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Checkpoint 156-315.81 Dumps

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Total 624 questions

Check Point Certified Security Expert R81.20 Questions and Answers

Question 1

How would you enable VMAC Mode in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> ClusterXL and VRRP -> Use Virtual MAC

B.

fw ctl set int vmac_mode 1

C.

cphaconf vmac_mode set 1

D.

Cluster Object -> Edit -> Cluster Members -> Edit -> Use Virtual MAC

Question 2

The back-end database for Check Point Management uses:

Options:

A.

PostgreSQL

B.

MongoDB

C.

MySQL

D.

DBMS

Question 3

Installations and upgrades with CPUSE require that the CPUSE agent is up-to-date. Usually the latest build is downloaded automatically. How can you verify the CPUSE agent build?

Options:

A.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

B.

In WebUI Status and Actions page or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status version

C.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer status build

D.

In the Management Server or Gateway object in SmartConsole or by running the following command in CLISH: show installer agent

Question 4

Bob is asked by Alice to disable the SecureXL mechanism temporary tor further diagnostic by their Check Point partner. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

fwaccel suspend

B.

fwaccel standby

C.

fwaccel off

D.

fwaccel templates

Question 5

What Is the difference between Updatable Objects and Dynamic Objects

Options:

A.

Dynamic Objects ate maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally. In both cases there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

B.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally For Dynamic Objects

there is no need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

C.

Updatable Objects is a Threat Cloud Service. The provided Objects are updated automatically. Dynamic Objects are created and maintained locally In both cases there is no

need to install policy for the changes to take effect.

D.

Dynamic Objects are maintained automatically by the Threat Cloud. For Dynamic Objects there rs no need to install policy for the changes to take effect. Updatable Objects are created and maintained locally.

Question 6

What is the valid range for Virtual Router Identifier (VRID) value in a Virtual Routing Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) configuration?

Options:

A.

1-254

B.

1-255

C.

0-254

D.

0 – 255

Question 7

Which Queue in the Priority Queue has the maximum priority?

Options:

A.

High Priority

B.

Control

C.

Routing

D.

Heavy Data Queue

Question 8

When synchronizing clusters, which of the following statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The state of connections using resources is maintained in a Security Server, so their connections cannot be synchronized.

B.

Only cluster members running on the same OS platform can be synchronized.

C.

In the case of a failover, accounting information on the failed member may be lost despite a properly working synchronization.

D.

Client Authentication or Session Authentication connections through a cluster member will be lost if the cluster member fails.

Question 9

The Check Point history feature in R81 provides the following:

Options:

A.

View install changes and install specific version

B.

View install changes

C.

Policy Installation Date, view install changes and install specific version

D.

Policy Installation Date only

Question 10

What is the purpose of the CPCA process?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the status of processes.

B.

Sending and receiving logs.

C.

Communication between GUI clients and the SmartCenter server.

D.

Generating and modifying certificates.

Question 11

Which command is used to obtain the configuration lock in Gaia?

Options:

A.

Lock database override

B.

Unlock database override

C.

Unlock database lock

D.

Lock database user

Question 12

In the Check Point Security Management Architecture, which component(s) can store logs?

Options:

A.

SmartConsole

B.

Security Management Server and Security Gateway

C.

Security Management Server

D.

SmartConsole and Security Management Server

Question 13

What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination or client side’ is not enabled in Global Properties?

Options:

A.

A host route to route to the destination IP.

B.

Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work.

C.

Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary.

D.

Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly.

Question 14

Which command lists firewall chain?

Options:

A.

fwctl chain

B.

fw list chain

C.

fw chain module

D.

fw tab -t chainmod

Question 15

What technologies are used to deny or permit network traffic?

Options:

A.

Stateful Inspection, Firewall Blade, and URL/Application Blade

B.

Packet Filtering, Stateful Inspection, and Application Layer Firewall

C.

Firewall Blade, URL/Application Blade, and IPS

D.

Stateful Inspection, URL/Application Blade, and Threat Prevention

Question 16

Bob works for a big security outsourcing provider company and as he receives a lot of change requests per day he wants to use for scripting daily tasks the API services (torn Check Point for the GAIA API. Firstly he needs to be aware if the API services are running for the GAIA operating system. Which of the following Check Point Command is true:

Options:

A.

gala_dlish status

B.

status gaiaapi

C.

api_gala status

D.

gala_api status

Question 17

Which is the command to identify the NIC driver before considering about the employment of the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

show interface eth0 mq

B.

ethtool A eth0

C.

ifconfig -i eth0 verbose

D.

ip show Int eth0

Question 18

You have pushed policy to GW-3 and now cannot pass traffic through the gateway. As a last resort, to restore traffic flow, what command would you run to remove the latest policy from GW-3?

Options:

A.

fw unloadlocal

B.

fw unloadpolicy

C.

fwm unload local

D.

fwm unload policy

Question 19

What traffic does the Anti-bot feature block?

Options:

A.

Command and Control traffic from hosts that have been identified as infected

B.

Command and Control traffic to servers with reputation for hosting malware

C.

Network traffic that is directed to unknown or malicious servers

D.

Network traffic to hosts that have been identified as infected

Question 20

Alice & Bob are concurrently logged In via SSH on the same Check Point Security Gateway as user "admin* however Bob was first logged in and acquired the lock Alice Is not aware that Bob is also togged in to the same Security Management Server as she is but she needs to perform very urgent configuration changes - which of the following GAlAclish command is true for overriding Bobs configuration database lock:

Options:

A.

lock database override

B.

unlock override database

C.

unlock database override

D.

database unlock override

Question 21

What state is the Management HA in when both members have different policies/databases?

Options:

A.

Synchronized

B.

Never been synchronized

C.

Lagging

D.

Collision

Question 22

Secure Configuration Verification (SCV), makes sure that remote access client computers are configured in accordance with the enterprise Security Policy. Bob was asked by Alice to implement a specific SCV configuration but therefore Bob needs to edit and configure a specific Check Point file. Which location file and directory is true?

