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IIA IIA-CIA-Part1 Dumps

Internal Audit Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following situations best describes an internal auditor who may have violated the IIA Code of Ethics principle of confidentiality?

Options:

A.

The auditor intentionally omitted from his resume that he was fired from his previous job for fraud allegations,

B.

The auditor decided not to notify her supervisor that her brother-in-law was responsible for the project the auditor was expected to evaluate.

C.

The auditor asked the audit client to copy requested files to her personal unencrypted memory stick because it was faster and more convenient.

D.

The auditor was assigned to analyze the organization ' s incentive program and spent long hours reviewing other employees’ bonuses,

Question 2

Which of the following should be implemented to promote independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors do not review an area where they previously worked

B.

The internal audit charter is reviewed and updated annually

C.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board

D.

Management does not influence the consulting services provided by the internal audit activity

Question 3

An internal auditor creates a professional development plan to obtain more experience in the organization ' s environmental, social, and corporate governance initiatives. Which of the following would the auditor include in the plan to support these objectives?

Options:

A.

A plan to study for and obtain a certification in nonprofit management.

B.

A deadline within the individual development plan to meet the overall engagement objectives.

C.

A plan to perform a variety of engagements to develop general skills that could be used to assess environmental, social, and governance initiatives.

D.

A request to attend the organization ' s committee meeting that is focused on strategic community awareness.

Question 4

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

Strategic objectives are prerequisites to establishing internal controls.

B.

Internal controls eliminate process breakdowns caused by human errors.

C.

Well-established internal controls cannot be overridden.

D.

Robust internal controls ensure business success.

Question 5

Which of the following scenarios demonstrates an impairment to internal audit independence?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor s denied access to partner information from management of me area under review

B.

The internal auditor tarts to disclose a potential conflict of interest relationship with management of the area under review

C.

The internal auditor concludes that controls operate effectively, although he did not gather supporting evidence

D.

The internal auditor was assigned to an assurance review of an area for which he previously had responsibilities

Question 6

Which of the following scenarios would cause a chief audit executive (CAE) to immediately discontinue using any statements that would indicate conformance with the Standards in an audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity used a risk-based approach to create the internal audit plan.

B.

The engagement supervisor considered requests from senior management regarding engagements to include in the internal audit plan.

C.

The CAE only accepted engagements that the internal audit activity collectively had the knowledge to perform.

D.

The area under review restricted the internal audit activity ' s ability to access records, impacting the audit results.

Question 7

Which of the following is an example of a risk avoidance strategy?

Options:

A.

Outsourcing the payroll function

B.

Installing cameras in the mailroom

C.

Exiting a product line

D.

Insuring all fixed assets

Question 8

In which of the following scenarios would the internal auditor’s objectivity be best protected?

Options:

A.

A former human resources manager conducts an effectiveness review of the appointment and termination process six months after transferring to the internal audit activity.

B.

An accounts payable clerk assists the internal auditors during an effectiveness review of the physical access controls to the server room.

C.

An internal auditor writes the system manual for a newly acquired payroll software application prior to conducting an effectiveness review of the system.

D.

An internal auditor conducts an effectiveness review of an organization ' s business continuity plan in which his son is a minority stockholder.

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding organizational culture and an audit of the control environment?

Options:

A.

For multinational organizations it is important to ensure that the organizational culture is consistent at all locations

B.

Because the chief audit executive (CAE) is part of the organizational culture, external auditors should be engaged to evaluate the control environment

C.

If there are unresolved scope restrictions, the CAE should consider whether to pursue the audit and note the scope restrictions in the audit report

D.

Because it will create a conflict of interest relating to the control environment, senior management should not be consulted during the audit

Question 10

Which of the following is an example of impairment to internal auditor independence or objectivity ' ?

Options:

A.

Assurance engagements for functions over which the chief audit executive (CAE) has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

B.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they had previous responsibilities

C.

Internal auditors provide consulting services relating to operations for which they have current responsibilities

D.

Consulting engagements for functions over which the CAE has responsibility are overseen by a party outside the internal audit activity

Question 11

During an assurance engagement, an internal auditor reviews a tender inviting vendors to submit bids to supply financial services software to the organization. She suspects that the tender was tailored for the bidder who eventually won the contract. What should the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Review payments made for the financial services software.

B.

Confront a procurement specialist with the suspicion.

C.

Submit an anonymous tip to the whistleblower hotline.

D.

Analyze technical terms and conditions of the tender.

Question 12

Which principle of the HA Code of Ethics focuses on continuing education and professional development?

Options:

A.

Due professional care

B.

Professionalism

C.

Proficiency

D.

Competency

Question 13

Which of the following would best assist the internal audit activity in assessing whether an organization ' s responses to risk are aligned with its risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the results of successful testing of controls and monitoring procedures implemented by management

B.

Determining that there are no gaps between the internal auditors ' risk assessment and the risk assessment performed by the organization

C.

Obtaining evidence that employees throughout the organization are aware of the organization s risk appetite

D.

Verifying that previously identified organizational risks were documented in board meeting minutes

Question 14

Management decided to post the organization ' s newly established code of conduct on its website. This decision is primarily intended to mitigate which of the following risks?

Options:

A.

Accountability risk.

B.

Communication risk.

C.

Knowledge risk.

D.

Cultural risk.

Question 15

According to NA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive would best ensure that internal auditors demonstrate due professional care?

