop of the SDLOSDL code review process?

Options:

A.

Review for security issues unique to the architecture

B.

Identify security code review objectives

C.

Perform preliminary scan

D.

Review code for security issues

Question 14

Which software-testing technique can be automated or semi-automated and provides invalid, unexpected, or random data to the inputs of a computer software program?

Options:

A.

Fuzzing

B.

Static analysis

C.

Dynamic analysis

D.

Bugtraq

Question 15

Which secure coding best practice ensures sensitive information is not disclosed in any responses to users, authorized or unauthorized?

Options:

A.

Input validation

B.

System configuration

C.

Authentication and password management

D.

Error handling and logging

Question 16

Which threat modeling step assigns a score to discovered threats?

Options:

A.

Rate Threats

B.

Analyze the Target

C.

Identify and Document Threats

D.

Set the Scope

Question 17

The product development team is preparing for the production deployment of recent feature enhancements. One morning, they noticed the amount of test data grew exponentially overnight. Most fields were filled with random characters, but some structured query language was discovered.

Which type of security development lifecycle (SDL) tool was likely being used?

Options:

A.

Dynamic analysis

B.

Fuzzing

C.

Threat model

D.

Static analysis

Question 18

What is a countermeasure to the web application security frame (ASF) data validation/parameter validation threat category?

Options:

A.

Inputs enforce type, format, length, and range checks.

B.

All administrative activities are logged and audited.

C.

Sensitive information is not logged.

D.

All exceptions are handled in a structured way.

Question 19

Which step in the change management process includes modifying the source code?

Options:

A.

Patch management

B.

Installation management

C.

Privacy implementation assessment

D.

Policy compliance analysis

Question 20

What refers to the review of software source code by developers other than the original coders to try to identify oversights, mistakes, assumptions, a lack of knowledge, or even experience?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing

B.

Manual peer review

C.

Fault injection

D.

Dynamic code review

Question 21

Which threat modeling approach concentrates on things the organization wants to protect?

Options:

A.

Asset-centric

B.

Server-centric

C.

Attacker-centric

D.

Application-centric

Question 22

The software security team is performing security testing for a new software product that is close to production release. They are concentrating on integrations between the new product and database servers, web servers, and web services.

Which security testing technique is being used?

Options:

A.

Fuzz testing

B.

Dynamic code analysis

C.

Binary fault injection

D.

Binary code analysis

Question 23

A product team, consisting of a Scrum Master, a Business Analyst, two Developers, and a Quality Assurance Tester, are on a video call with the Product Owner. The team is reviewing a list of work items to determine how many they feel can be added to their backlog and completed within the next two-week iteration.

Which Scrum ceremony is the team participating in?

Options:

A.

Daily Scrum

B.

Sprint Planning

C.

Sprint Retrospective

D.

Sprint Review

Question 24

Which mitigation technique can be used to fight against a denial of service threat?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Protect secrets

C.

Timestamps

D.

Throttling

Question 25

Company leadership has contracted with a security firm to evaluate the vulnerability of all externally lacing enterprise applications via automated and manual system interactions. Which security testing technique is being used?

Options:

A.

Properly-based-testing

B.

Source-code analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Source-code fault injection

Question 26

Due to positive publicity from the release of the new software product, leadership has decided that it is in the best interests of the company to become ISO 27001 compliant. ISO 27001 is the leading international standard focused on information security.

Which security development life cycle deliverable is being described?

Options:

A.

External vulnerability disclosure response process

B.

Third-party security review

C.

Security strategy for M&A products

D.

Post-release certifications

Question 27

Which privacy impact statement requirement type defines processes to keep personal information updated and accurate?

Options:

A.

Access requirements

B.

Collection of personal information requirements

C.

Data integrity requirements

D.

Personal information retention requirements

Question 28

The organization has contracted with an outside firm to simulate an attack on the new software product and report findings and remediation recommendations.

Which activity of the Ship SDL phase is being performed?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

Policy compliance analysis

C.

Open-source licensing review

D.

Final security review

Question 29

The final security review determined that two low-risk security issues identified in testing are still outstanding. Developers have assured the security team that both issues can be resolved quickly once they have time to fix them. The security team is confident that developers can fix the flaws in the first post-release patch.

What is the result of the final security review?

Options:

A.

Not Passed but Does Not Require Escalation

B.

Not Passed and Requires Escalation

C.

Passed with Exceptions

D.

Passed

Question 30

Which security assessment deliverable defines measures that can be periodically reported to management?

Options:

A.

Metrics Template

B.

SDL Project Outline

C.

Threat Profile

D.

Product Risk Profile

Question 31

The software security group is conducting a maturity assessment using the Open Web Application Security Project Software Assurance Maturity Model (OWASP OpenSAMM). They are currently focused on reviewing design artifacts to ensure they comply with organizational security standards.

Which OpenSAMM business function is being assessed?

Options:

A.

Construction

B.

Deployment

C.

Verification

D.

Governance

Question 32

Recent vulnerability scans discovered that the organization's production web servers were responding to ping requests with server type, version, and operating system, which hackers could leverage to plan attacks.

How should the organization remediate this vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Ensure servers are configured to return as little information as possible to network requests

B.

Ensure servers are regularly updated with the latest security patches

C.

Always uninstall or disable features that are not required

D.

Access to configuration files is limited to administrators

Question 33

Which software control test examines an application from a user perspective by providing a wide variety of input scenarios and inspecting the output?

Options:

A.

Dynamic

B.

Black box

C.

Static

D.

White box

Question 34

Developers have finished coding, and changes have been peer-reviewed. Features have been deployed to a pre-production environment so that analysts may verify that the product is working as expected.

Which phase of the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is being described?

Options:

A.

Requirements

B.

Design

C.

Testing

D.

Deployment

Question 35

Which software control test examines the internal logical structures of a program and steps through the code line by line to analyze the program for potential errors?

Options:

A.

White box testing

B.

Reasonableness testing

C.

Black box testing

D.

Dynamic testing

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Total 118 questions