Options:

A.

$FWDIR/conf/client.scv

B.

$CPDIR/conf/local.scv

C.

$CPDIR/conf/client.svc

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.scv

Question 23

Check Point ClusterXL Active/Active deployment is used when:

Options:

A.

Only when there is Multicast solution set up.

B.

There is Load Sharing solution set up.

C.

Only when there is Unicast solution set up.

D.

There is High Availability solution set up.

Question 24

What are the three SecureXL Templates available in R81.20?

Options:

A.

PEP Templates. QoS Templates. VPN Templates

B.

Accept Templates. Drop Templates. NAT Templates

C.

Accept Templates. Drop Templates. Reject Templates

D.

Accept Templates. PDP Templates. PEP Templates

Question 25

When defining QoS global properties, which option below is not valid?

Options:

A.

Weight

B.

Authenticated timeout

C.

Schedule

D.

Rate

Question 26

How many versions, besides the destination version, are supported in a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

2

D.

4

Question 27

From SecureXL perspective, what are the three paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

Question 28

What are the Threat Prevention software components available on the Check Point Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

IPS, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

B.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, SandBlast and Macro Extraction

C.

IPS, Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, Threat Emulation and Threat Extraction

D.

IDS, Forensics, Anti-Virus, Sandboxing

Question 29

Identity Awareness lets an administrator easily configure network access and auditing based on three items. Choose the correct statement.

Options:

A.

Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

B.

Geographical location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.

C.

Network location, the identity of a user and the active directory membership.

D.

Network location, the telephone number of a user and the UID of a machine.

Question 30

In CoreXL, the Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times. Each replicated copy or instance can perform the following:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

C.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores

D.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

Question 31

There are two R77.30 Security Gateways in the Firewall Cluster. They are named FW_A and FW_B. The cluster is configured to work as HA (High availability) with default cluster configuration. FW_A is configured to have higher priority than FW_B. FW_A was active and processing the traffic in the morning. FW_B was standby. Around 1100 am, its interfaces went down and this caused a failover. FW_B became active. After an hour, FW_A’s interface issues were resolved and it became operational.

When it re-joins the cluster, will it become active automatically?

Options:

A.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

B.

No, since ‘maintain’ current active cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

C.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option on the cluster object properties is enabled by default.

D.

Yes, since ‘Switch to higher priority cluster member’ option is enabled by default on the Global Properties.

Question 32

Which of the completed statements is NOT true? The WebUI can be used to manage user accounts and:

Options:

A.

assign privileges to users.

B.

edit the home directory of the user.

C.

add users to your Gaia system.

D.

assign user rights to their home directory in the Security Management Server.

Question 33

In which VPN community is a satellite VPN gateway not allowed to create a VPN tunnel with another satellite VPN gateway?

Options:

A.

Pentagon

B.

Combined

C.

Meshed

D.

Star

Question 34

By default, what type of rules in the Access Control rulebase allow the control connections?

Options:

A.

Implicit Rules

B.

Explicitly Implied Rules

C.

Implied Rules

D.

Explicit Rules

Question 35

An administrator wishes to enable Identity Awareness on the Check Point firewalls. However, they allow users to use company issued or personal laptops. Since the administrator cannot manage the personal laptops, which of the following methods would BEST suit this company?

Options:

A.

AD Query

B.

Terminal Servers Agent

C.

Identity Agents

D.

Browser-Based Authentication

Question 36

Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?

Options:

A.

Common Name

B.

Country

C.

User container

D.

Organizational Unit

Question 37

What is the purpose of the command "ps aux | grep twd"?

Options:

A.

You can check the Process ID and the processing time of the twd process.

B.

You can convert the log file into Post Script format.

C.

You can list all Process IDs for all running services.

D.

You can check whether the IPS default setting is set to Detect or Prevent mode

Question 38

What destination versions are supported for a Multi-Version Cluster Upgrade?

Options:

A.

R77.30 and later

B.

R80.10 and Later

C.

R70 and Later

D.

R76 and later

Question 39

After upgrading the primary security management server from R80.40 to R81.10 Bob wants to use the central deployment in SmartConsole R81.10 for the first time. How many installations (e.g. Jumbo Hotfix, Hotfixes or Upgrade Packages) can run of such at the same time:

Options:

A.

Up to 5 gateways

B.

only 1 gateway

C.

Up to 10 gateways

D.

Up to 3 gateways

Question 40

The admin is connected via ssh lo the management server. He wants to run a mgmt_dl command but got a Error 404 message. To check the listening ports on the management he runs netstat with the results shown below. What can be the cause for the issue?

as

Options:

A.

Wrong Management API Access setting^for Ihe client IP To correct it go to SmartConsole / Management & Settings / Blades / Management API and press "Advanced Settings..' and choose GUI clients or ALL IP's.

B.

The API didn't run on the default port check it with api status' and add '-port 4434' to the mgmt_clt command.

C.

The management permission in the user profile is mrssing. Go to SmartConsole / Management & Settings I Permissions & Administrators / Permission Profiles. Select the profile of the user and enable 'Management API Login' under Management Permissions

D.

The API is not running, the services shown by netstat are the gaia services. To start the API run 'api start'

Question 41

Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (EL-A) services.

Options:

A.

DASSERVICE

B.

FWD

C.

CPVIEWD

D.

CPD

Question 42

The installation of a package via SmartConsole CANNOT be applied on

Options:

A.

A single Security Gateway

B.

A full Security Cluster (All Cluster Members included)

C.

Multiple Security Gateways and/or Clusters

D.

R81.20 Security Management Server

Question 43

Which command will reset the kernel debug options to default settings?

Options:

A.

fw ctl dbg -a 0

B.

fw ctl dbg resetall

C.

fw ctl debug 0

D.

fw ctl debug set 0

Question 44

SmartConsole R81 x requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent.

Options:

A.

19009, 19090 & 443

B.

19009, 19004 & 18190

C.

18190 & 443

D.