Options:

A.

Developing policies and procedures for the internal audit activity.

B.

Ensuring the internal audit activity is not found fallible during audit engagements.

C.

Undertaking all engagements that management requests of the internal audit activity.

D.

Ensuring the internal audit activity reports functionally to the board of directors.

Question 16

Which of the following is considered to be a threat to the internal auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

The auditor drafted the operational procedures of the area that she is currently auditing.

B.

The auditor received a bonus that was approved by the board of directors.

C.

The assigned auditor recommended operational procedures for the organization.

D.

The assigned auditor rotated out of the same business activity three years ago

Question 17

A manufacturing organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) was approached by the head of security from one of the manufacturer ' s third party suppliers The head of security requested internal audit records from a recent audit engagement involving the third-party supplier The head of security believed those records contained information that would enable to identify employees of the third-party supplier who may be involved m fraudulent activities What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Obtain approval from the manufacturer ' s audit committee regarding the release of audit records

B.

Release the records but first remove all data regarding the manufacturing organization s internal actions and procedures

C.

Deny access to the records as the third party supplier s security learn should be able to investigate then own employees.

D.

Consult with the manufacturer ' s senior management to determine whether releasing tie records would be appropriate

Question 18

Whch ol the following would show appropriate disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) documented in the personal file a critical conflict of interest involving an internal audit on a upcoming contracting engagement.

B.

The CAE discussed with the board an issue regarding the internal activity performing an IT engagement without proper skills and knowledge.

C.

The CAE met with the peer review team to discuss an internal auditor’s failure to meet the annual requirements for continuing professional education.

D.

The CAE revealed to revealed to operational manager that he failed to appropriately consider risks while he was developing the audit plan.

Question 19

An internal auditor was assigned to work in the procurement department for six months to gam m-depth knowledge about the procurement process. Which of the following personnel development practices was applied in this situation?

Options:

A.

Cosourcing

B.

Inbound rotation

C.

Guest auditor

D.

Outbound rotation

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true regarding the independent peer review process undertaken to fulfill the requirement for an external quality assessment?

Options:

A.

Two individuals in the same internal audit activity may perform an independent peer review as long as they do not report to the same audit manager

B.

Individuals from a separate but related organization such as an affiliate may perform peer reviews

C.

Individuals working in separate internal audit activities may be considered independent as long as do not report to the same chief audit executive

D.

Peer reviews are generally less cost-effective than hiring an external quality assessor

Question 21

While auditing an organization ' s credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditor ' s relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative ' s information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative is a customer.

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement.

Question 22

According to IIA guidance, which policy, established by the chief audit executive, would most likely ensure internal audits are conducted with due professional care?

Options:

A.

The initial review of workpapers should be conducted after the final engagement report is issued.

B.

Independent internal assessments of the internal audit activity should be performed by entry-level staff as part of on-the-job training.

C.

Internal audit staff should be informed regularly of changes to policies and procedures.

D.

Training documents should be destroyed at the end of the year to create space for the next year ' s training documents.

Question 23

Which of the following techniques should an internal auditor use in order to conduct an effective interview?

Options:

A.

Use technical language to establish credibility with the employee being interviewed

B.

Avoid straightforward questions to make the person being interviewed think before answering

C.

Prepare the next question while the interviewee is responding to demonstrate preparedness

D.

Appear confident but not arrogant during the interview to show professionalism

Question 24

An organization opened its warehouse to sell written-off surplus and outdated office furniture to the general public. Prices were negotiable, and customers could pay by cash, check, or credit card. Receipts were available upon request, and were issued by the inventory manager upon collection of payment. At the end of the day, the manager forwarded all of the funds he had collected to the finance department for deposit. Which of the following types of fraud is most likely to occur under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Bribery.

C.

Falsifying records.

D.

Skimming

Question 25

An internal auditor at a multinational organization is reviewing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management framework. In this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor should consider local cultures and customs in various regions when assessing control effectiveness.

B.

Regardless of their location, employees at all levels share responsibility for designing effective controls to mitigate risks.

C.

To achieve an effective internal control environment, the organization ' s risk management plan must be documented and communicated to all levels throughout each region.

D.

Setting clear objectives is a precondition to effectively identifying, assessing, and responding to the organization ' s risks.

Question 26

An organization is conducting a fraud risk assessment as part ol its risk management program. Which of the following steps is the organization most likely to perform first?

Options:

A.

Identify relevant fraud risk factors.

B.

Identify potential fraud schemes.

C.

Identify existing controls for preventing and detecting fraud.

D.

Identify red flags by conducting data analysis.

Question 27

When beginning an engagement to assess the effectiveness of the organization ' s newly revamped risk management processes, which of the following should internal auditors review first?

Options:

A.

Key risk disclosures in the annual report.

B.

Existing risk assessment and identification processes.

C.

Organizational strategy and business plans.

D.

Risk mitigation plans and risk responses.

Question 28

An internal auditor is assessing the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management practices She checks to see whether risk management is an intégrai part of decision making and whether risk management is transparent, responsive to change and addresses uncertainty. According to HA guidance on risk management frameworks, which of the following approaches is the auditor most likely using?

Options:

A.

Maturity model approach

B.

Process element approach

C.

Key principles approach

D.

Key performance indicators approach.

Question 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate to help a new internal auditor understand the nature and positioning of the internal audit activity within his organization?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter.

