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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Dumps

Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Considering the concepts of organization wide risk management and the system of internal controls, the internal audit activity as a whole can be considered which of the following types of control?

Options:

A.

Transaction-level control.

B.

Management-oversight control.

C.

Governance control.

D.

Process-level control.

Question 2

Which of the following situations presents the lowest risk of impairing an internal audit activity's independence?

Options:

A.

Senior management has the authority to terminate the chief audit executive

B.

Senior management has control over the internal audit activity's budget

C.

Senior management provides feedback on the scope of the internal audit plan.

D.

Senior management limits the internal audit activity's access to the board

Question 3

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management.

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking.

D.

Persuasion and collaboration.

Question 4

During an audit engagement of a large retail store, internal auditors noted significant discrepancies between available inventory and sales and suspect an abuse of cash register refunds and voids. Which of the following would be the most effective preventative control to reduce these losses?

Options:

A.

Ensure that returned merchandise is restocked to shelves or sent to the manufacturer by an independent employee.

B.

Call a sample of customers who returned merchandise to test the legitimacy of the returns and check refund amounts.

C.

Require that a manager use a reserved register code to approve voids or refunds.

D.

Analyze voids and refunds by employee, credit card number, and amount for unusual numbers, amounts, or patterns.

Question 5

Which of the following controls would most likely prevent fraud related to the overpayment of vendors?

Options:

A.

Require supervisory review of all invoices and cash disbursements exceeding a stated threshold.

B.

Require the matching of a purchase order, receiving report, and invoice before payment.

C.

Require all checks to be signed by more than one person.

D.

Require all invoices to be paid within 30 days by check only.

Question 6

A risk assessment showed that the cost of addressing a particular risk in the organization's human resources department is greater than the perceived benefit. Which risk response approach should the organization take in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Accept the risk.

D.

Share the risk.

Question 7

A chief audit executive ensures that the internal audit activity provides annual training to management on internal controls. Where is the nature of these services defined?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan.

B.

The audit report.

C.

The annual risk assessment.

D.

The audit charter.

Question 8

Which of the following statements is true regarding a key difference between assurance and consulting services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

When conducting a consulting engagement, the nature and scope of the engagement are determined by the internal audit activity.

B.

Three parties are participants in assurance services, while consulting engagements generally involve two parties.

C.

An assurance engagement has two participants, while consulting engagements generally involve three parties.

D.

When conducting an assurance engagement, the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques are agreed with the area under review.

Question 9

According to NA guidance which of the following should be documented in the internal audit chatter?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment process applied by the internal audit activity

B.

The organization's internal control framework used by the internal audit activity

C.

The nature of consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

D.

The performance evaluation process used by the internal audit activity

Question 10

An engagement supervisor notes that an internal auditor usually documents and submits draft audit reports for review without giving the process owners the opportunity to state their position on the issues raised. How should the engagement supervisor respond?

Options:

A.

Encourage the auditor to continue this practice, as it demonstrates objectivity.

B.

Encourage the auditor to improve communication skills.

C.

Encourage the auditor to conduct post-engagement surveys to obtain the audit client's position on the issues raised.

D.

Encourage the auditor to sign the draft reports before submitting them.

Question 11

Which type of engagement requires that the client agrees with the techniques used by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A performance audit.

B.

A sensitive fraud investigation.

C.

A compliance audit

D.

A consulting service.

Question 12

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor's independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 13

Which statement is accurate regarding reporting on the quality assurance and improvement program (OAIP) to conform with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) should report all stages of the OAlP's development and key milestones.

B.

The CAE should report only corrective action plans that meet external assessor or stakeholder requirements.

C.

The CAE should establish the form and content of program communication so that it is in alignment with the internal audit activity charter.

D.

The CAE should disclose program details only after both internal and external assessments have been completed.

Question 14

Which of the following would be most helpful to measure whether an internal audit activity successfully provides risk-based assurance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of highly significant risks covered by internal audit plan.

B.

Percentage of previously unknown risks identified per engagement.

C.

Percentage of internal audit staff skilled in alignment with the organization's structure and key risks.

D.

Percentage of observations made in assurance engagements compared to advisory engagements.

Question 15

Which of the following situations is most likely to heighten an internal auditor's professional skepticism regarding potential fraud?

Options:

A.

A procurement manager does not have the expected academic credentials for his position.

B.

A salesperson frequently complains about the organization's policy on sales commissions.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor has requested advances against her monthly salary on several occasions.

D.

A financial accountant is absent from work frequently due to regular medical procedures.

Question 16

An organization's board recommends revising the internal audit charter by adding requirements regarding the hiring and compensation of the chief audit executive as well as information on approving the internal audit budget. Which of the following is the board most likely defining in the charter?

Options:

A.

Functional and administrative responsibilities of internal audit activity.

B.

Authority and objectivity of internal audit activity.

C.

Independence and objectivity of internal audit activity.

D.

Assurance and improvement of internal audit activity.

Question 17

If an internal auditor suspects fraud during an engagement which of the following is expected of the auditor?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the suspected activities to determine whether a forma! investigation is warranted,

B.

Immediately inform senior management and the board of the suspected fraud.

C.

Ascertain the level of resources needed to formally investigate the fraud, and proceed with the investigation if resources permit,

D.

Include in the engagement documentation all possible effects and the potential impact of the fraud to the organization

Question 18

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

Question 19

A manufacturing organization's chief audit executive (CAE) was approached by the head of security from one of the manufacturer's third party suppliers The head of security requested internal audit records from a recent audit engagement involving the third-party supplier The head of security believed those records contained information that would enable to identify employees of the third-party supplier who may be involved m fraudulent activities What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval from the manufacturer's audit committee regarding the release of audit records

B.

Release the records but first remove all data regarding the manufacturing organization s internal actions and procedures

C.

Deny access to the records as the third party supplier s security learn should be able to investigate then own employees.

D.

Consult with the manufacturer's senior management to determine whether releasing tie records would be appropriate

Question 20

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

Question 21

Which of the following must be considered by the chief audit executive before writing the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' level of competencies and skills.

B.

The manner in which the internal audit activity is viewed by the board.

C.

Evaluation of staff certifications and continued development.

D.

Effectiveness of the quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 22

A whistle blower notified internal audit of a conflict of interest between an organization's employee and a major supplier. Which of the following steps should be undertaken first?

Options:

A.

Interview the employee identified by the whistleblower.

B.

Attain an understanding of the employee's role, responsibilities, and relationship with the supplier.

C.

Notify senior management, the board, and the external auditor about the alleged fraud

D.

Review all the orders issued to the supplier to investigate potential fraud.

Question 23

Which of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system.

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed in the last year.

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistleblower hotline.

Question 24

An organization’s senior management team is awarding substantial bonuses if employees meet financial targets. Which of the following motivators to potentially commit fraud would become most likely in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Opportunity

B.

Pressure

C.

Rationalization

D.

Justification

Question 25

Which of the following statements is correct regarding disclosure of conformance or Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal audit activity that has been in existence fewer than five years cannot Indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards because it has not yet undergone an external assessment.

B.

Once an external assessment validates conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity may continue to use the statement until the next external assessment.

C.

If it has been more than five years since the last external assessment was conducted, the Internal audit activity must cease indicating that it operates in conformance with the Standards.

D.

The chief audit executive must disclose every instance of noncompliance with the Code of Ethics or the Standards.

Question 26

According to MA guidance, which of the following gives the internal audit activity the authority to request supporting documentation for the invoices of a third-party service provider?

Options:

A.

The internal audit policy manual.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The quality assurance and improvement program.

Question 27

Wi ch of the following circumstances would most likely be considered a potential red flag for fraud by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The monthly payroll reports are not vetted to ensure terminated employees have been removed from the payroll system

B.

The volume of nonroutine journal entries has steadily increased over time.

C.

The database of approved suppliers has not been reviewed the last year

D.

The recent employee survey indicates that some employees remain unaware of the organization’s whistieblower hotline.

Question 28

Which of the following describes a primary responsibility for the internal audit activity in helping management maintain effective controls?

Options:

A.

Promoting continuous evaluation

B.

Promoting continuous monitoring

C.

Promoting continuous improvement

D.

Promoting continuous reporting

Question 29

Which action by senior management indicates to the internal auditor that there may be fraudulent activities occurring within the organization?