19009, 18190 & 443

Question 45

What is false regarding prerequisites for the Central Deployment usage?

Options:

A.

The administrator must have write permission on SmartUpdate

B.

Security Gateway must have the latest CPUSE Deployment Agent

C.

No need to establish SIC between gateways and the management server, since the CDT tool will take care about SIC automatically.

D.

The Security Gateway must have a policy installed

Question 46

How many interfaces can you configure to use the Multi-Queue feature?

Options:

A.

10 interfaces

B.

3 interfaces

C.

4 interfaces

D.

5 interfaces

Question 47

What are the two high availability modes?

Options:

A.

Load Sharing and Legacy

B.

Traditional and New

C.

Active and Standby

D.

New and Legacy

Question 48

Which one of the following is true about Capsule Connect?

Options:

A.

It is a full layer 3 VPN client

B.

It offers full enterprise mobility management

C.

It is supported only on iOS phones and Windows PCs

D.

It does not support all VPN authentication methods

Question 49

For Management High Availability, which of the following is NOT a valid synchronization status?

Options:

A.

Collision

B.

Down

C.

Lagging

D.

Never been synchronized

Question 50

What is the protocol and port used for Health Check and State Synchronization in ClusterXL?

Options:

A.

CCP and 18190

B.

CCP and 257

C.

CCP and 8116

D.

CPC and 8116

Question 51

In the Check Point Firewall Kernel Module, each Kernel is associated with a key, which specifies the type of traffic applicable to the chain module. For Wire Mode configuration, chain modules marked with ____________ will not apply.

Options:

A.

ffff

B.

1

C.

2

D.

3

Question 52

What component of R81 Management is used for indexing?

Options:

A.

DBSync

B.

API Server

C.

fwm

D.

SOLR

Question 53

Automation and Orchestration differ in that:

Options:

A.

Automation relates to codifying tasks, whereas orchestration relates to codifying processes.

B.

Automation involves the process of coordinating an exchange of information through web service interactions such as XML and JSON, but orchestration does not involve processes.

C.

Orchestration is concerned with executing a single task, whereas automation takes a series of tasks and puts them all together into a process workflow.

D.

Orchestration relates to codifying tasks, whereas automation relates to codifying processes.

Question 54

SmartConsole R81 requires the following ports to be open for SmartEvent R81 management:

Options:

A.

19090,22

B.

19190,22

C.

18190,80

D.

19009,443

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT a type of Check Point API available in R81.x?

Options:

A.

Identity Awareness Web Services

B.

OPSEC SDK

C.

Mobile Access

D.

Management

Question 56

What is the name of the secure application for Mail/Calendar for mobile devices?

Options:

A.

Capsule Workspace

B.

Capsule Mail

C.

Capsule VPN

D.

Secure Workspace

Question 57

Security Checkup Summary can be easily conducted within:

Options:

A.

Summary

B.

Views

C.

Reports

D.

Checkups

Question 58

What API command below creates a new host with the name “New Host” and IP address of “192.168.0.10”?

Options:

A.

new host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

B.

set host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

C.

create host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

D.

add host name “New Host” ip-address “192.168.0.10”

Question 59

The Correlation Unit performs all but the following actions:

Options:

A.

Marks logs that individually are not events, but may be part of a larger pattern to be identified later.

B.

Generates an event based on the Event policy.

C.

Assigns a severity level to the event.

D.

Takes a new log entry that is part of a group of items that together make up an event, and adds it to an ongoing event.

Question 60

SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?

Options:

A.

Smart Cloud Services

B.

Load Sharing Mode Services

C.

Threat Agent Solution

D.

Public Cloud Services

Question 61

What are the main stages of a policy installations?

Options:

A.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Commit

B.

Verification & Compilation, Transfer and Installation

C.

Verification, Commit, Installation

D.

Verification, Compilation & Transfer, Installation

Question 62

Which of the following links will take you to the SmartView web application?

Options:

A.

https:// /smartviewweb/

B.

https:// /smartview/

C.

https:// smartviewweb

D.

https:// /smartview

Question 63

What is the purpose of Priority Delta in VRRP?

Options:

A.

When a box up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

B.

When an Interface is up, Effective Priority = Priority + Priority Delta

C.

When an Interface fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

D.

When a box fail, Effective Priority = Priority – Priority Delta

Question 64

Which web services protocol is used to communicate to the Check Point R81 Identity Awareness Web API?

Options:

A.

SOAP

B.

REST

C.

XLANG

D.

XML-RPC

Question 65

Please choose correct command to add an “emailserver1” host with IP address 10.50.23.90 using GAiA management CLI?

Options:

A.

host name myHost12 ip-address 10.50.23.90

B.

mgmt: add host name ip-address 10.50.23.90

C.

add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

D.

mgmt: add host name emailserver1 ip-address 10.50.23.90

Question 66

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Options:

A.

Security policy

B.

Inbound chain

C.

Outbound chain

D.

Decryption is not supported

Question 67

When gathering information about a gateway using CPINFO, what information is included or excluded when using the “-x” parameter?

Options:

A.

Includes the registry

B.

Gets information about the specified Virtual System

C.

Does not resolve network addresses

D.

Output excludes connection table

Question 68

You are investigating issues with to gateway cluster members are not able to establish the first initial cluster synchronization. What service is used by the FWD daemon to do a Full Synchronization?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443

B.

TCP port 257

C.

TCP port 256

D.

UDP port 8116

Question 69

Which one of the following is true about Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

Always delivers a file to user

B.

Works on all MS Office, Executables, and PDF files

C.

Can take up to 3 minutes to complete

D.

Delivers file only if no threats found

Question 70

What is the benefit of “tw monitor” over “tcpdump”?

Options:

A.

“fw monitor” reveals Layer 2 information, while “tcpdump” acts at Layer 3.

B.

“fw monitor” is also available for 64-Bit operating systems.

C.

With “fw monitor”, you can see the inspection points, which cannot be seen in “tcpdump”

D.