B.

Examples of internal audit reports.

C.

The internal audit policy and procedures manual.

D.

The IIA’s International Professional Practices Framework.

Question 30

Which of the following statements is most likely to be true regarding a consulting engagement involving an organization ' s new payroll system?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor and engagement client established an understanding that the scope would include the new payroll system project.

B.

The payroll system engagement was scheduled as a result of internal audit ' s risk-based annual planning process.

C.

The internal auditor concluded that the engagement objectives would include assessing the effectiveness of the payroll process controls.

D.

The internal auditor acknowledged the engagement client’s satisfactory performance in the final engagement results that were communicated to senior management and the board.

Question 31

The accounting department asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to perform a review of suspicious transactions The CAE was an accounting manager for the organization six months ago How should she respond to the request?

Options:

A.

Decline, if it is consulting engagement because she recently worked in the organization s accounting department

B.

Accept, 11 is an assurance engagement, as she has been out of the department long enough to not impair objectivity.

C.

Inform the accounting department mat me engagement can take place m the future once she has been removed from accounting for a longer period of time.

D.

Accept, it is a consulting engagement with agreed-upon scope and services to be provided by me internal audit activity.

Question 32

Which of the following is a greater consideration for internal auditors when they are performing a consulting engagement than when they are performing an assurance engagement ' ?

Options:

A.

The relative complexity of the engagement

B.

The cost of the engagement relative to its benefits

C.

The extent of work needed to achieve the engagement ' s objective

D.

The needs and expectations of the engagement client

Question 33

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions best demonstrates due professional care by an internal auditor when she discovers a number of fraud-related red flags during an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Conclude the engagement and inform management that fraud has occurred

B.

Perform further testing to verify the existence of fraud.

C.

Suspend the engagement and undertake a formal fraud investigation.

D.

Notify the board of the possible fraud immediately

Question 34

Which of the following activities would breach the principles of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor is keeping personal notes from an engagement conducted on the organization ' s information system security for future use.

B.

The internal auditor is performing an engagement of the purchasing department where he used to work five years ago.

C.

The internal auditor is using information from a recent engagement to assist with a friend ' s business.

D.

The internal auditor is discussing relevant information involving questionable vendors with a government regulatory agency.

Question 35

Which of the following actions by an internal auditor would be the most relevant to determine the effectiveness of controls?

Options:

A.

Participate in a fraud risk-assessment session as an in-house facilitator.

B.

Send regular written updates to senior management on new control-related regulations.

C.

Lead a seminar on internal controls and provide numerous examples to the audience.

D.

Conduct a surprise inventory count at the raw materials warehouse.

Question 36

Which of the following is true for consulting engagements ' ?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must ensure management actions have been effectively implemented or risk accepted

B.

A work program for the engagement is not required but may be developed

C.

The nature of consulting services does not have to be in the internal audit charter

D.

Risks identified from the engagement must be considered when evaluating the organization ' s risk management processes

Question 37

Which of the following situations is most likely to prompt the internal audit activity to disclose its nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

One of the organization ' s senior internal auditors owns a side business, though to date, no sales have been made to this business.

B.

The annual internal audit plan includes performance audits of main business processes, but reviews of high-risk development projects were not considered.

C.

The internal audit activity committed to carrying out an audit of documentation on investment hed ging, and a hedging expert was contracted to assist with the engagement.

D.

A periodic quality self-assessment of the internal audit activity identified a number of improvement areas with regard to key performance indicators.

Question 38

Which of the following statements best represents the duo professional care that is required of internal auditor’s?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should perform assurance procedures to ensure that all significant risks are identified.

B.

Internal auditor should not perform consulting engagements for operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

C.

Internal auditors should consider the cost of assurance in relation to the potential benefits.

D.

Internal auditors should device internal audit programs to confirm that the results are accurate.

Question 39

Which of the following statements is true regarding external quality assessments?

Options:

A.

They can be performed by self-assessment with independent external validation, but they must be performed every three years.

B.

When a new chief audit executive (CAE) is appointed, an external quality assessment should be undertaken during the CAE’s first year of office.

C.

An external quality assessment must be conducted at least once every five years by a qualified, independent assessor or assessment team.

D.

An external assessment by a qualified professional from outside of the organization can be performed in place of an internal assessment.

Question 40

To assure that the technical proficiency of internal auditors is appropriate for the audit engagements to be performed, a chief audit executive should:

Options:

A.

Consider the scope of work and level of responsibility when establishing criteria for education and experience in filling internal audit positions.

B.

Ensure that each newly hired auditor is qualified in all of the disciplines needed to accomplish the department’s audit mission.

C.

Oversee a training program that matches the actual training provided with the interests of individual auditors.

D.

Require all of the audit staff to pursue a minimum number of continuing professional education hours each year

Question 41

The chief audit executive (CAE) annually develops a budget and resource plan and submits it to the board for approval. This action best fulfills which of the following responsibilities of the CAE?

Options:

A.

The responsibility to maintain organizational independence.

B.

The responsibility to perform engagements with due professional care.

C.

The responsibility to communicate corrective action plans to the board.

D.

The responsibility to define the purpose of the internal audit activity.

Question 42

Which of the following is a legitimate requirement for an internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Quality assessments should be performed by individuals with sufficient knowledge of the internal audit practices

B.

External quality assessments should be conducted every seven years

C.