Options:

A.

Setting unrealistic targets for staff to achieve

B.

Granting external audit firms access to staff and records.

C.

Automating some processes and allowing others to be performed manually

D.

Enforcing a zero-tolerance policy for misconduct

Question 30

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' knowledge, skills and other competencies?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must obtain competent advice and assistance if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to complete the audit engagement

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization and should have the expertise of a fraud investigator

C.

Internal auditors need to have basic knowledge of key IT risks and controls and available technology-based audit techniques in order to perform their assigned work

D.

The CAE must refuse a consulting engagement if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform all or part of the engagement

Question 31

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most critical to ensuring that an organization's risk management program remains effective over time?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a fully executed assurance role for the internal audit activity.

B.

Conducting risk evaluations that include ranking the relative importance of each risk.

C.

Establishing a risk management function and appointing a chief risk officer.

D.

Conducting a combination of ongoing risk reviews and individual evaluations.

Question 32

Management assessed the organization’s risk of expanding operations into a new, but volatile, region and began looking for a compatible local partner to manage sales and distribution. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Avoidance.

B.

Acceptance.

C.

Reduction.

D.

Sharing

Question 33

What is the main difference between a consulting engagement versus an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The nature of services provided are defined in the internal audit charter.

B.

Internal auditors must maintain objectivity while performing their work.

C.

The objectives and scope of the engagement typically are directed by management.

D.

Internal auditors may assume management responsibilities.

Question 34

Senior management is eager to assess the organization's risks with regard to electricity sales processes, but the senior management team does not know where to start. How can the internal audit activity assist?

Options:

A.

Outsource the identification of best practices for risk management to an external third party.

B.

Perform an audit engagement to identify risk management practices deployed in electricity sales processes.

C.

Recommend reporting the lack of risk management to government authorities and request guidance.

D.

Facilitate a self-assessment workshop with the employees responsible for process execution.

Question 35

What is the ultimate goal of establishing a robust risk management framework in an organization?

Options:

A.

To support the organization's risk culture, involving employees at all levels.

B.

To ensure that the organization attains a better financial position.

C.

To assist the organization in identifying and mitigating key risks.

D.

To facilitate the organization's achievement of business goals and objectives.

Question 36

An investment advisory firm purchased professional liability insurance to offer protection from lawsuits brought by customers claiming they received poor or erroneous advice. Which of the following best describes this risk management technique?

Options:

A.

Mitigation.

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer.

D.

Avoidance

Question 37

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization's compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

Question 38

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements regarding ethics is true?

Options:

A.

Business ethics may vary within an organization with both domestic and foreign operations

B.

Business ethics are universal n nature and organizations across the world are expected to comply with smear standards

C.

A business ethics policy for an organization s established solely to direct me behavior and expectations of employees

D.

Business ethics of an organization must remain independent torn those of supplier’s customers and business partners

Question 39

An internal auditor discovered that a former colleague from the internal audit activity now works in a junior position in a department scheduled for an upcoming audit. How can the auditor best ensure his objectivity for this engagement?

Options:

A.

Recommend mat the chief audit executive outsource the upcoming audit engagement

B.

Proceed with the audit engagement in accordance with the internal audit manual

C.

Increase the amount of fieldwork in order to build greater credibility for audit conclusions

D.

Declare a conflict of interest and hand over the engagement to another auditor

Question 40

The organization s procurement manager asks the internal auditor to deliver training to the procurement team on the organization’s third-party risk management process. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should reject the request it she previously worked in the procurement area to maintain objectivity

B.

The internal auditor should reject the request if the internal audit team does not have the requisite expertise.

C.

The internal auditor should accept the request and in fact she may assume some management responsibilities temporarily if the result is a relevant training benefit

D.

The internal auditor may accept the request only if she defines the scope to ensure conformance with the Code of Ethics

Question 41

Which of the following is most important for an internal auditor to consider when developing an approach for an audit engagement in a foreign country?

Options:

A.

Currency exchange rates, as they relate to internal audit-related expenses.

B.

Differences in typical working hours, compared to other countries.

C.

The effects of subtle language nuances on translations.

D.

Accepted practices that may be illegal in other countries.

Question 42

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

When an internal auditor releases required information to a regulator, resulting in a significant loss through fines and penalties for the organization, he fails to add value.

B.

When an internal auditor limits the scope of the audit engagement after learning that management is hiding relevant information, he demonstrates integrity.

C.

When an internal auditor disagrees with the treatment received by workers in the organization’s foreign subsidiary and alters the audit program to highlight the issue, the fails to demonstrate objectivity.

D.

When an internal auditor continues with an audit engagement, despite the audit client’s claims that the work performed is unnecessary and redundant, he fails to demonstrate competency.

Question 43

Due to toe increased operational responsibility of the CEO. The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO). What is the likely imped of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation m the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CPO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expense of finance staff can be catted upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 44

A chief audit executive (CAE) has no direct access to the board. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate way for the CAE to react?

Options:

A.

Ensure all subsequent audit reports include a disclaimer as to the lack of access to the board,

B.

Focus on operational audit work and disregard lack of direct access to the members of the board.

C.

Initiate changes to the internal audit charter to report to senior management for the time being,

D.

Engage in written communications with the board and present relevant issues in writing

Question 45

An internal auditor is updating the risk register for risks identified during a recent organizational risk assessment. According to the Standards, which of the following would the auditor include in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Management’s acceptance of inadequate controls for cybersecurity risk.

B.

Discussions with senior management relating to a new revenue stream.

C.

Mitigating controls implemented by the engagement supervisor

D.

Project manager planned hours versus time spent for all prior year projects

Question 46

A new internal auditor was recently recruited to the internal audit activity from the organization's finance department. What is likely to be the chief audit executive’s greatest concern regarding assigning the new auditor to upcoming audits in the finance department?

Options:

A.

The time it may take the new auditor to complete the assignment and report the findings to management.

B.

The qualifications of the new auditor and whether the auditor's business knowledge is relevant to the assignment.

C.

The potential for a conflict of interest to exist or appear to exist if the new auditor undertakes these assignments.

D.

The knowledge the new auditor may have of control weaknesses in the finance department.

Question 47

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend.

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization's code of ethics to all employees.

D.

Conduct an organizationwide employee survey on ethical practices

Question 48

In which of the following audits would the internal auditors most likely contribute to the assessment of organizational governance?

Options:

A.

An assessment of compliance of individual data protection procedures with data protection regulations

B.

An assessment of profit and loss generated by financial assets and instruments in the past quarter

C.

An assessment of the effectiveness of back-up procedures and execution of business recovery plans

D.

An assessment of performance management practices and establishment of key performance indicators

Question 49

A business unit manager was impressed by the competence of the internal auditor who was conducting an assurance engagement in his area and the manager made the auditor an attractive job offer to begin after the audit was completed The auditor later told her auditor in charge that she was considering the offer. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was most likely violated?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Objectivity

D.

No violation was committed

Question 50

An internal auditor is assessing fraud risks and creating a fraud risk matrix for a particular branch location. Which of the following is most likely to be included in the matrix?

Options:

A.

Risks and relevant mitigating controls.

B.

Business processes and relevant fraud risks.

C.

Fraud scenarios and relevant risks.

D.

Opportunity, rationalization, and pressure to commit fraud.

Question 51

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

Question 52

In which of the following scenarios is the internal auditor in conformance with The IIA's Code of Ethics and the Standards?

Options:

A.

The auditor testifies in front of a jury about an organization's fraudulent financial practices after receiving a subpoena

B.

Management has agreed to remedy a significant control deficiency, so the auditor excludes the deficiency from the engagement report

C.

The chief audit executive declines an assurance engagement in IT because the internal audit activity is not proficient in IT

D.

The auditor communicates an audit opinion on fraud risk during an audit engagement’s preliminary fraud risk assessment

Question 53

The principle that "no action should be taken that may harm in some way the least fortunate people" is an expression of which of the following more general ethical principles?

Options:

A.

Utilitarian benefits.

B.

Personal virtues.

C.

Religious injunctions.

D.

Distributive justice.

Question 54

The chief audit executive (CAE) planned an in-person group training to help internal auditors perform onsite inspections of an automobile manufacturing facility. The training would have allowed the auditors to better understand the production of the organization's automobiles. However, a global health crisis has impacted the training by prohibiting in-person contact at the facility. Which of the following could the CAE use to provide auditors with a better understanding of the organization s production process?