“fw monitor” can be used from the CLI of the Management Server to collect information from multiple gateways.

Question 71

Which command gives us a perspective of the number of kernel tables?

Options:

A.

fw tab -t

B.

fw tab -s

C.

fw tab -n

D.

fw tab -k

Question 72

Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

Can only be changed for Load Sharing implementations

B.

All connections are processed and synchronized by the pivot

C.

Is configured using cpconfig

D.

Is only relevant when using SecureXL

Question 73

What is considered Hybrid Emulation Mode?

Options:

A.

Manual configuration of file types on emulation location.

B.

Load sharing of emulation between an on premise appliance and the cloud.

C.

Load sharing between OS behavior and CPU Level emulation.

D.

High availability between the local SandBlast appliance and the cloud.

Question 74

: 131

Which command is used to display status information for various components?

Options:

A.

show all systems

B.

show system messages

C.

sysmess all

D.

show sysenv all

Question 75

An administrator would like to troubleshoot why templating is not working for some traffic. How can he determine at which rule templating is disabled?

Options:

A.

He can use the fw accel stat command on the gateway.

B.

He can use the fw accel statistics command on the gateway.

C.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the Security Management Server.

D.

He can use the fwaccel stat command on the gateway

Question 76

You want to store the GAIA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Options:

A.

write mem

B.

show config –f

C.

save config –o

D.

save configuration

Question 77

Customer’s R81 management server needs to be upgraded to R81.20. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Export R81 configuration, clean install R81.20 and import the configuration

B.

CPUSE offline upgrade

C.

CPUSE online upgrade

D.

SmartUpdate upgrade

Question 78

Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Options:

A.

Capsule Docs

B.

Capsule Cloud

C.

Capsule Enterprise

D.

Capsule Workspace

Question 79

When Dynamic Dispatcher is enabled, connections are assigned dynamically with the exception of:

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

HTTPS

C.

QOS

D.

VoIP

Question 80

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identify events:

Options:

A.

Matching a log against each event definition

B.

Create an event candidate

C.

Matching a log against local exclusions

D.

Matching a log against global exclusions

Question 81

Which command shows detailed information about VPN tunnels?

Options:

A.

cat $FWDIR/conf/vpn.conf

B.

vpn tu tlist

C.

vpn tu

D.

cpview

Question 82

Which of the following will NOT affect acceleration?

Options:

A.

Connections destined to or originated from the Security gateway

B.

A 5-tuple match

C.

Multicast packets

D.

Connections that have a Handler (ICMP, FTP, H.323, etc.)

Question 83

SandBlast has several functional components that work together to ensure that attacks are prevented in real-time. Which the following is NOT part of the SandBlast component?

Options:

A.

Threat Emulation

B.

Mobile Access

C.

Mail Transfer Agent

D.

Threat Cloud

Question 84

SmartEvent has several components that function together to track security threats. What is the function of the Correlation Unit as a component of this architecture?

Options:

A.

Analyzes each log entry as it arrives at the log server according to the Event Policy. When a threat pattern is identified, an event is forwarded to the SmartEvent Server.

B.

Correlates all the identified threats with the consolidation policy.

C.

Collects syslog data from third party devices and saves them to the database.

D.

Connects with the SmartEvent Client when generating threat reports.

Question 85

Which encryption algorithm is the least secured?

Options:

A.

AES-128

B.

AES-256

C.

DES

D.

3DES

Question 86

Which Remote Access Client does not provide an Office-Mode Address?

Options:

A.

SecuRemote

B.

Endpoint Security Suite

C.

Endpoint Security VPN

D.

Check Point Mobile

Question 87

John is using Management HA. Which Smartcenter should be connected to for making changes?

Options:

A.

secondary Smartcenter

B.

active Smartenter

C.

connect virtual IP of Smartcenter HA

D.

primary Smartcenter

Question 88

NO: 180

What command can you use to have cpinfo display all installed hotfixes?

Options:

A.

cpinfo -hf

B.

cpinfo –y all

C.

cpinfo –get hf

D.

cpinfo installed_jumbo

Question 89

Which one of the following is true about Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Takes less than a second to complete

B.

Works on MS Office and PDF files only

C.

Always delivers a file

D.

Takes minutes to complete (less than 3 minutes)

Question 90

What is the command to check the status of the SmartEvent Correlation Unit?

Options:

A.

fw ctl get int cpsead_stat

B.

cpstat cpsead

C.

fw ctl stat cpsemd

D.

cp_conf get_stat cpsemd

Question 91

From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Options:

A.

Initial Path; Medium Path; Accelerated Path

B.

Layer Path; Blade Path; Rule Path

C.

Firewall Path; Accept Path; Drop Path

D.

Firewall Path; Accelerated Path; Medium Path

Question 92

What processes does CPM control?

Options:

A.

Object-Store, Database changes, CPM Process and web-services

B.

web-services, CPMI process, DLEserver, CPM process

C.

DLEServer, Object-Store, CP Process and database changes

D.

web_services, dle_server and object_Store

Question 93

When installing a dedicated R81 SmartEvent server. What is the recommended size of the root partition?

Options:

A.

Any size

B.

Less than 20GB

C.

More than 10GB and less than 20GB

D.

At least 20GB

Question 94

After making modifications to the $CVPNDIR/conf/cvpnd.C file, how would you restart the daemon?

Options:

A.

cvpnd_restart

B.

cvpnd_restart

C.

cvpnd restart

D.

cvpnrestart

Question 95

What is true of the API server on R81.20?

Options:

A.

By default the API-server is activated and does not have hardware requirements.

B.

By default the API-server is not active and should be activated from the WebUI.

C.

By default the API server is active on management and stand-alone servers with 16GB of RAM (or more).

D.

By default, the API server is active on management servers with 4 GB of RAM (or more) and on stand-alone servers with 8GB of RAM (or more).

Question 96

What kind of information would you expect to see using the sim affinity command?

Options:

A.

The VMACs used in a Security Gateway cluster

B.

The involved firewall kernel modules in inbound and outbound packet chain

C.