All quality assessments should be either conducted or validated by an independent assessment team

D.

The results of the QAIP should be communicated to shareholders annually

Question 43

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

Question 44

An external assessment of an organization ' s internal audit activity was last completed four years ago Which of the following options would be acceptable this year if the internal audit activity is to fulfill the requirements of the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity conducts a self-assessment that is validated by a qualified and experienced internal auditor and then schedules a qualified, independent external assessor

B.

The board nominates an independent individual from senior management in the organization to conduct an assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

An external auditor conducts an audit of the organization which includes information about the internal audit activity

D.

The chief audit executive schedules a self-assessment and the board approves the results

Question 45

Which of the following statements best describes internal auditors ' role in fraud detection?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors ' roles are similar to those performed by loss prevention managers or fraud investigators.

B.

Internal auditors ' demonstration of adequate professional skepticism during an audit engagement is of paramount importance.

C.

Internal auditors should consider fraud risks in every assignment and demonstrate due care by detecting fraud instances.

D.

Internal auditors should possess a fraud-related body of knowledge, enabling them to carry out preventative and detective measures.

Question 46

Senior management asks the chief audit executive to review the organization ' s compliance with recently introduced legislation on international transfer pricing. The review requires an internal auditor who thoroughly understands the legislation and pricing methods. The internal audit activity does not have an auditor with those skills. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement to an external audit firm that has appropriate skills.

B.

Recruit a lawyer with knowledge of the legislation to the audit team and ask the new auditor to perform the engagement.

C.

Decline to perform the engagement, as the internal audit activity does not have the appropriate skill set.

D.

Carry out the engagement using existing internal audit staff to help them gain the appropriate experience.

Question 47

The board requested the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide consulting services for a new systems implementation project Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The CAE should avoid making decisions on risk responses within risk management processes.

B.

The CAE may only provide consulting and not assurance services in risk management processes

C.

The CAE may manage the project risks on behalf of management in this particular situation

D.

The CAE should avoid giving assurance on risk management processes in this particular situation

Question 48

Which of the following skills is critical for assessing corporate social responsibility through a self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Assessment skills

B.

Assurance skills

C.

Interviewing skills

D.

Facilitation skills

Question 49

Which of the following is a preventive control the organization could implement to mitigate fraudulent activity in the accounts payable department?

Options:

A.

Delivering fraud awareness training to employees in the department.

B.

Segregating duties between employees in the department.

C.

Requesting the internal audit activity perform an independent evaluation of fraud risk in the department.

D.

Requiring accounts payable employees to sign a code of conduct awareness confirmation.

Question 50

An IT contractor applied for an internal audit position at a bank. The contractor worked for the bank ' s IT security manager two years ago. If the audit manager interviewed the contractor and wants to extend a job offer, which of the following actions should the chief audit executive pursue?

Options:

A.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and state that the individual is free to perform IT audits, including security.

B.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, as it would be a conflict of interest

C.

Allow the audit manager to hire the contractor, but state that the individual is not allowed to work on IT security audits for one year.

D.

Not allow the audit manager to hire the contractor and ask the individual to apply again in one year.

Question 51

An employee accepts cash payments from customers and does not record the sale. This is an example of which of the following types of fraud?

Options:

A.

Asset misappropriation.

B.

Skimming

C.

Corruption.

D.

Lapping.

Question 52

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor ' s most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement.

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud.

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local law enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud.

Question 53

Which of the following would be included in quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP) reporting?

Options:

A.

Descriptions of standardized work practices.

B.

Outcomes of internal audit key performance indicators.

C.

Conformance of individual engagements with the Standards,

D.

Annual summaries of consulting and audit engagements.

Question 54

Which of the following scenarios would most significantly restrict the areas where internal audit could perform assurance services?

Options:

A.

Regulators mandate specific audit engagements to be included in the audit plan.

B.

The internal audit activity reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the CEO and functionally to the audit committee.

D.

The internal audit activity reports administratively to the chief financial officer.

Question 55

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the strongest indicator of deficiencies in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

The periodic evaluation of risk ratings is primarily dependent on subjective assessments.

B.

Separate evaluations of the risk management process were conducted, but the results were never integrated.

C.

Management ' s primary objective is minimizing changes to the structure and operation of the risk management process.

D.

Many aspects of the related enterprise risk management program are informal and undocumented.

Question 56

An internal auditor extended the scope of testing for a disbursements engagement following a fraud risk assessment Despite the investment of additional audit resources no significant issues were found Unfortunately a major payment fraud was discovered several

months later According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the internal auditor ' s application of due professional care?

Options:

A.

Due professional care was not applied because no additional work should have been performed unless there was actual evidence of fraud

B.

Due professional care was not applied because the extended scope resulted in no issues being identified, while fraud actually existed

C.

Due professional care was applied as the internal auditor modified the scope based on reasonable judgment, despite the additional cost of resources

D.

Due professional care was applied as the cost of audit resources should not be a determining factor in the degree of testing undertaken

Question 57

A third-party provider ' s questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization ' s risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider ' s labor practices.

Question 58

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Serves third parties that need reliable financial information from audit engagements

B.

Responds to the needs and desires of senior management and the board, but remains independent of areas under review

C.

Ensures the organization complies with laws and regulations in the area under review

D.

Is completely independent of senior management, the board and the area under review

Question 59

To encourage internal audit objectivity, which of the following is an appropriate policy the chief audit executive should establish?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors should report their audit findings directly to the audit committee.