Options:

A.

A general web-based training on auditing manufacturing processes.

B.

Self-study courses on the industry's production practices

C.

Industry publications that discuss production methods

D.

A virtual meeting with management that explains the production of automobiles

Question 55

An internal audit team received the following feedback from operational management via a post-engagement survey "Management agrees with all audit findings However, the audit team did not consider our input on the best way to resolve the issues”

This feedback is an indication that the internal audit activity may need to improve which of the following interpersonal skills?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Conflict management

C.

Communication

D.

Influence

Question 56

Which of the following describes two duties that should not be performed by the same person?

Options:

A.

Posting cash receipts and cash payments to the general ledger.

B.

Posting bad debt write-offs and reconciling the accounts payable subsidiary ledger.

C.

Distributing payroll checks and approving sales returns for credit.

D.

Recording cash receipts and preparing bank reconciliations.

Question 57

Which of the following is a typical characteristic of an organization's risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance may or may not align with risk appetite depending on whether the assessment is quantitative or qualitative

B.

Risk is assessed on both an inherent and a residual basis

C.

The framework addresses four organizational objective categories strategic, historical, operational, and investment

D.

External risks and internal opportunities are omitted from the risk assessment scope

Question 58

An organization allows the same individual to physically access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform a reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders.

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile all inventory movements.

C.

Internal auditors should review the frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels.

D.

Management should establish a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained.

Question 59

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit activity's reporting

Question 60

According to the Standards, which of the following demonstrates the proficiency of an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Each internal auditor must hold one or more certifications in the area of fraud and seek out continuing professional development related to fraud detection and fraud investigation.

B.

Each internal auditor must have sufficient knowledge of IT risks and controls, and be able to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization.

C.

Each internal auditor on the engagement team must possess the same level of knowledge, skills, and other competencies as other auditors on the engagement team.

D.

Each internal auditor must be paired, by the chief audit executive, with an individual who possesses the knowledge, skills, or other competencies required to complete the audit.

Question 61

A chief audit executive (CAE) has been asked by the board to evaluate the effectiveness of ethical programs created by management. Which of the following would be the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Compare the design of the organization's ethical programs with best practices.

B.

Verify that a code of conduct and related policies exist and are communicated.

C.

Use employee surveys to assess whether ethical programs are achieving desired outcomes.

D.

Compare the cost of the ethical programs with the achieved outcomes.

Question 62

Which of the following is the best reason why the engagement supervisor should take care in explaining to local management the criteria that will be used to measure the effectiveness of the control environment?

Options:

A.

The assessment will cover soft controls and company values.

B.

The assessment will focus on the policy for a particular process.

C.

The assessment will lack a defined scope

D.

The assessment will probably uncover fraud risks.

Question 63

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization's ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program's design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization's ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 64

An internal audit activity uses a rotational program to recruit high-performing staff members from other parts of the organization One of these individuals is nearing the end of her four-year internal audit rotation The chief audit executive assigned her to an assurance engagement in the business area she will be going into when she leaves the internal audit activity Which of the following statements is

true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

Accepting the assignment is a violation of internal audit independence

B.

Accepting the assignment will improve competencies and develop relationships that will be needed in her next assignment

C.

Accepting the assignment creates the appearance of an impairment to her professional judgment and detectivity

D.

Accepting the assignment on the assurance engagement would be a breach of due professional care

Question 65

The level of authority for the internal audit activity is granted by which of the following?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The International Professional Practices Framework.

D.

The IIA's Code of Ethics.

Question 66

When the chief audit executive Is responsible for risk management in an organization, which of the following parties is responsible for overseeing the internal audit activity's assurance over risk management?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

A member of the compliance function.

C.

A party outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

A member of the risk management function.

Question 67

Internal audit is performing an engagement to determine whether there were indications of questionable bidding on a city s infrastructure project. As part of the engagement the internal audit activity became aware that certain firms tend to receive the contracts for large city projects. How should the internal audit activity proceed with the engagement and identify questionable bidding practices?

Options:

A.

Obtain the city s vendor listing to determine whether there was an adequate number of firms available to solicit bids for protects

B.

Obtain at of the city s financial records to identify any firms that received payments for contracted goods and services.

C.

Obtain the city's contracting files to determine whether the city demonstrated efforts to solicit bids from various interested firms.

D.

Obtain the city’s official public meeting minutes to determine whether there were concerns about the contracting practices

Question 68

Which of the following controls would best mitigate the risk of fraud in the bidding process?

Options:

A.

Have a bidding committee open the tender bids.

B.

Restrict the time to submit tender bids.

C.

Keep minutes of pre-bid meetings.

D.

Allow the higher tenders to rebid.

Question 69

Which of the following fraud schemes is often an off-book fraud*?

Options:

A.

Payroll fraud

B.

Disbursement fraud

C.

Corruption

D.

Information misrepresentation

Question 70

Which of the following would be an important aspect of an internal auditor's role in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Utilizing analytical techniques to actively discover instances of potential fraud

B.

Conducting fraud based audits to ensure that fraud will be detected during engagements

C.

Implementing fraud prevention controls to minimize and mitigate the risk of fraud

D.

Reporting instances of fraud discovered during engagements to regulatory bodies

Question 71

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

Question 72

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

Question 73

Which of the following best demonstrates the board of directors' governance over internal control?

Options:

A.

The board bears direct responsibility for developing and implementing the internal control system.

B.

The majority of board members are experienced and qualified members of the organization's executive management team.

C.

The board may be assisted by an audit committee, chaired by the chief audit executive.

D.

The board is responsible for succession planning for the CEO and other key members of the executive management team.

Question 74

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning, the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of the engagement were included in a written report that was issued to the client who requested the engagement

C.

During audit planning, the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of the system

Question 75

Which of the following statements is true regarding the disclosure of results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

If the results of both internal and external assessments support conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity must communicate this to the board and senior management in writing.

B.

If it has been in existence fewer than five years and has no documented external assessment, the internal audit activity may not indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards.

C.

If nonconformance affects its ability to fulfill its professional responsibilities or stakeholder expectations, the internal audit activity should disclose nonconformance as well as its impact.

D.

If an external assessment reflects an overall conclusion of nonconformance, the internal audit activity may continue to communicate that it conforms with theStandards if it discloses a remediation plan, including timeline with subsequent validation.

Question 76

Which of the following activities best demonstrates an internal auditor’s commitment to developing professional competencies?

Options:

A.

Requesting to be part of all engagements on the annual audit plan.

B.

Attending a series of locally offered training courses.

C.

Completing a skills assessment and development plan for targeted training needs,

D.

Attending a webinar on how to use data analytics

Question 77

Which of the following is an indicator of ineffective third-party risk management?

Options:

A.

Sourcing of third parties does not follow public procurement law.

B.

Violations of service conditions trigger either fines or termination.

C.

Due diligence of third parties is conducted only after contract signing.

D.

The right-to-audit clause is limited by personal data protection regulations.

Question 78

Applying ISO 31000, which of the following is part of the external context for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment method based on risk evaluation.

B.

Organizational culture, objectives, and processes.

C.

The regulatory and competitive environment

D.

The method of determining the risk level.

Question 79

Which of the following is an example of a management control technique?

Options:

A.

A budget.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

The board of directors.

D.

The control environment

Question 80

Which of the followIng would permit an internal audit activity to use the statement "conducted m conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing m audit reports?

Options:

A.

The result of a quality assurance and improvement program confirm there are no material issues.

B.

Engagement workpapers are retained by the internet audit activity according to the retention and deletion policy.

C.

The internal audit activity receives positive feedback from the managers of the areas that were under review.

D.

internal auditors demonstrate proficiency by maintaining professional internal audit certifications

Question 81

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor's application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

Question 82

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity’s position within the organization in an audit charter.

Question 83

Which of the following processes does the board manage to ensure adequate governance?

Options:

A.

Establish and measure performance objectives for the internal audit activity.

B.

Select board members with necessary knowledge and skills.

C.

Develop, approve, and execute the strategic plan of the organization.

D.

Develop strategies to mitigate the risks to achieving the organization’s objectives

Question 84

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor failed to expand the engagement and include managements preferences when determining the scope of an upcoming assurance engagement.