Overview over SecureXL templated connections

D.

Network interfaces and core distribution used for CoreXL

Question 97

SandBlast agent extends 0 day prevention to what part of the network?

Options:

A.

Web Browsers and user devices

B.

DMZ server

C.

Cloud

D.

Email servers

Question 98

What is the Implicit Clean-up Rule?

Options:

A.

A setting is defined in the Global Properties for all policies.

B.

A setting that is configured per Policy Layer.

C.

Another name for the Clean-up Rule.

D.

Automatically created when the Clean-up Rule is defined.

Question 99

What will SmartEvent automatically define as events?

Options:

A.

Firewall

B.

VPN

C.

IPS

D.

HTTPS

Question 100

You have a Geo-Protection policy blocking Australia and a number of other countries. Your network now requires a Check Point Firewall to be installed in Sydney, Australia.

What must you do to get SIC to work?

Options:

A.

Remove Geo-Protection, as the IP-to-country database is updated externally, and you have no control of this.

B.

Create a rule at the top in the Sydney firewall to allow control traffic from your network

C.

Nothing - Check Point control connections function regardless of Geo-Protection policy

D.

Create a rule at the top in your Check Point firewall to bypass the Geo-Protection

Question 101

What must you do first if “fwm sic_reset” could not be completed?

Options:

A.

Cpstop then find keyword “certificate” in objects_5_0.C and delete the section

B.

Reinitialize SIC on the security gateway then run “fw unloadlocal”

C.

Reset SIC from Smart Dashboard

D.

Change internal CA via cpconfig

Question 102

How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Options:

A.

2

B.

7

C.

6

D.

4

Question 103

Pamela is Cyber Security Engineer working for Global Instance Firm with large scale deployment of Check Point Enterprise Appliances using GAiA/R81.20. Company’s Developer Team is having random access issue to newly deployed Application Server in DMZ’s Application Server Farm Tier and blames DMZ Security Gateway as root cause. The ticket has been created and issue is at Pamela’s desk for an investigation. Pamela decides to use Check Point’s Packet Analyzer Tool-fw monitor to iron out the issue during approved Maintenance window.

What do you recommend as the best suggestion for Pamela to make sure she successfully captures entire traffic in context of Firewall and problematic traffic?

Options:

A.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security gateway and if it’s turned ON. She should turn OFF SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

B.

Pamela should check SecureXL status on DMZ Security Gateway and if it’s turned OFF. She should turn ON SecureXL before using fw monitor to avoid misleading traffic captures.

C.

Pamela should use tcpdump over fw monitor tool as tcpdump works at OS-level and captures entire traffic.

D.

Pamela should use snoop over fw monitor tool as snoop works at NIC driver level and captures entire traffic.

Question 104

After trust has been established between the Check Point components, what is TRUE about name and IP-address changes?

Options:

A.

Security Gateway IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

B.

The Security Gateway name cannot be changed in command line without re-establishing trust.

C.

The Security Management Server name cannot be changed in SmartConsole without re-establishing trust.

D.

The Security Management Server IP-address cannot be changed without re-establishing the trust.

Question 105

What is the responsibility of SOLR process on R81.20 management server?

Options:

A.

Validating all data before it’s written into the database

B.

It generates indexes of data written to the database

C.

Communication between SmartConsole applications and the Security Management Server

D.

Writing all information into the database

Question 106

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

WebUI

C.

SmartUpdate

D.

SmartProvisioning

Question 107

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

Options:

A.

Accounting

B.

Suppression

C.

Accounting/Suppression

D.

Accounting/Extended

Question 108

In what way are SSL VPN and IPSec VPN different?

Options:

A.

SSL VPN is using HTTPS in addition to IKE, whereas IPSec VPN is clientless

B.

SSL VPN adds an extra VPN header to the packet, IPSec VPN does not

C.

IPSec VPN does not support two factor authentication, SSL VPN does support this

D.

IPSec VPN uses an additional virtual adapter; SSL VPN uses the client network adapter only.

Question 109

When attempting to start a VPN tunnel, in the logs the error “no proposal chosen” is seen numerous times. No other VPN-related entries are present.

Which phase of the VPN negotiations has failed?

Options:

A.

IKE Phase 1

B.

IPSEC Phase 2

C.

IPSEC Phase 1

D.

IKE Phase 2

Question 110

Check Point security components are divided into the following components:

Options:

A.

GUI Client, Security Gateway, WebUI Interface

B.

GUI Client, Security Management, Security Gateway

C.

Security Gateway, WebUI Interface, Consolidated Security Logs

D.

Security Management, Security Gateway, Consolidate Security Logs

Question 111

You notice that your firewall is under a DDoS attack and would like to enable the Penalty Box feature, which command you use?

Options:

A.

sim erdos –e 1

B.

sim erdos – m 1

C.

sim erdos –v 1

D.

sim erdos –x 1

Question 112

What is the valid range for VRID value in VRRP configuration?

Options:

A.

1 - 254

B.

1 - 255

C.

0 - 254

D.

0 - 255

Question 113

What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_”cpview process ID”.cap”number of captures”?

Options:

A.

S

B.

W

C.

C

D.

Space bar

Question 114

Which is NOT an example of a Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Gateway API

B.

Management API

C.

OPSEC SDK

D.

Threat Prevention API

Question 115

During the Check Point Stateful Inspection Process, for packets that do not pass Firewall Kernel Inspection and are rejected by the rule definition, packets are:

Options:

A.

Dropped without sending a negative acknowledgment

B.

Dropped without logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

C.

Dropped with negative acknowledgment

D.

Dropped with logs and without sending a negative acknowledgment

Question 116

In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

SND is a feature to accelerate multiple SSL VPN connections

B.

SND is an alternative to IPSec Main Mode, using only 3 packets

C.

SND is used to distribute packets among Firewall instances

D.

SND is a feature of fw monitor to capture accelerated packets

Question 117

The SmartEvent R81 Web application for real-time event monitoring is called:

Options:

A.