B.

To receive an outstanding performance rating, internal auditors are required to generate audit findings.

C.

Prior to hiring a new internal auditor, the chief audit executive must determine whether the auditor owns stock in the organization.

D.

Internal auditors are permitted to audit an entity managed by a close friend or relative, as long as they notify the chief audit executive.

Question 60

Which of the following statements is true with regard to the quality assurance and improvement program (GAIP)?

Options:

A.

As the head of the organization, the CEO selects and appoints the external quality assessment team to perform the OAIP reviews.

B.

The chief audit executive determines the scope and frequency of both internal and external quality assessments based on the availability and capacity of resources in accordance with the annual internal audit plan.

C.

Minutes of meetings held with senior management and the board to discuss the scope and frequency of internal and external assessments support the OAIP reporting requirement.

D.

The internal audit activity needs to assess whether each engagement on the annual internal audit plan is conducted in conformance with the Standards.

Question 61

With regard to organizational governance assurance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity ' ?

Options:

A.

Assess compliance with the organization ' s code of conduct

B.

Oversee the governance and risk management processes

C.

Initiate new organizational control processes

D.

Provide advice on organizational governance activities

Question 62

When the chief audit executive Is responsible for risk management in an organization, which of the following parties is responsible for overseeing the internal audit activity ' s assurance over risk management?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive.

B.

A member of the compliance function.

C.

A party outside of the internal audit activity.

D.

A member of the risk management function.

Question 63

According to the Standards, which of the following demonstrates the proficiency of an internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Each internal auditor must hold one or more certifications in the area of fraud and seek out continuing professional development related to fraud detection and fraud investigation.

B.

Each internal auditor must have sufficient knowledge of IT risks and controls, and be able to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization.

C.

Each internal auditor on the engagement team must possess the same level of knowledge, skills, and other competencies as other auditors on the engagement team.

D.

Each internal auditor must be paired, by the chief audit executive, with an individual who possesses the knowledge, skills, or other competencies required to complete the audit.

Question 64

An internal auditor is updating the risk register for risks identified during a recent organizational risk assessment. According to the Standards, which of the following would the auditor include in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Management’s acceptance of inadequate controls for cybersecurity risk.

B.

Discussions with senior management relating to a new revenue stream.

C.

Mitigating controls implemented by the engagement supervisor

D.

Project manager planned hours versus time spent for all prior year projects

Question 65

During an audit of an organization ' s accounts payable area, an internal auditor identified anomalies in the information examined that may indicate potential fraud. Which test should the auditor perform first to verify this?

Options:

A.

Verify the completeness and integrity of the data being analyzed.

B.

Identify duplicated organizational transactions.

C.

Analyze all transactions within the targeted area.

D.

Check control totals that have may have been falsified.

Question 66

An internal auditor in a busy internal audit activity reviews her continuing professional development records toward the end of the year and is concerned to find she has undertaken limited training and formal professional development. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate for her to take?

Options:

A.

Remind the chief audit executive (CAE) that he is responsible for her continuing professional development and needs to address the issue

B.

Contact her professional organization and explain that she does not need formal professional development, as she is being developed sufficiently through undertaking audit engagements.

C.

Accept that she is unlikely to meet continuing professional development requirements but look to attend training courses at the next available time.

D.

Accept that she is responsible for her own continuing professional development, develop a professional plan, and discuss it with the CAE.

Question 67

Which of the following best describes a proactive role for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization ' s ethics program?

Options:

A.

Becoming a voting member of the organization ' s internal ethics council.

B.

Performing an annual organizationwide employee survey.

C.

Reviewing all departmental ethics-related policies.

D.

Conducting annual ethics training for all employees.

Question 68

While preparing the audit plan for an automobile manufacturing company, the chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the company ' s engineering department received a high risk ranking. However, the internal audit activity is understaffed, and current staff do not possess the necessary skills to adequately assess the effectiveness of the engineering department. What is the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Include the engineering department on the audit plan, use the available internal audit resources to conduct the review, and exclude procedures that cannot be adequately assessed.

B.

Advise management to accept the assessed risk until the internal auditors are able to review the area adequately.

C.

Recruit internal auditors with the required competencies and wait until they are employed before including this audit on the internal audit plan.

D.

Proceed with a review of the engineering department but supplement the internal audit team with nonauditors from an external engineering company who have the required skills to assist

Question 69

Which of the following is true regarding risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Impact and likelihood should be assessed together.

B.

Impact and likelihood should be given equal consideration by the internal auditor.

C.

Impact and likelihood should be measured using quantitative methods.

D.

Impact and likelihood should be used to determine risk response.

Question 70

Senior management purchased surveillance cameras and installed them over a door that provides entry to an area where according to a recent internal audit report, hazardous materials exist and there is a high risk of explosion Which type of control was implemented in this situation?

Options:

A.

A corrective control

B.

A detective control

C.

A preventive control

D.

A directive control

Question 71

At a conference, an interna! auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization. The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers, and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards,

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 72

Which of the following should be part of the internal audit activity ' s duties?

Options:

A.

Actively reporting to the governing body.

B.

Providing risk management frameworks.

C.

Assisting management in developing processes and controls to manage risks and issues.

D.

Identifying and mitigating significant risks to the organization.