B.

An internal audit activity lacks the skills need to perform a high-risk security engagement included on the annual audit plan.

C.

A chief audit executive fated to perform a risk assessment prior to preparing the audit plan

D.

An internal audit activity has existed for two years and has not undergone external quality assessment

Question 85

A newly hired chief audit executive is reviewing available documentation to provide evidence of conformance with the standard for continuing professional development. Which of the following documents is the most reliable source for this purpose?

Options:

A.

The organization's training policy.

B.

A list of auditors who requested to attend the next audit conference.

C.

Self-assessments against an internally developed audit benchmark

D.

In house training manual

Question 86

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

Question 87

According to NA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Question 88

At the beginning of an IT development project key risks were identified and assessed and risk owners were appointed Six months later the IT development team reported that the project Is significantly over budget, it will not be completed on time and key personnel had left the organization. Which of the following risk management practices should be improved for future projects?

Options:

A.

Risk response.

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk monitoring.

D.

Risk avoidance.

Question 89

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 90

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture'?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

Question 91

An internal auditor was assigned to work in the procurement department for six months to gam m-depth knowledge about the procurement process. Which of the following personnel development practices was applied in this situation?

Options:

A.

Cosourcing

B.

Inbound rotation

C.

Guest auditor

D.

Outbound rotation

Question 92

In addition to her internal audit activity responsibilities, the chief audit executive has been asked to oversee the organization's insurance function. Which of the following responses is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Welcome the additional responsibility, as it represents an opportunity to gain more information for future audits.

B.

Revise the internal audit charter to include oversight of the insurance function, ensuring that all of her responsibilities are properly documented.

C.

Report the request to the board and recommend alternate processes to obtain assurance related to insurance activities.

D.

Promptly remove the organization's insurance function from the audit universe.

Question 93

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 94

A senior executive at a government-owned organization received an invitation to attend a public exhibition where he can learn about new trucks relevant to the organization's business. As a special perk, the executive is offered an opportunity to drive a luxury vehicle manufactured by one of the exhibiting companies. Prior to the event, the executive asked for the chief audit executive s (CAE’s) advice. What should the CAE recommend as the most appropriate course of action for the executive?

Options:

A.

Attend the event, but decline the offer to use the luxury vehicle

B.

Decline the invitation to the exhibition.

C.

Ask the board to decide on the issue.

D.

Select a lower-level employee to enjoy the luxury vehicle instead

Question 95

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

Question 96

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

Question 97

A chief audit executive (CAE) is considering hiring a candidate who most recently worked for a large public accounting firm What would be the CAE’s most likely concern regarding this candidate*?

Options:

A.

Low-level audit expertise

B.

Narrow industry experience

C.

MPotential conflict of interest

D.

Weak interpersonal skills

Question 98

Which of the following scenarios would most likely impair the independence of an internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

A relative of an internal audit team member works m a department being reviewed

B.

The internal audit budget is reduced by management requiring the removal of all lT-related engagements from the audit plan

C.

An audit manager removes a finding from the draft report due to disagreements with the chief financial officer

D.

The operating effectiveness of a control is reported as 'satisfactory." because no concerns were identified during planning

Question 99

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 100

With regard to the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program, which of the following topics would the chief audit executive include on the quarterly board meeting agenda?

Options:

A.

The scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments.

B.

The list of audit engagements that will be assessed during the year.

C.

The number and qualifications of internal audit staff members assigned to perform internal assessments during the year.

D.

The compensation structure of the qualified assessment team.

Question 101

Outsourcing a business activity is considered which of the following risk management techniques?

Options:

A.

Sharing a risk.

B.

Avoiding a risk.

C.

Reducing a risk.

D.

Mitigating a risk

Question 102

What is the primary purpose of The IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing.

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations.

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing.

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing.

Question 103

To comply with the proficiency standard which of the following would the chief audit executive likely consider as the primary hiring criterion when choosing a new internal auditor?

Options:

A.

The length and consistency of the auditor's work experience

B.

The auditor's demonstrated problem-solving skills

C.

The auditor's skills compared to those already possessed by other audit staff

D.

The auditor's ability to be self motivated and a good team player

Question 104

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 105

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by a new chief audit executive would be most appropriate to gain an understanding of the current level of knowledge, skills, and competencies required by an internal audit activity to fulfill its responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Identify gaps in the activity’s proficiency, based on criteria defined by a widely accepted competency framework.

B.

Have a quality assessment review performed by an expert external entity.

C.

Identify a mature internal audit activity to serve as a benchmark for measuring the internal audit activity’s competence.

D.

Assess whether members of the internal audit activity understand and apply the 11As mandatory guidance.

Question 106

Which of the following would be addressed in the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Expertise requirements for internal auditors

B.

Functional and administrative reporting lines for the chief audit executive

C.

Audit engagements to be completed in the next fiscal year

D.

Budget requirements for each engagement

Question 107

Which of the following is the first step in the process of identifying relevant fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Identifying preventive and detective controls

B.

Gathering information about the organization’s business activities to gain an understanding of fraud risks

C.

Engaging in strategic reasoning to anticipate the fraud scheme

D.

The use of brainstorming, management interviews, analytical procedures and review of prior frauds.

Question 108

A financial services organization's board is assessing increased regulations and its effect on current industry lending practices. Which of the following committees would help the board identify and assess the effects of the increased regulations?

Options:

A.

Quality committee.

B.

Audit committee.

C.

Risk committee.

D.

Governance committee.

Question 109

Which of the following statements is true regarding the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Reporting on the QAIP to the board should occur at least once every five years

B.

The responsibility for the selection of an external assessor rests with the board

C.

The qualifications of the assessors must be communicated to the board

D.

The reporting of outcomes of the QAIP can be delegated to senior audit staff

Question 110

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards.

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each department’s objectives.

Question 111

To achieve conformance with the Standards, the chief audit executive must include which of the following activities in the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Require board oversight of the QAIP.

B.

Assess Standards conformance for each individual engagement.

C.

Conduct a self assessment at least once every five years.

D.

Report the results of the QAIP to senior management

Question 112

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor identified that a developer of the organization's enterprise resource planning (ERP) system had intentionally modified the production code to commit a fraudulent transaction. Which control activity should be implemented to prevent such issues in the future?

Options:

A.

Segregate duties between code development and migrating changes into production.

B.

Conduct fraud training for the IT team responsible for the ERP system.

C.

Penalize the developer who committed the fraud by terminating employment.

D.

Restrict developers' access to the ERP system's test environment.

Question 113

Management is installing security cameras to identify unauthorized physical access to the organization's warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

Options:

A.

Detective controls.

B.

Key controls.

C.

Primary controls.

D.

Preventive controls

Question 114

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The HAfs mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer.

B.

The board seeks senior management's recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit activity,

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

Question 115

Which of the following scenarios would cause a chief audit executive (CAE) to immediately discontinue using any statements that would indicate conformance with the Standards in an audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity used a risk-based approach to create the internal audit plan.

B.

The engagement supervisor considered requests from senior management regarding engagements to include in the internal audit plan.

C.

The CAE only accepted engagements that the internal audit activity collectively had the knowledge to perform.

D.

The area under review restricted the internal audit activity's ability to access records, impacting the audit results.

Question 116

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization's risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

Question 117

When dealing with various stakeholders which of the following is true regarding an internal auditor's responsibility to remain objective and independent?

Options:

A.

When deciding between conflicting reports of a control's performance from a control operator and the operator's manager the internal auditor should generally believe the manager

B.

Some audit issues may remain unremediated and unreported if management will accept recommendations that the internal auditor deems more important

C.

The internal auditor may initially disagree with management s acceptance of a risk, but reevaluate and agree with management’s judgment after further discussion

D.

When working on business unit audits it is sometimes sufficient for the internal auditor to report deficiencies only to the unit manager when remediation is not complex

Question 118

Which of the following activities would an internal auditor perform as a consulting engagement for an organization?

Options:

A.

Advising new internal auditors working for the organization on how to develop strategies on planning audits for the upcoming fiscal year

B.

Assessing whether the organization's corporate social responsibility program is meeting its yearly goals to reduce carbon emissions.

C.

Briefing the organization's department managers on how to implement risk management processes into their daily operations.

D.

Communicating with senior management to better understand how new purchasing controls will minimize payment processing time.