SmartView Monitor

B.

SmartEventWeb

C.

There is no Web application for SmartEvent

D.

SmartView

Question 118

What is not a purpose of the deployment of Check Point API?

Options:

A.

Execute an automated script to perform common tasks

B.

Create a customized GUI Client for manipulating the objects database

C.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point solution

D.

Integrate Check Point products with 3rd party solution

Question 119

In the Firewall chain mode FFF refers to:

Options:

A.

Stateful Packets

B.

No Match

C.

All Packets

D.

Stateless Packets

Question 120

Fill in the blank. Once a certificate is revoked from the Security Gateway by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is ________ .

Options:

A.

Sent to the Internal Certificate Authority.

B.

Sent to the Security Administrator.

C.

Stored on the Security Management Server.

D.

Stored on the Certificate Revocation List.

Question 121

Fill in the blank: Identity Awareness AD-Query is using the Microsoft _______________ API to learn users from AD.

Options:

A.

WMI

B.

Eventvwr

C.

XML

D.

Services.msc

Question 122

With MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) enabled the gateways manages SMTP traffic and holds external email with potentially malicious attachments. What is required in order to enable MTA (Mail Transfer Agent) functionality in the Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Threat Cloud Intelligence

B.

Threat Prevention Software Blade Package

C.

Endpoint Total Protection

D.

Traffic on port 25

Question 123

What is the SandBlast Agent designed to do?

Options:

A.

Performs OS-level sandboxing for SandBlast Cloud architecture

B.

Ensure the Check Point SandBlast services is running on the end user’s system

C.

If malware enters an end user’s system, the SandBlast Agent prevents the malware from spreading with the network

D.

Clean up email sent with malicious attachments

Question 124

Which statement is most correct regarding about “CoreXL Dynamic Dispatcher”?

Options:

A.

The CoreXL FW instanxces assignment mechanism is based on Source MAC addresses, Destination MAC addresses

B.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on the utilization of CPU cores

C.

The CoreXL FW instances assignment mechanism is based on IP Protocol type

D.

The CoreXl FW instances assignment mechanism is based on Source IP addresses, Destination IP addresses, and the IP ‘Protocol’ type

Question 125

GAiA Software update packages can be imported and installed offline in situation where:

Options:

A.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SFTP access to Internet

B.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have access to Internet.

C.

Security Gateway with GAiA does NOT have SSH access to Internet.

D.

The desired CPUSE package is ONLY available in the Check Point CLOUD.

Question 126

You have a Gateway is running with 2 cores. You plan to add a second gateway to build a cluster and used a device with 4 cores.

How many cores can be used in a Cluster for Firewall-kernel on the new device?

Options:

A.

3

B.

2

C.

1

D.

4

Question 127

How many policy layers do Access Control policy support?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

1

D.

3

Question 128

What is the most ideal Synchronization Status for Security Management Server High Availability deployment?

Options:

A.

Lagging

B.

Synchronized

C.

Never been synchronized

D.

Collision

Question 129

What statement best describes the Proxy ARP feature for Manual NAT in R81.20?

Options:

A.

Automatic proxy ARP configuration can be enabled

B.

Translate Destination on Client Side should be configured

C.

fw ctl proxy should be configured

D.

local.arp file must always be configured

Question 130

The system administrator of a company is trying to find out why acceleration is not working for the traffic. The traffic is allowed according to the rule base and checked for viruses. But it is not accelerated.

What is the most likely reason that the traffic is not accelerated?

Options:

A.

There is a virus found. Traffic is still allowed but not accelerated.

B.

The connection required a Security server.

C.

Acceleration is not enabled.

D.

The traffic is originating from the gateway itself.

Question 131

Which is NOT a SmartEvent component?

Options:

A.

SmartEvent Server

B.

Correlation Unit

C.

Log Consolidator

D.

Log Server

Question 132

What is the minimum amount of RAM needed for a Threat Prevention Appliance?

Options:

A.

6 GB

B.

8GB with Gaia in 64-bit mode

C.

4 GB

D.

It depends on the number of software blades enabled

Question 133

Which file contains the host address to be published, the MAC address that needs to be associated with the IP Address, and the unique IP of the interface that responds to ARP request?

Options:

A.

/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

B.

/var/opt/CPshrd-R81/conf/local.arp

C.

$CPDIR/conf/local.arp

D.

$FWDIR/conf/local.arp

Question 134

Which process handles connection from SmartConsole R81?

Options:

A.

fwm

B.

cpmd

C.

cpm

D.

cpd

Question 135

Joey wants to upgrade from R75.40 to R81 version of Security management. He will use Advanced Upgrade with Database Migration method to achieve this.

What is one of the requirements for his success?

Options:

A.

Size of the /var/log folder of the source machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the target machine

B.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25% of the size of the /var/log directory on the source machine

C.

Size of the $FWDIR/log folder of the target machine must be at least 30% of the size of the $FWDIR/log directory on the source machine

D.

Size of the /var/log folder of the target machine must be at least 25GB or more

Question 136

Check Point APIs allow system engineers and developers to make changes to their organization’s security policy with CLI tools and Web Services for all the following except:

Options:

A.

Create new dashboards to manage 3rd party task

B.

Create products that use and enhance 3rd party solutions

C.

Execute automated scripts to perform common tasks

D.

Create products that use and enhance the Check Point Solution

Question 137

Which of the following Windows Security Events will not map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Options:

A.

Kerberos Ticket Renewed

B.

Kerberos Ticket Requested

C.

Account Logon

D.

Kerberos Ticket Timed Out

Question 138

Which command would you use to set the network interfaces’ affinity in Manual mode?

Options:

A.

sim affinity -m

B.

sim affinity -l

C.

sim affinity -a

D.

sim affinity -s

Question 139

What is the recommended number of physical network interfaces in a Mobile Access cluster deployment?

Options:

A.

4 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the internet, a third interface for synchronization, a fourth interface leading to the Security Management Server.

B.