Question 73

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

Question 74

Which of the following actions is a chief audit executive most likely to take in order to identify gaps in the internal audit activity’s knowledge, skills, and competencies?

Options:

A.

Complete a skills assessment of the internal audit activity based on. The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

B.

Develop a competency assessment tool for the internal audit activity based on The IIA Global Internal Audit Competency Framework.

C.

Incorporate the basic criteria for competency of the internal audit activity into the job descriptions of potential internal auditors,

D.

Develop an internal audit activity plan for training internal auditors to perform required assurance and consulting activities.

Question 75

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

An organization requires certain employees who occupy sensitive positions to sign attestation to the code of conduct on an annual basis.

B.

A compliance specialist carries out quarterly reviews of an organization ' s compliance with regulatory requirements.

C.

A front desk officer in an organization requires that visitors are identified by the host before access is granted.

D.

An internal audit activity deploys audit management policies and procedures for team members.

Question 76

Regarding the chief audit executive (CAE). which ot the following is considered an impairment to the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE is asked to submit the liquidation of her travel allowances to human resources for approval.

C.

The CAE ' s supervisor is responsible for the risk management function.

D.

The CAE is asked to review new procedures before implementation.

Question 77

Which of the following is an example of an impairment to an internal auditor ' s independence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor delays reporting material financial statement audit findings until after his parents sell all of their stock in the company

B.

Following the restructuring of the organization, the internal audit activity now reports functionally to the chief financial officer

C.

A new member of the internal audit activity, who was the accounts payable supervisor for two years, is asked to consult on the implementation of a new accounts payable system

D.

Believing there must be errors in a given balance sheet account the internal auditor decides to expand his testing

Question 78

Which of the following strategies for professional development best demonstrates an internal auditor’s competency ' ?

Options:

A.

Completed education credits

B.

Membership in professional organizations

C.

Subscriptions to sources of relevant professional information

D.

Professional development and training plans

Question 79

If an internal auditor suspects fraud during an engagement which of the following is expected of the auditor?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the suspected activities to determine whether a forma! investigation is warranted,

B.

Immediately inform senior management and the board of the suspected fraud.

C.

Ascertain the level of resources needed to formally investigate the fraud, and proceed with the investigation if resources permit,

D.

Include in the engagement documentation all possible effects and the potential impact of the fraud to the organization

Question 80

An organization ' s board has approved an expansion plan into a new market. The board acknowledged that if the expansion is not successful, the organization would encounter large monetary losses consisting of legal fees, research and development costs, rent expenses, and labor fees. Which of the following has the board approved?

Options:

A.

The risk response.

B.

The risk tolerance.

C.

The residual risk.

D.

The inherent risk.

Question 81

Which of the following practices is generally most effective to protect internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring regular documentation of auditor skills and experience in the workpapers.

B.

Basing performance evaluations heavily on customer satisfaction surveys.

C.

Prohibiting auditors from accepting gifts from audit clients or potential clients.

D.

Ensuring that auditors have a balance of both operational and internal audit responsibilities.

Question 82

Which of the following would show appropriate disclosure of nonconformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) documented in the personnel file a critical conflict of interest involving an internal auditor on an upcoming contracting engagement.

B.

The CAE discussed with the board an issue regarding the internal audit activity performing an IT engagement without proper skills and knowledge.

C.

The CAE met with the peer review team to discuss an internal auditor ' s failure to meet the annual requirements for continuing professional education.

D.

The CAE revealed to operational managers that he failed to appropriately consider risks while he was developing the audit plan.

Question 83

The internal audit activity is performing an assessment of an organization ' s ethics program, and the engagement scope specifies a focus on the training program ' s design. According to IIA guidance, which of the following questions would be the most relevant?

1. Does the training include situations that require an ethical decision?

2. What percentage of employees have taken the training?

3. What are the results of the employee assessment of the organization ' s ethical climate?

4. Does the instructor provide feedback on the thought process to reach an ethical resolution?

Options:

A.

1 and 2.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

3 and 4.

Question 84

Which of the following internal controls best mitigates the risk of corruption schemes between employees and vendors?

Options:

A.

Establishing policies that prohibit an employee from receiving gifts from an interested party.

B.

Having employees sign annual attestations that they adhere to the organization ' s code of ethics.

C.

Having strong management oversight of the purchasing and accounts payable functions.

D.

Conducting regular examinations of documentation both paper and electronic.

Question 85

According to IIA guidance, which of the following conditions would enhance the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The organizational culture rewards critical and objective thinking.

B.

The quality of work performed by the internal audit activity is periodically reviewed.

C.

The organization establishes effective governing body oversight.

D.

Audit assignments are rotated among internal audit staff.

Question 86

After the draft engagement report is issued, the manager of the area that was reviewed is informally interviewed by the engagement supervisor regarding the audit experience. Which of the following is most likely the purpose for this interview?

Options:

A.

Such an interview is performed when there is a need to dismiss an internal auditor

B.

Feedback from the manager will contribute to the audit team ' s professional development

C.

The manager ' s opinion will be used to form the final audit assessment and report rating.

D.

The manager will provide insights into the audited industry ' s trends

Question 87

An accounts payable clerk who has access to the vendor master file replaced the payment details of a legitimate vendor with those of a friend before processing the payment through the organization ' s cashier. Immediately afterward, he restored the original vendor information. Which of the following controls could have prevented this fraud?

Options:

A.