Question 119

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques.

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court.

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care.

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques.

Question 120

Which of the following Code of Ethics principles specifically requires internal auditors to disclose all material facts known to them that, if not disclosed, may distort the reporting of activities under review?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality.

B.

Transparency.

C.

Integrity.

D.

Objectivity.

Question 121

Which of the following would best assist the internal audit activity in assessing whether an organization's responses to risk are aligned with its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the results of successful testing of controls and monitoring procedures implemented by management

B.

Determining that there are no gaps between the internal auditors' risk assessment and the risk assessment performed by the organization

C.

Obtaining evidence that employees throughout the organization are aware of the organization s risk appetite

D.

Verifying that previously identified organizational risks were documented in board meeting minutes

Question 122

The same internal auditor has audited the regional purchasing department annually for the last three years. The audits have shown several significant control deficiencies that have not been corrected by management. New management is in charge of this regional purchasing department, and it is time to audit the department again. What concerns should be considered prior to assigning the audit to the same auditor?

Options:

A.

Intimidation threats may compromise the auditor's objectivity due to multiple negative audit reports completed by the auditor.

B.

The auditor has reviewed the department annually for the last three years, leading to familiarity, which can impact the internal audit activity's independence.

C.

A negative cognitive bias may be in place that affects the employee's objectivity due to the recent audits with uncorrected control deficiencies.

D.

The auditor may have formed a cultural bias, as the department under review is in the auditor's geographic area.

Question 123

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 124

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the conduct of an internal auditor who demonstrates the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

The auditor is prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of his work.

B.

The auditor does not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair his professional judgment.

C.

The auditor does not perform services in a particular area when he lacks skills in that area.

D.

The auditor performs work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

Question 125

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding mentoring programs designed to assist internal auditors with their professional development?

Options:

A.

The mentor must have a higher position in the organization than the mentee

B.

An auditor s supervisor is best positioned to serve as the auditor's mentor

C.

Meetings between a mentor and a mentee should be formal and well documented

D.

Auditors at the same level may be assigned different mentors and some auditors may have no mentor

Question 126

According to IIA guidance, which of the following threats to objectivity is described as familiarity'?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor is a close friend or relative of the manager or an employee of the audit client

B.

An internal auditor has a long-term business relationship with the audit client.

C.

An internal auditor has an economic stake in the performance of the organization

D.

An internal auditor is exposed to or perceived to be exposed to pressures from external parties

Question 127

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization's board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Question 128

A new internal audit activity is considering the adoption of a risk and control framework. Which of the following is the most appropriate consideration during this process?

Options:

A.

The framework should not be developed by the internal audit activity

B.

The framework should apply to individual projects rather than the organization as a whole

C.

The framework should always be tailored to the organization

D.

The framework should require fewer resources to implement

Question 129

Which of the following is the best example of an ongoing independent monitoring activity?

Options:

A.

Management quality assurance activities

B.

Internal audit fraud prevention and detection activities

C.

Management and supervisory activities

D.

External audit quality assurance activities

Question 130

Which of the following statements is true regarding external quality assessments?

Options:

A.

They can be performed by self-assessment with independent external validation, but they must be performed every three years.

B.

When a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed, an external quality assessment should be undertaken during the CAE’s first year of office.

C.

An external quality assessment must be conducted at least once every five years by a qualified, independent assessor or assessment team.

D.

An external assessment by a qualified professional from outside of the organization can be performed in place of an internal assessment.

Question 131

An internal auditor performed a consulting engagement last year which included assisting with management's design of controls over the procurement function. How should the chief audit executive plan an assurance engagement on the adequacy of the internal control system in the procurement function in the current year?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to another internal auditor on staff

B.

Outsource the engagement to ensure independence

C.

Harness the auditor's knowledge of the procurement function by assigning the engagement to the same internal auditor

D.

Postpone the engagement to the following year to ensure enough time has passed since the controls were designed

Question 132

The organization's chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can't currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

Question 133

Which of the following conditions classifies an engagement as a consulting service provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement previously worked in the area under review and lacks objectivity.

B.

The internal audit engagement will involve providing an opinion on the effectiveness of controls.

C.

The internal auditor assigned to the engagement was specifically requested by management of the area under review.

D.

he internal audit engagement involves only two parties: the internal auditor and the engagement client.

Question 134

An audit client who was unsatisfied with the audit report rating called the chief audit executive (CAE) and complained that the internal auditor who performed the audit was biased because his spouse, who worked in the area under review, was on a list of employees to be terminated. Which of the following measures would be most appropriate to prevent this situation from arising?

Options:

A.

Initiating an internal investigation to clarify whether a biased judgment took place.

B.

Requiring the internal auditors to disclose any potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Requiring that the audit client disclose any potential conflicts of interest with the auditor.

D.

Requiring human resources manager to submit all future job applicants' data in order to identify relatives of auditors.

Question 135

With regard to organizational governance assurance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

Assess compliance with the organization's code of conduct

B.

Oversee the governance and risk management processes

C.

Initiate new organizational control processes

D.

Provide advice on organizational governance activities

Question 136

An external assessment of an organization's internal audit activity was last completed four years ago Which of the following options would be acceptable this year if the internal audit activity is to fulfill the requirements of the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity conducts a self-assessment that is validated by a qualified and experienced internal auditor and then schedules a qualified, independent external assessor

B.

The board nominates an independent individual from senior management in the organization to conduct an assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

An external auditor conducts an audit of the organization which includes information about the internal audit activity

D.

The chief audit executive schedules a self-assessment and the board approves the results

Question 137

During fieldwork, an internal auditor located a significant internal control issue. Without identifying the origins of the issue, the auditor concluded the engagement and included the issue in the final audit report. To enhance audit quality, which of the following skills should the internal auditor improve?

Options:

A.

Business acumen.

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Communication.

D.

Audit report writing.

Question 138

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor's competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 139

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 140

When would on-the-job training be more effective?

Options:

A.

When participants already have a certain degree of experience and knowledge.

B.

When it makes up the largest part of the training budget.

C.

When it includes ongoing feedback and coaching from experienced team members.

D.

When it is standardized for the whole entire staff.

Question 141

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity's contribution to the implementation of the risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Internal audit identifies key risk areas during assurance reviews and provides audit findings.

B.

Internal audit assists with the prioritization of identified risks.

C.

Internal audit participates in setting the risk appetite.

D.

Internal audit takes part in the design of risk mitigation measures.

Question 142

Which of the following items related to the quality assurance and improvement program should the chief audit executive report to the board?

Options:

A.

Ongoing monitoring results

B.

Periodic management assessment results

C.

Annual risk assessment results

D.

Internal auditors' training evaluation results

Question 143

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding ISO 31000?

Options:

A.

The key principles approach checks whether each element of the risk management process is in place.

B.

The framework is effective in addressing the organization's structure, size, and risk profile but not its culture objectives.

C.

The end point for improving an organization s approach to risk management should be a gap analysis that evaluates any changes.

D.

A combination of the three primary approaches to the framework generally yields the most information despite the complexity

Question 144

The chief audit executive of an organization assigns audit resources to undertake a consulting engagement requested by senior management the previous year, and a scheduled assurance audit of the procurement process Which of the following appropriately differentiates the two engagements?

Options:

A.

The details of assurance services are expected to be included in the risk-based audit plan; this is not the case for consulting services.

B.

The objectivity of assurance services is impaired when undertaken by internal auditors who have had recent prior responsibility in the area under review; this is not the case for consulting services

C.

The performance of assurance services may be outsourced for competency gaps: this is not the case for consulting services.

D.

The results of assurance services are required to be monitored; this is not the case for consulting services

Question 145

Due to unfavorable economic conditions management decided to postpone new investments for the next year. Which of the following best describes the risk management strategy used to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk reduction

D.

Risk transfer

Question 146

Which of the following is a primary benefit of implementing a governance risk management and compliance framework within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fewer internal audits

B.

More effective interviews

C.

Automated risk management strategy tools

D.

Reduced assurance costs

Question 147

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank's IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

Options:

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

Question 148

Which of the following is most accurate concerning corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

A moral agent in an organization makes decisions that are based on the rules and regulations of the organization as they apply to human resources decisions

B.

The utilitarian approaching deciding on ethical dilemmas is concerned with choosing the simplest solution that will apply to the most people

C.