3 Interfaces – an interface leading to the organization, a second interface leading to the Internet, a third interface for synchronization.

C.

1 Interface – an interface leading to the organization and the Internet, and configure for synchronization.

D.

2 Interfaces – a data interface leading to the organization and the Internet, a second interface for synchronization.

Question 140

Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

Incoming

B.

Internal

C.

External

D.

Outgoing

Question 141

One of major features in R81 SmartConsole is concurrent administration.

Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Options:

A.

A lock icon shows that a rule or an object is locked and will be available.

B.

AdminA and AdminB are editing the same rule at the same time.

C.

A lock icon next to a rule informs that any Administrator is working on this particular rule.

D.

AdminA, AdminB and AdminC are editing three different rules at the same time.

Question 142

Which of the SecureXL templates are enabled by default on Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

Accept

B.

Drop

C.

NAT

D.

None

Question 143

Which command shows actual allowed connections in state table?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t StateTable

B.

fw tab –t connections

C.

fw tab –t connection

D.

fw tab connections

Question 144

Fill in the blank: The R81 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot ______________________.

Options:

A.

User data base corruption

B.

LDAP conflicts

C.

Traffic issues

D.

Phase two key negotiations

Question 145

Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by SmartEvent Processes?

Options:

A.

ELA and CPD

B.

FWD and LEA

C.

FWD and CPLOG

D.

ELA and CPLOG

Question 146

Fill in the blank: The command ___________________ provides the most complete restoration of a R81 configuration.

Options:

A.

upgrade_import

B.

cpconfig

C.

fwm dbimport -p

D.

cpinfo –recover

Question 147

Which statement is correct about the Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

It is not supported with either the Performance pack of a hardware based accelerator card

B.

Does not support SPI’s when configured for Load Sharing

C.

It is automatically disabled if the Mobile Access Software Blade is enabled on the cluster

D.

It is not required L2TP traffic

Question 148

The Firewall kernel is replicated multiple times, therefore:

Options:

A.

The Firewall kernel only touches the packet if the connection is accelerated

B.

The Firewall can run different policies per core

C.

The Firewall kernel is replicated only with new connections and deletes itself once the connection times out

D.

The Firewall can run the same policy on all cores.

Question 149

Which command collects diagnostic data for analyzing customer setup remotely?

Options:

A.

cpinfo

B.

migrate export

C.

sysinfo

D.

cpview

Question 150

Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Options:

A.

Symmetric routing

B.

Failovers

C.

Asymmetric routing

D.

Anti-Spoofing

Question 151

CoreXL is supported when one of the following features is enabled:

Options:

A.

Route-based VPN

B.

IPS

C.

IPv6

D.

Overlapping NAT

Question 152

Which Mobile Access Application allows a secure container on Mobile devices to give users access to internal website, file share and emails?

Options:

A.

Check Point Remote User

B.

Check Point Capsule Workspace

C.

Check Point Mobile Web Portal

D.

Check Point Capsule Remote

Question 153

What command verifies that the API server is responding?

Options:

A.

api stat

B.

api status

C.

show api_status

D.

app_get_status

Question 154

What makes Anti-Bot unique compared to other Threat Prevention mechanisms, such as URL Filtering, Anti-Virus, IPS, and Threat Emulation?

Options:

A.

Anti-Bot is the only countermeasure against unknown malware

B.

Anti-Bot is the only protection mechanism which starts a counter-attack against known Command & Control Centers

C.

Anti-Bot is the only signature-based method of malware protection.

D.

Anti-Bot is a post-infection malware protection to prevent a host from establishing a connection to a Command & Control Center.

Question 155

What is a feature that enables VPN connections to successfully maintain a private and secure VPN session without employing Stateful Inspection?

Options:

A.

Stateful Mode

B.

VPN Routing Mode

C.

Wire Mode

D.

Stateless Mode

Question 156

Tom has been tasked to install Check Point R81 in a distributed deployment. Before Tom installs the systems this way, how many machines will he need if he does NOT include a SmartConsole machine in his calculations?

Options:

A.

One machine, but it needs to be installed using SecurePlatform for compatibility purposes.

B.

One machine

C.

Two machines

D.

Three machines

Question 157

Which of the following statements is TRUE about R81 management plug-ins?

Options:

A.

The plug-in is a package installed on the Security Gateway.

B.

Installing a management plug-in requires a Snapshot, just like any upgrade process.

C.

A management plug-in interacts with a Security Management Server to provide new features and support for new products.

D.

Using a plug-in offers full central management only if special licensing is applied to specific features of the plug-in.

Question 158

What is the limitation of employing Sticky Decision Function?

Options:

A.

With SDF enabled, the involved VPN Gateways only supports IKEv1

B.

Acceleration technologies, such as SecureXL and CoreXL are disabled when activating SDF

C.

With SDF enabled, only ClusterXL in legacy mode is supported

D.

With SDF enabled, you can only have three Sync interfaces at most

Question 159

Selecting an event displays its configurable properties in the Detail pane and a description of the event in the Description pane. Which is NOT an option to adjust or configure?

Options:

A.

Severity

B.

Automatic reactions

C.

Policy

D.

Threshold

Question 160

To help SmartEvent determine whether events originated internally or externally you must define using the Initial Settings under General Settings in the Policy Tab. How many options are available to calculate the traffic direction?

Options:

A.

5 Network; Host; Objects; Services; API

B.

3 Incoming; Outgoing; Network

C.

2 Internal; External

D.

4 Incoming; Outgoing; Internal; Other

Question 161

SandBlast Mobile identifies threats in mobile devices by using on-device, network, and cloud-based algorithms and has four dedicated components that constantly work together to protect mobile devices and their data. Which component is NOT part of the SandBlast Mobile solution?

Options:

A.

Management Dashboard

B.

Gateway

C.

Personal User Storage

D.

Behavior Risk Engine

Question 162

Which command lists all tables in Gaia?