Approval of master file change requests by the accounts payable supervisor

B.

Comparison of the check register to original invoices.

C.

Segregation of duties between accounts payable and the cashier.

D.

Frequent issuance of account statements sent to the vendors.

Question 88

An electrician visits a client to assess the scope of work. After the visit, the sales office compiles and sends the client a proposal based on the electrician ' s estimation and approved price list. The internal auditor notices that in the last six months, the number of cancelled proposals has increased substantially. Which of the following is a fraud risk scenario that the auditor should consider in this situation?

Options:

A.

Some electricians may be offering clients opportunities for reduced fees if they pay with cash.

B.

There is a new competitor in the area who offers better prices.

C.

Sales representatives may be manipulating the proposals to include additional costs.

D.

An unauthorized person may be modifying client data and cancelling the proposals.

Question 89

An organization ' s fraud policies and procedures dictate that the internal audit activity does not have primary responsibility for conducting fraud investigations and should, in fact, refrain from involvement in investigations. Which of the following activities would be considered acceptable for internal auditors to perform of this organization?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the effectiveness of fraud investigations

B.

Oversee and monitor senior management s approach to manage fraud risks

C.

Set the tone for fraud risk management within an organization

D.

Evaluate whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement due to fraud

Question 90

Following a quality assurance review of a small internal audit activity, the external reviewer and the chief audit executive (CAE) cannot agree on the importance of several deficiencies noted during the review. Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step for the reviewer to take?

Options:

A.

Remove the areas of disagreement from the scope of the engagement and seek informal compromises with the CAE.

B.

Issue the report to senior management, noting the deficiencies for immediate resolution.

C.

Issue the report, noting the deficiencies with comments that address the areas of disagreement.

D.

Request arbitration from the audit committee to resolve discrepancies prior to issuing the final report

Question 91

With regard to governance, which of the following is a board-level responsibility rather than a management responsibility?

Options:

A.

Obtaining assurance on external financial, regulatory, and internal audits.

B.

Complying with laws, regulations, and codes.

C.

Assigning authority and responsibilities organization wide.

D.

Monitoring and measuring performance.

Question 92

Which of the following would be a preventive control for helping to manage fraud in an organization?

Options:

A.

Reviews of reports to determine which issued payments lack evidence of supervisory review.

B.

A monthly review of new vendors performed by management for reasonableness.

C.

Bank reconciliations performed on a monthly basis by the accounting department.

D.

A code of conduct and whistleblower policy that must be signed by all employees annually.

Question 93

Which of the following is the best example of a computer forensic audit activity?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor compared vendor addresses to employee home addresses.

B.

An internal auditor used analytical software to trace all disbursements processed on weekends.

C.

An internal auditor tried to circumvent the logical access controls of the purchasing system.

D.

An internal auditor recovered emails of an employee who was suspected of fraudulent activities

Question 94

A telecommunications organization is planning to cease operations in one or the markets in which it operates due to increasing volatility and uncertainties. Which of the following risk management techniques is the organization selecting?

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance.

B.

Risk avoidance.

C.

Risk sharing.

D.

Risk reduction.

Question 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true of the internal audit activity’s quality assurance and improvement program?

1 Monitoring the internal audit activity’s performance must be ongoing

2 All aspects of the internal audit activity should be evaluated

3 The requirement for external assessments can be satisfied through self-assessments that are validated by an independent external party

4 The review of assurance services should be the primary focus

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 3 only

C.

1, 2 and 3

D.

1 3 and 4

Question 96

The chief audit executive (CAE) has assigned an internal auditor to an upcoming engagement. Which of the following requirements would most likely indicate that the internal auditor was assigned to an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The assigned internal auditor must determine the objectives, scope, and techniques of the engagement.

B.

The CAE must personally obtain the needed skills, knowledge, or other competencies if the internal auditor does not have them.

C.

The assigned internal auditor must not assume management responsibilities while performing the engagement

D.

The assigned internal auditor must maintain objectivity while performing the engagement.

Question 97

An organization is in the process of hiring a new chief audit executive (CAE). Which of the following can the potential candidates expect to be a part of the recruiting process or in place when the CAE is hired?

Options:

A.

There are checks to determine the existence of any potential conflict of interest.

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the highest level of management, the CEO.

C.

The CAE’s compensation depends on the performance of the organizational departments.

D.

Hiring and termination of the CAE is dependent on the decision of senior executives.

Question 98

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan,

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 99

What is the primary reason for establishing a continuing professional development program within an organization ' s internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To ensure all internal audit responsibilities can be met

B.

To ensure all audit staff members are capable of performing a quality self-assessment.

C.

To ensure that each auditor maintains responsibility for his own professional development.

D.

To attract the best and most talented candidates in the profession

Question 100

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best demonstrates how the chief audit executive may ensure that due professional care is applied?

Options:

A.

Establish policies and procedures concerning the engagement process

B.

Develop a strategy for recruiting assigning, and training staff

C.

Outsource complex engagements to an external service provider

D.

Base the auditor evaluation process on the number of observations

Question 101

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by a new chief audit executive would be most appropriate to gain an understanding of the current level of knowledge, skills, and competencies required by an internal audit activity to fulfill its responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Identify gaps in the activity’s proficiency, based on criteria defined by a widely accepted competency framework.

B.

Have a quality assessment review performed by an expert external entity.

C.

Identify a mature internal audit activity to serve as a benchmark for measuring the internal audit activity’s competence.