Ethics are not defined by laws but they are not a matter of free choice ethics are based on standards of conduct derived from shared principles and values

D.

The individualism approach to ethical decision making is focused on implementing a customized long-term outcome that is most beneficial for the entire organization

Question 149

Which of the following is a strategic risk that internal auditors should consider when performing a third-party risk management engagement?

Options:

A.

Physical security

B.

Loss of intellectual property

C.

Cost overruns

D.

Conflict of interest

Question 150

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding a consulting engagement involving an organization's new payroll system?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor and engagement client established an understanding that the scope would include the new payroll system project.

B.

The payroll system engagement was scheduled as a result of internal audit's risk-based annual planning process.

C.

The internal auditor concluded that the engagement objectives would include assessing the effectiveness of the payroll process controls.

D.

The internal auditor acknowledged the engagement client’s satisfactory performance in the final engagement results that were communicated to senior management and the board.

Question 151

Which of the following would most likely represent an objectivity impairment for an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Providing fraud awareness training and disseminating information regarding the organization's fraud hotline.

B.

Performing consulting services after disclosing that the auditor had previous responsibilities in the area under review.

C.

Performing an assurance engagement related to the cash receipts process three years after transferring to the internal audit activity from accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a compliance audit on a vendor prior to disclosing that the vendor's office manager is the auditor’s brother.

Question 152

Which of the following statements is true regarding management's use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances management's ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

Introducing judgment generally diminishes management's ability to make good decisions about internal control.

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

Question 153

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

A description of their job responsibilities,

Options:

A.

A non-disclosure agreement.

B.

An annual declaration of commitment to

C.

The IIA s Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter.

Question 154

Which of the following statements best describes internal auditors' role in fraud detection?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' roles are similar to those performed by loss prevention managers or fraud investigators.

B.

Internal auditors' demonstration of adequate professional skepticism during an audit engagement is of paramount importance.

C.

Internal auditors should consider fraud risks in every assignment and demonstrate due care by detecting fraud instances.

D.

Internal auditors should possess a fraud-related body of knowledge, enabling them to carry out preventative and detective measures.

Question 155

Which of the following scenarios provides the most concerning red flag or indicator of possible fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee receives a bonus for perfect attendance

B.

During the past 18 months three chief financial officers have left the organization after having been promoted to the position

C.

The organization does not perform any due diligence research on third party service providers

D.

Three competitors are highly profitable but a fourth equal in size is approaching bankruptcy limits

Question 156

Which of the following should an internal auditor take into consideration when making a judgement regarding whether management selected appropriate risk responses?

Options:

A.

Significant risks

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 157

During a payroll audit, a staff internal auditor suspects that signatures on some of the documents being sampled for examination are not authentic. Which of the following actions should the auditor take before proceeding with the examination?

Options:

A.

Suggest to the payroll manager that the suspicious documents should be sent to the organization's security department for forensic review.

B.

Keep the suspicious documents in the workpaper file until the end of the engagement, and then discuss the suspicions with the payroll manager.

C.

Discuss the suspicious documents with payroll staff to seek their views on the authenticity of the signatures.

D.

Review the suspicious documents with the chief audit executive and seek advice concerning further examination.

Question 158

Which of the following is an appropriate roe fa the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization's key risks are managed through appropriate controls.

B.

Assisting the organization in maintaining effective controls.

C.

implementing new controls to promote continuous improvement

D.

Validating control assessments performed by the external auditor.

Question 159

Which of the following indicates that internal audit independence may be compromised?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor maintains a close personal relationship with operational management.

B.

Material observations were intentionally left out of the audit report.

C.

Internal auditors assigned to the audit engagement did not have the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform their responsibilities.

D.

An internal auditor failed to apply professional skepticism while performing audit tests in an area overseen by an experienced, reputable manager

Question 160

In which of the following situations has the internal auditor violated the IIA's Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

An employee confided in an internal auditor and told him about fradulent activities. Although the employee asked for confidentially, the auditor disclosed her identity later during police questioning.

B.

While auditing payroll controls, an auditor was granted temporary access to salary data. The auditor referred to the acquired information while negotiating her work conditions three months later.

C.

Management considers an auditor to be highly competent and asked the audit to participate in an upcoming acquisition project. The auditor declined the request, calming a lack of knowledge.

D.

An internal auditor failed to acquire the continuing education credits needed for the year and requested that. The IIA change his certification status to inactive until the completed the required education activities.

Question 161

Which of the following organizations is adopting an acceptance technique in terms of its risk response?

Options:

A.

An organization that takes no action in managing the possible exposure to an earthquake.

B.

An organization that opts out of investing in a new region due to volatility in foreign exchange rates.

C.

An organization that takes out insurance policies to protect its property and equipment.

D.

An organization that deploys policies and procedures to guide business activities and practices

Question 162

A chief audit executive assigned an internal auditor to perform an assurance engagement. The auditor concluded with a major audit finding based on hearsay evidence Which of the following competencies did the auditor appear to be lacking?

Options:

A.

Effective communication skills

B.

Risk-based assurance knowledge

C.

Demonstration of due professional care.

D.

Demonstration of ethical behavior

Question 163

A chief audit executive (CAE) was asked by senior management to establish and manage a risk management function. A new chief risk officer was hired a year later to assume these responsibilities. As this function was included in the current annual audit plan, the CAE engaged an external resource for a risk management engagement. Which of the following potential threats to objectivity was the CAE likely addressing?

Options:

A.

Self-review threat.

B.

Advocacy threat.

C.

Familiarity threat.

D.

Personal relationship threat.

Question 164

In a retail organization, sales teams compete with each other to achieve and exceed sales targets. Each quarter, the members of the top sales team receive a bonus. In this environment, management should closely monitor for the emergence of which of the following potential risks?

Options:

A.

Risks related to employee turnover.

B.

Risks related to data manipulation.

C.

Risks related to employee competency.

D.

Risks related to not achieving sales targets.

Question 165

The internal audit activity conducted an organization wide risk assessment. One of the most significant risks identified is associated with the oil price market. The chief audit executive (CAE) is considering including in the annual audit plan an assessment of the effectiveness of oil price risk management. The manager responsible commented that the assessment was not needed, as market risks were regularly addressed by the financial risk committee. If the CAE decides to include this activity in the annual audit plan anyway, how should it be recorded?

Options:

A.

A consulting engagement independent of the financial risk committee's review.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

An assurance engagement.

D.

A joint consulting engagement with input from the financial risk committee.

Question 166

A fraud investigation was completed by management, and a proven fraud was communicated to relevant authorities. According to IIA guidance, which of the following roles would be most appropriate for the internal audit activity to undertake after the investigation?

Options:

A.

Plan employee sessions and team building strategies for the organization to improve awareness of fraud among employees

B.

Review the investigation and implement any improvements to the process.

C.

Conduct lessons learned sessions to ascertain how the fraud occurred and which controls failed.

D.

Determine why the fraud was not detected earlier and design controls to strengthen early detection.

Question 167

Which of the following actions best demonstrates an internal auditor exercising due professional care?

Options:

A.

Testing an entire population, even when a sample would suffice

B.

Using technology and data analysis techniques for efficiency

C.

Enhancing knowledge, skills, and other competencies through professional development

D.

Establishing audit objectives, performing audit tests, and implementing missing controls

Question 168

Senior management relies on the professional judgment of an internal auditor and uses outcomes of her audit work to make business decisions Which of the following personal qualities displayed by the internal auditor is most likely the foundation for this relationship?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Negotiation skills.

C.

Business acumen

D.

Flexibility

Question 169

Which of the following is an example of an entity-level control pertaining to the finance area of an organization'?

Options:

A.

Key account reconciliation such as bank reconciliation

B.

Segregation of duties between posting and reviewing journal entnes

C.

A signing authority matrix for spending approvals

D.

The establishment of a finance and audit committee

Question 170

At the beginning of an IT development project, key risks were identified and assessed, and risk owners were appointed. Six months later, the IT development team reported that the project is significantly over budget, it will not be completed on time, and key personnel had left the organization. Which of the following risk management practices should be improved for future projects?

Options:

A.

Risk response

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk avoidance

Question 171

Which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to disclose in the communication of quality assessment results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

The cost and frequency of both internal and external assessments.

B.

Any assumptions made by the assessment team

C.