Options:

A.

fw tab –t

B.

fw tab –list

C.

fw-tab –s

D.

fw tab -1

Question 163

You can select the file types that are sent for emulation for all the Threat Prevention profiles. Each profile defines a(n) _____ or _____ action for the file types.

Options:

A.

Inspect/Bypass

B.

Inspect/Prevent

C.

Prevent/Bypass

D.

Detect/Bypass

Question 164

On R81.20 when configuring Third-Party devices to read the logs using the LEA (Log Export API) the default Log Server uses port:

Options:

A.

18210

B.

18184

C.

257

D.

18191

Question 165

Automatic affinity means that if SecureXL is running, the affinity for each interface is automatically reset every

Options:

A.

15 sec

B.

60 sec

C.

5 sec

D.

30 sec

Question 166

What is the correct command to observe the Sync traffic in a VRRP environment?

Options:

A.

fw monitor –e “accept[12:4,b]=224.0.0.18;”

B.

fw monitor –e “accept port(6118;”

C.

fw monitor –e “accept proto=mcVRRP;”

D.

fw monitor –e “accept dst=224.0.0.18;”

Question 167

Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Options:

A.

X-chkp-sid

B.

Accept-Charset

C.

Proxy-Authorization

D.

Application

Question 168

In R81 spoofing is defined as a method of:

Options:

A.

Disguising an illegal IP address behind an authorized IP address through Port Address Translation.

B.

Hiding your firewall from unauthorized users.

C.

Detecting people using false or wrong authentication logins

D.

Making packets appear as if they come from an authorized IP address.

Question 169

SSL Network Extender (SNX) is a thin SSL VPN on-demand client that is installed on the remote user’s machine via the web browser. What are the two modes of SNX?

Options:

A.

Application and Client Service

B.

Network and Application

C.

Network and Layers

D.

Virtual Adapter and Mobile App

Question 170

When doing a Stand-Alone Installation, you would install the Security Management Server with which other Check Point architecture component?

Options:

A.

None, Security Management Server would be installed by itself.

B.

SmartConsole

C.

SecureClient

D.

Security Gateway

E.

SmartEvent

Question 171

You have successfully backed up Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Options:

A.

restore_backup

B.

import backup

C.

cp_merge

D.

migrate import

Question 172

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

Options:

A.

Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.

B.

Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.

C.

Create network objects that restricts all applicable rules to only certain networks.

D.

Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Question 173

What is the mechanism behind Threat Extraction?

Options:

A.

This a new mechanism which extracts malicious files from a document to use it as a counter-attack against its sender.

B.

This is a new mechanism which is able to collect malicious files out of any kind of file types to destroy it prior to sending it to the intended recipient.

C.

This is a new mechanism to identify the IP address of the sender of malicious codes and put it into the SAM database (Suspicious Activity Monitoring).

D.

Any active contents of a document, such as JavaScripts, macros and links will be removed from the document and forwarded to the intended recipient, which makes this solution very fast.

Question 174

What is the difference between an event and a log?

Options:

A.

Events are generated at gateway according to Event Policy

B.

A log entry becomes an event when it matches any rule defined in Event Policy

C.

Events are collected with SmartWorkflow form Trouble Ticket systems

D.

Log and Events are synonyms

Question 175

Full synchronization between cluster members is handled by Firewall Kernel. Which port is used for this?

Options:

A.

UDP port 265

B.

TCP port 265

C.

UDP port 256

D.

TCP port 256

Question 176

The CPD daemon is a Firewall Kernel Process that does NOT do which of the following?

Options:

A.

Secure Internal Communication (SIC)

B.

Restart Daemons if they fail

C.

Transfers messages between Firewall processes

D.

Pulls application monitoring status

Question 177

In a Client to Server scenario, which inspection point is the first point immediately following the tables and rule base check of a packet coming from outside of the network?

Options:

A.

Big l

B.

Little o

C.

Little i

D.

Big O

Question 178

CPM process stores objects, policies, users, administrators, licenses and management data in a database. The database is:

Options:

A.

MySQL

B.

Postgres SQL

C.

MarisDB

D.

SOLR

Question 179

Which of the following is a new R81 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Options:

A.

The rule base can be built of layers, each containing a set of the security rules. Layers are inspected in the order in which they are defined, allowing control over the rule base flow and which security functionalities take precedence.

B.

Limits the upload and download throughput for streaming media in the company to 1 Gbps.

C.

Time object to a rule to make the rule active only during specified times.

D.

Sub Policies ae sets of rules that can be created and attached to specific rules. If the rule is matched, inspection will continue in the sub policy attached to it rather than in the next rule.

Question 180

What is the least amount of CPU cores required to enable CoreXL?

Options:

A.

2

B.

1

C.

4

D.

6

Question 181

You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don’t have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching on

B.

fw ctl multik dynamic_dispatching set_mode 9

C.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

D.

fw ctl multik pq enable

Question 182

Which command would disable a Cluster Member permanently?

Options:

A.

clusterXL_admin down

B.

cphaprob_admin down

C.

clusterXL_admin down-p

D.

set clusterXL down-p

Question 183

Which of the following Check Point processes within the Security Management Server is responsible for the receiving of log records from Security Gateway?

Options:

A.

logd

B.

fwd

C.

fwm

D.

cpd

Question 184

Which of the following process pulls application monitoring status?

Options:

A.

fwd

B.

fwm

C.

cpwd

D.

cpd

Question 185

Identify the API that is not supported by Check Point currently.

Options:

A.

R81 Management API-

B.

Identity Awareness Web Services API

C.

Open REST API

D.

OPSEC SDK

Question 186

In R81, how do you manage your Mobile Access Policy?

Options:

A.

Through the Unified Policy

B.

Through the Mobile Console

C.

From SmartDashboard

D.

From the Dedicated Mobility Tab

Question 187

To fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher with Firewall Priority Queues on a Security Gateway, run the following command in Expert mode then reboot:

Options:

A.

fw ctl multik set_mode 1

B.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue on

C.

fw ctl Dynamic_Priority_Queue enable

D.

fw ctl multik set_mode 9

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Total 624 questions