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Zscaler ZTCA Dumps

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Total 75 questions

Zscaler Zero Trust Cyber Associate Questions and Answers

Question 1

What is the ultimate goal of policy enforcement?

Options:

A.

State a conditional allow or a conditional block.

B.

Issue a log that can be interpreted in a modern SOC.

C.

Designate an initiator as always trustworthy or always untrustworthy.

D.

Track network bandwidth utilization across destination application categories.

Question 2

What options are available to an enterprise whose cybersecurity solution does not provide inline content inspection?

Options:

A.

Leverage the lowest-latency path, which typically involves service chaining to send traffic to a specialized branch where a stack of firewalls is hosted on a rack.

B.

Only view the metadata of a connection, such as who is calling and where they are calling.

C.

Optimize their throughput.

D.

Leverage tremendous cost savings, since TLS/SSL connections have a per-packet premium cost associated with processing them.

Question 3

A Zero Trust network can be:

Options:

A.

Located anywhere.

B.

Built on IPv4 or IPv6.

C.

Built using VPN concentrators.

D.

Located anywhere and built on IPv4 or IPv6.

Question 4

Assessing risk is:

Options:

A.

A non-recurring process to determine how to treat requests from a specific initiator for the next 30 days.

B.

Universal control across the entire enterprise. Once assessed, risk applies to all traffic from that enterprise.

C.

An ongoing process to verify publicly known bad actor IP addresses.

D.

An assessment of all things related to the current connection, previous context, and considered on an ongoing basis for future requests, thus allowing for unique and dynamic changes in the consideration of risk.

Question 5

Identifying and proving the who value, that is, who is the initiating entity, is usually a function of a government agency.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 6

What is the trend that is increasing security risk through legacy solutions that drive network sprawl?

Options:

A.

A spread-out group of access control lists (ACLs) and firewall rules, with each firewall and VPN appliance only enforcing a subset of the total rule list.

B.

A desire to replace edge routers with SD-WAN boxes, which can leverage multiple uplinks for active-active VPN failover.

C.

An ongoing dependence on Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, without consideration for upcoming 5G architectures.

D.

More applications moving to the cloud, users being remote, and VPNs and firewalls extending IP connectivity out to several different locations.

Question 7

How is risky behavior controlled in a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

Permanent quarantining of devices in a particular VLAN.

B.

Re-categorization of an initiator, and their organization, so that subsequent access requests are limited, deceived, or stopped.

C.

Logging violations in a public database.

D.

Deploying best-in-class security appliances.

Question 8

Assessing, calculating, and delivering a risk score is: (Select 2)

Options:

A.

An assessment of inline and out-of-band network traffic.

B.

A review of known configuration, and the absence of other configuration details, of cloud-hosted services in relation to best practices, industry standards, and compliance models to ensure misconfigurations, issues, and vulnerabilities are understood and highlighted.

C.

An assessment of the content, not just the connection, of services, so that malicious functions are not downloaded and protected information is not lost.

D.

Only focused on initiator context.

Question 9

Where is it most effective to assess the content of a connection?

Options:

A.

At the policy enforcement point, as close to an initiator as possible, for example the closest edge.

B.

Within a data center deployed in a one-armed concentrator mode.

C.

On disk, after first being copied several times for a backup.

D.

Within an ISP’s fiber backbone.

Question 10

The second part of a Zero Trust architecture after verifying identity and context is:

Options:

A.

Controlling content and access.

B.

Re-checking the SAML assertion.

C.

Enforcing policy.

D.

Microsegmentation.

Question 11

In a network secured with a stack of security appliances and firewalls, what happens when people want to work from outside the network?

Options:

A.

Networks get extended using VPNs.

B.

Users simply need a reliable Wi-Fi connection.

C.

Work from outside the network is not possible.

D.

A single sign-on solution can be leveraged to accomplish this.

Question 12

Connections to destination applications are the same, regardless of location or function.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False, each application, whether internal or external, trusted or untrusted, must be considered for connectivity based on the risk profile and risk acceptance of each enterprise.

Question 13

What facilitates constant and uniform application of policy enforcement?

Options:

A.

Open and clear communication channels across Network and Security teams.

B.

The policy remains the same, conditionally, and is applied equally regardless of the location of the enforcement point.

C.

Leveraging policy enforcement capabilities available through traditional security appliances.

D.

Application access happens on-premises, typically either from within the data center or the corporate campus, where large security stacks are deployed.

Question 14

What are the three main sections that the elements of Zero Trust are grouped into?

Options:

A.

Verify Identity and Context, Control Content and Access, and Enforce Policy.

B.

VPNs, firewalls, and legacy architectures.

C.

Castle-and-moat security architectures, with the data center and inbound DMZ being key.

D.

Routers, switches, and wireless access points.

Question 15

Historically, initiators and destinations have shared which of the following?

Options:

A.

A network, because prior to Zero Trust there was no other way to connect the two.

B.

The same IP subnet range.

C.

The same punch card machine, pre-computer.

D.

Physical hard drives and storage.

Question 16

A Zero Trust policy enablement and subsequent application connection should always be permanent.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 17

What is policy enforcement with a Zero Trust solution?

Options:

A.

Access control delivered via authentication, authorization, and accounting through a protocol such as RADIUS.

B.

SCIM, leveraging an IdP.

C.

Placing virtual firewall images in every public cloud you are deployed in.

D.

The unique and definitive implementation of control, solely for that access request.

Question 18

In a Zero Trust architecture, should applications that you manage have any exposed inbound listeners?

Options:

A.

Inbound listener ports should only be accessible to those initiators who are allowed access. All other access, and visibility, must be denied.

B.

Yes, allow anyone to connect to the listening service, just like having your website on the internet for anyone to connect with.

C.

Yes, allow all inbound to any service; the firewall will protect the application.

D.

Only allow access to those who share the same network.

Question 19

Content inspection of encrypted content at scale is widely available on most network-based security platforms, such as firewalls, to deploy.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

Question 20

There are three sections that make up a successful Zero Trust architecture: (1) Verify Identity and Context, (2) Control Content and Access, and (3) ______.

Options:

A.

Integration with an SSO provider.

B.

SAML- and SCIM-based authentication for assessing posture.

C.

Enforce Policy.

D.

Data Loss Prevention.

Question 21

Verification of user and device identity is to be enabled for:

Options:

A.

Any person who wants to connect to an enterprise-controlled application, including employees, third parties, and partners.

B.

Remote employees only.

C.

Untrusted third parties only.

D.

Employees connecting from unmanaged endpoint devices only.

Question 22

As a connection goes through, the Zero Trust Exchange:

Options:

A.

Initiates the three sections of a Zero Trust architecture (Verify, Control, Enforce), which once completed, will allow the Zero Trust Exchange and the application to complete the transaction.

B.

Sits as a ruggedized, hardened appliance in the data center of the enterprise, where the enterprise must establish private links to major peering hubs.

C.

Acts as the opposite of a reverse proxy, inspecting every single packet that goes out, but strictly without the ability to provide controls such as firewalling, intrusion prevention system (IPS), or data loss prevention (DLP).

D.

Forwards packets as a passthrough cloud security firewall.

Page: 1 / 8
Total 75 questions