A potential conflict of interest of the assessment team.

D.

The assessment team’s execution plan of relevant procedures.

Question 172

An organization is in the process of hiring a new chief audit executive (CAE). Which of the following can the potential candidates expect to be a part of the recruiting process or in place when the CAE is hired?

Options:

A.

There are checks to determine the existence of any potential conflict of interest.

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the highest level of management, the CEO.

C.

The CAE’s compensation depends on the performance of the organizational departments.

D.

Hiring and termination of the CAE is dependent on the decision of senior executives.

Question 173

An organization is conducting a fraud risk assessment as part ol its risk management program. Which of the following steps is the organization most likely to perform first?

Options:

A.

Identify relevant fraud risk factors.

B.

Identify potential fraud schemes.

C.

Identify existing controls for preventing and detecting fraud.

D.

Identify red flags by conducting data analysis.

Question 174

During a quality assessment of the internal audit activity an auditor is assessing whether the independence of the internal audit activity is at risk of being compromised. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would provide the best source of evidence for such an assessment?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart showing the reporting line of the chief audit executive to the CEO

B.

The internal audit charter as endorsed by the organization’s governing body

C.

A review of the audit opinions issued from a sample of recent audit engagements

D.

An assessment of the scope of the audit work performed by the internal au

Question 175

In which of the following scenarios would the internal auditor’s objectivity be best protected?

Options:

A.

A former human resources manager conducts an effectiveness review of the appointment and termination process six months after transferring to the internal audit activity.

B.

An accounts payable clerk assists the internal auditors during an effectiveness review of the physical access controls to the server room.

C.

An internal auditor writes the system manual for a newly acquired payroll software application prior to conducting an effectiveness review of the system.

D.

An internal auditor conducts an effectiveness review of an organization's business continuity plan in which his son is a minority stockholder.

Question 176

Which of the following should catch the internal auditor's attention as a potential red flag for fraud?

Options:

A.

The accounting unit keeps detailed records and preserves supporting documentation in excess of company requirements

B.

One of the subsidiaries has more bank accounts than any other comparable subsidiary

C.

The same external audit firm has been with the company for three years without rotation

D.

The arithmetic median tenure of employees working at production facilities is 15 years

Question 177

When issuing his department’s performance report, a sales director in an insurance company knowingly fails to correct the reserves for unearned income that resulted from cancellations of policy subscriptions. This could be considered which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation

B.

Skimming

C.

Disbursement fraud

D.

Information misrepresentation

Question 178

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the internal audit activity's quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Internal assessments rely solely on the review of completed audit engagements for demonstrated performance.

B.

The chief audit executive is responsible for assessing the suitability and competence of an external assessor.

C.

QAIP results must first be discussed with the board and approval obtained for distribution to senior management.

D.

At the board's discretion, the frequency of external assessments can exceed the five-year guideline.

Question 179

An internal auditor is reviewing employee travel expenses from the previous six months for fraud. Which of the following tests would best detect instances where personal travel has been claimed?

Options:

A.

Verifying whether claims have been properly authorized for payment

B.

Verifying whether claims are properly supported by invoices or other documents.

C.

Confirming that all claims are within the limits of the organization's travel policy.

D.

Reconciling claims against business the requests that were approved by supervisors

Question 180

A telecommunications organization is planning to cease operations in one or the markets in which it operates due to increasing volatility and uncertainties. Which of the following risk management techniques is the organization selecting?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk avoidance.

C.

Risk sharing.

D.

Risk reduction.

Question 181

Which of the following statements relating to risk management is true?

Options:

A.

The high-level risk assessment performed during engagement planning is a detailed step-by-step analytical process

B.

External auditors must be engaged to evaluate the potential for fraud and how the organization manages fraud risk

C.

A lack of controls is acceptable if the risk is reduced to an acceptable level in some other way

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for managing the risks of the organization

Question 182

According to IIA guidance, a new internal auditor is expected to possess which of the following competencies?

Options:

A.

Technical industry-specific expertise.

B.

Expertise in cybersecurity, an area of increasing risk.

C.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls.

D.

Knowledge of forensic accounting.

Question 183

According to NA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1. A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects

the organization.

2. Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3. Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s

records.

4, Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.B.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 184

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization's quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards'?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

Question 185

A regional entertainment organization is in the process of developing a corporate social responsibility (CSR) policy. Management invites ideas from employees when developing the CSR policy. Which of the following is the most appropriate idea to include?

Options:

A.

Management has overall responsibility for the effectiveness of governance, risk management, and internal control processes associated with CSR.

B.

The board is responsible for ensuring that CSR objectives are established, risks are managed, performance is measured, and activities are appropriately monitored and reported.

C.

Management is responsible for ensuring that the organization’s CSR principles are communicated, understood, and integrated into decision-making processes.

D.

Generally, CSR activities are limited to the management of the organization; thus, employees do not have a responsibility for ensuring the success of CSR objectives.

Question 186

A whistleblower reveals to the chief audit executive (CAE) detailed allegations of potential fraud at the senior management level. Although the CAE has some experience in the area, she chooses to retain an external fraud expert to conduct the investigation. When asked by the director of finance to defend the expenditure, which of the following statements represents the CAE's best response?

Options:

A.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her independence, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

B.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that the internal audit activity must obtain competent assistance if needed.

C.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her objectivity, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

D.

The CAE describes the specifics of the allegation to underscore the importance of the situation and the need for expert investigation

Question 187

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement'?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement's objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

Question 188

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance.

Question 189

Which of the following is an example of corruption?

Options:

A.

Recognizing revenue up front rather than over a contract’s life to inflate revenue for the current period

B.

Requesting reimbursement for overstated travel and entertainment expense amount

C.

Misstating realized foreign currency transaction gains or losses

D.

Demanding payment from a vendor for decisions made in the vendor’s favor

Question 190

According to IIA guidance, which of the following most appropriately justifies the CEO’s decision that the internal audit activity shall be responsible for risk management and investigation at a multinational organization?

Options:

A.

The recommendation of the parent office external auditors.

B.

The provisions of the internal audit charter

C.

The authority of the CEO.

D.

The level of proficiency of the chief audit executive

Question 191

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan,

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 192

Due to the increased operational responsibility of the CEO the chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO) What is the likely impact of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation in the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CFO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expertise of finance staff can be called upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 193

A chief audit executive has reported to the board that the internal audit activity is lacking financial accounting knowledge for specific audit projects. Upon approval from the board which of the following hiring approaches is best in this situation?

Options:

A.

An inbound rotational program

B.

A full-time permanent recruitment

C.

An outbound rotational program

D.

A guest auditor program

Question 194

Which of the following statements is true regarding the importance of risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk management ensures the ability to eliminate potential hazards to the organization.

B.

Risk management includes consideration of potential opportunities for the organization.

C.

Risk management aids with the establishment of appropriate key performance indicators.

D.

Risk management increases employees' commitment and belief in strategic goals.

Question 195

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit

Question 196

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Consulting engagements typically involve four or five parties: the internal audit activity, engagement client, senior management, board, and sometimes the external auditor.

B.

The scope of a consulting engagement is determined by either the engagement supervisor or chief audit executive, and it is finalized prior to beginning fieldwork.

C.

According to the Standards, internal auditors are permitted to carry out certain management functions during a consulting engagement.

D.

A preliminary risk assessment may not be needed for consulting engagements, because the expectations and objectives of the engagement are determined by the engagement client.

Question 197

Once an organization's risks are identified, what would be the next step to ensure resources are properly allocated to manage those risks?

Options:

A.

Risk responses must be selected.

B.

Risks must be assessed.

C.

The risk universe must be established.

D.

Risk responses must be aligned.

Question 198

An organization is testing a new IT system for digital data storage and security. The internal audit activity has been asked to evaluate the system in a consulting engagement. Although several internal auditors on staff are qualified to perform basic assessments of IT systems, none are familiar with the new system. Which of the following is a legitimate response to the prospective client?

1. Decline the engagement.

2. Proceed with the engagement, performing only those parts of the engagement that the internal auditors are qualified to perform.

3. Accept the engagement and develop the additional competencies in-house prior to the engagement's starting date.

4. Make arrangements to obtain assistance from a competent IT auditing expert.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

1. 2, and 3 only.

D.

1, 3, and 4 only.

Question 199

An internal audit of warehouse inventory revealed no material deficiencies. However, management later discovered fraud, which occurred during the period that was audited, and determined that a major control deficiency allowed the fraud to occur. Given management's discovery, which of the following statements is valid?

Options:

A.

The internal auditors violated the standard for due professional care because they did not detect the fraud, even though it occurred during the period that was reviewed.

B.

The internal auditors should have had sufficient knowledge of fraud to identify red flags indicating possible fraud.

C.

The internal auditors could not have detected the fraud due to collusion among employees in the inventory unit.

D.

The internal auditors are not responsible for considering fraud risk, which is a management responsibility.

Question 200

While conducting an engagement in the procurement department, the internal auditor noticed that the department head’s travel reports showed minor travel expenses, and there were no charges for hotels, meals, or transportation. However, the auditor knew that the department head frequently traveled worldwide to meet with suppliers and visit their production sites. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor should make a note of the issue for follow-up when employee travel expenses are audited.

B.

The auditor should analyze trends and changes among the organization’s suppliers over the past few years.

C.

The auditor should investigate whether there are any special arrangements regarding senior management travel.

D.

The auditor should analyze the list of destinations the department head visited to estimate typical costs.

Question 201

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Serves third parties that need reliable financial information from audit engagements

B.

Responds to the needs and desires of senior management and the board, but remains independent of areas under review

C.

Ensures the organization complies with laws and regulations in the area under review

D.

Is completely independent of senior management, the board and the area under review

Question 202

An electric company hires several independent contractors to trim trees that are in close proximity to electricity lines. Which of the following would be the most effective control to mitigate the risk of contractors submitting fraudulent invoices regarding work completed?

Options:

A.

Require contractors to submit completed and signed work acceptance sheets

B.

Utilize unmanned drones to conduct regular flights and photo shoots over the areas where work is performed

C.

Reconcile invoices and work acceptance sheets submitted by contractors

D.

Compare actual payments to contractors with budgeted values and analyze discrepancies

Question 203

An internal auditor notes that inventory counts are conducted on Mondays only and that all documentation is on paper as there are no computers in the underground warehouses. Also she notices that the person responsible for receiving the goods is the same one who distributes materials and spare parts Finally, she sees that spare parts are written off and taken by the heads of mining units to different underground locations to wait for their turn to be installed. Which of the described findings requires more consideration from a fraud risk perspective?

Options:

A.

The job responsibilities of the warehouse employee compromise segregation of duties

B.

Spare parts are written off before their actual usage and installation

C.

Warehouse management is conducted on paper and requires further investigation

D.

The inventory counts take place on specific days of the week for no apparent reason

Question 204

The results of an assessment of the adequacy of controls would be considered incomplete or misleading unless the internal auditor considers which of the following?

Options:

A.

Number of mitigating controls.

B.

Effectiveness of the control environment

C.

Use of computer-assisted auditing techniques.

D.

IT security controls

Question 205

Which of the following options describes the reason that conformance with The IIA's Code of Ethics is mandatory for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder confidence in the competence of the internal audit activity and of professional internal auditors.

B.

Ethical compliance is necessary for internal auditors and the internal audit activity to accept responsibility for providing g absolute assurance about the organization's risk management.

C.

Ethical compliance provides the basis for stakeholder trust and confidence in the validity of the profession of internal auditing and the internal audit activity's findings.

D.

The internal audit activity's ethical compliance sets the tone for the ethical compliance by the organization's board, management, and employees.

Question 206

A manufacturer of power tools is experiencing regular fluctuations in the price of electrical power which is having a serious impact on the bottom line. Which of the following would be the most effective risk strategy to reduce the impact of these fluctuations?

Options:

A.

Use an average cost for power to smooth the bottom line.

B.

Analyze the amount of power used to produce each power tool.

C.

Review the current process to identify opportunities to reduce power usage.

D.

Use a forward contract for bulk power purchases

Question 207

When performing an audit of the risk management process an auditor makes the observations listed below. Which poses the greatest risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

The identified risks have not undergone a detailed review to ensure completeness in the past two years.

B.

The controls in place to mitigate the risks are not tested on an annual basis to confirm operating effectiveness.

C.

The process in place to identify and evaluate new risks to the organization is informal and poorly documented.

D.

The identified risks have not been ranked to establish their importance and risk management priority.

Question 208

Which of the following is (he most effective way any organization can ensure proper governance over its internal controls?

Options:

A.

By adopting the best practices of similar organizations in the industry.

B.

By adjusting their internal control framework as business practices evolve.

C.

By introducing the universally accepted COSO internal control framework.

D.

By encouraging the internal audit activity to provide training on internal controls.

Question 209

The management at a national consumer goods organization implements a fair work and pay practice as well as a policy to treat employees equitably and consistently.

Which common characteristics of fraud will the practice and policy most likely reduce?

Options:

A.

Pressure or incentive.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Commitment.

Question 210

Which of the following represents an example of an ethical issue that the organization should address'?

Options:

A.

An employee discovered that there is no personal protective equipment at a temporary construction site

B.

An employee saw that a group of other employees were smoking in close proximity to petrol distribution tanks

C.

A supervisor insists that an employee complete time sheets regularly

D.

An employee received concert tickets from a vendor and asked whether she could keep them

Question 211

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced.

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department.

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year.

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity.

Question 212

In an internal audit charter, which of the following statements regarding the chief audit executive (CAE) would be most directly related to describing the responsibilities of the internal audit activity*?

Options:

A.

The CAE shall report functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE and the Internal audit activity shall have full access to any and all records and personnel of the organization that are relevant to audit engagements

C.

The CAE and the internal audit activity shall be independent and objective in performing their work.

D.

The CAE shall report periodically on the performance of the internal audit activity relative to its plan

Question 213

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of tie engagement were included m a written report mat was issued to the cleint who requested me engagement

C.

During audit planning the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of fie system

Question 214

At what point in time can an organization conclude that the established organizational governance framework was correctly implemented?

Options:

A.

When the internal auditor conducts observations and fieldwork.

B.

When management completes the risk assessment.

C.

When the internal auditor evaluation shows its soundness.

D.

When the organization's goals and objectives are met.

Question 215

Which of the following best illustrates the principle of due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity uses key performance indicators for all staff members after all audit engagements.

B.

The internal auditors provide assurance to third parties indicating that their work was properly supervised.

C.

The internal auditors demonstrate they have an understanding of engagement objectives and scope.

D.

The internal auditors are heavily involved in training and development to enhance their skills.

Question 216

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate for a chief audit executive to include in the internal audit policy manual in order to promote objectivity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors may conduct a financial effectiveness engagement in a business unit at any point after being transferred from that area.

B.

Internal auditors may conclude that a business unit's current control environment is adequate and effective if the review of the prior year's workpapers and audit report supports that conclusion.

C.

Internal auditors may conduct an engagement in a business unit at any point after providing a training workshop in that area.

D.

Internal auditors should limit the scope of an engagement if they become aware of a potential impairment of their objectivity in order to reduce the potential impact of the impairment on the engagement results.

Question 217

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions. The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago.

How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is a consulting engagement, because she recently worked in the organization's accounting department.

B.

Accept, if it is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department that the engagement can take place in the future, once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, if it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by the internal audit activity.

Question 218

The internal audit activity is asked to provide consulting services regarding the risks related to implementing a proposed new Inventory management system. Which of the following would be a key consideration of the internal audit activity in accepting this engagement?

Options:

A.

Ask the inventory manager to determine whether the work planned would be sufficient to meet the consulting engagement objectives.

B.

Ensure that the method used to communicate the results of the consulting engagement is consistent with the board's preferred method.

C.

Determine whether the benefits to be derived from the requested assessment would exceed the cost of providing the consulting service.

D.

Use email and telephone conversations to convey the results of the engagement, as these may prove to be the most efficient methods for communicating.

Question 219

Which of the following drivers of fraud is directly controllable by an organization?

Options:

A.

Pressure

B.

Rationalization

C.

Opportunity

D.

Incentive

Question 220

Which of the following would be considered a monitoring activity in organization wide risk management?

Options:

A.

Validate the results of management's self-assessment.

B.

Perform reviews of personnel.

C.

Maintain rigorous and comprehensive documentation.

D.

Obtain authorizations and signatures.

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Total 735 questions