D.

Assess whether members of the internal audit activity understand and apply the 11As mandatory guidance.

Question 102

Management is installing security cameras to identify unauthorized physical access to the organization ' s warehouse. This is an example of which of the following types of controls?

Options:

A.

Detective controls.

B.

Key controls.

C.

Primary controls.

D.

Preventive controls

Question 103

Who is held responsible for oversight of the organization ' s risk management framework?

Options:

A.

Operational management.

B.

Board of directors.

C.

Internal auditors.

D.

Head of risk management.

Question 104

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports?

1. Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2. Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management

reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting.

3. Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously,

4. Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only

Question 105

Which of the following actions would an internal auditor perform primarily during a consulting engagement of a debt collections process?

Options:

A.

Reviewing journal entries for accuracy and completeness.

B.

Comparing the policies and procedures to regulatory collections guidance.

C.

Advising management on streamlining the recording of accounts receivable.

D.

Performing a walk-through of the debt collections process to determine whether proper segregation of duties exists

Question 106

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation ' ?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques

Question 107

What is the primary purpose of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics?

Options:

A.

Communicate specific activities appropriate to the performance of internal auditing.

B.

Promote ethical culture within corporations and other business organizations.

C.

Establish mandatory standards of competence for the practice of internal auditing.

D.

Establish principles and expectations governing behavior of individuals and organizations in the conduct of internal auditing.

Question 108

A sales manager was recently bypassed for a promotion. He feels entitled to a higher salary and is angry that management does not recognize his contributions. To make up for this perceived injustice, he begins to record false expenses on his travel expense reports. This scenario best illustrates which of the following fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Incentive.

B.

Rationalization.

C.

Pressure.

D.

Opportunity.

Question 109

According to IIA guidance, the nature and scope of assurance and consulting services to be offered must be clearly delineated in which of the following internal audit documents?

Options:

A.

The internal audit policies and procedures handbook.

B.

The internal audit charter.

C.

The internal audit mission statement.

D.

Each internal audit engagement letter.

Question 110

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments. The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International! Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 111

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following best describes the conduct of an internal auditor who demonstrates the principle of competency?

Options:

A.

The auditor is prudent in the use and protection of information acquired in the course of his work.

B.

The auditor does not accept anything that may impair or be presumed to impair his professional judgment.

C.

The auditor does not perform services in a particular area when he lacks skills in that area.

D.

The auditor performs work with honesty, diligence, and responsibility.

Question 112

Which of the following is (he most effective way any organization can ensure proper governance over its internal controls?

Options:

A.

By adopting the best practices of similar organizations in the industry.

B.

By adjusting their internal control framework as business practices evolve.

C.

By introducing the universally accepted COSO internal control framework.

D.

By encouraging the internal audit activity to provide training on internal controls.

Question 113

Which of the following relates to the concept of due professional care?

Options:

A.

An auditor attempts to obtain information needed to complete an assurance engagement but is denied access.

B.

The appointment of the chief audit executive is ratified by the board.

C.

An auditor demonstrates a good understanding of the steps involved in carrying out a consulting engagement.

D.

The internal audit resource plan is only approved by the chief financial officer.

Question 114

Senior management has decided to adopt the key principles approach of the ISO 31000 risk management framework. According to IIA guidance, which of the following principles is most appropriate when implementing the risk management process in a dynamic agency?

Options:

A.

Everyone in the agency has a primary responsibility for identifying and managing risks as part of the risk management process.

B.

The risk management process, while evaluating risk, should develop a mechanism to rank the relative importance of each risk.

C.

The risk management process should be regularly reviewed and respond to changes in the environment, to remain relevant.

D.

The risk management process should use a formal technique to consider the consequence and likelihood of each risk.

Question 115

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership.

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting.

Question 116

Which of the following is the first step in the process of identifying relevant fraud risk factors?

Options:

A.

Identifying preventive and detective controls

B.

Gathering information about the organization’s business activities to gain an understanding of fraud risks

C.

Engaging in strategic reasoning to anticipate the fraud scheme

D.

The use of brainstorming, management interviews, analytical procedures and review of prior frauds.

Question 117

In the context of an internal control framework, organizational structure and assignment of authority and responsibility is related to which of the following?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Information and communication.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Control environment.

Question 118

Which of the following fraud prevention measures is most likely to trigger undesired adverse behavior if improperly designed?

Options:

A.

Disclosure of outside business activities

B.

Ethics training programs

C.

Compensation programs

D.

Exit interviews

Question 119

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000.

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework

Question 120

According to The IIA’s Code of Ethics, which of the following scenarios offers the best example of violating the principle of integrity?

Options:

A.

An internal audit manager collaborates with senior management to provide misleading information to government authorities.

B.

An internal audit manager provides sample audit reports and workpapers to a friend without obtaining prior approval

C.

An internal audit manager carries out a technical audit request without seeking expert opinion, despite a lack of the requisite skills.

D.

An internal audit manager assigned to audit a sales process failed to reveal that the process owner is a relative

Question 121

Which of the following fundamental principles of The IIA ' s Code of Ethics is best described as performing work honestly diligently and responsibly?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Proficiency

C.

Due Professional Care

D.

Competency

Question 122

Which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization ' s key risks are managed through appropriate controls.

B.

Assisting the organization in maintaining effective controls.

C.

Implementing new controls to promote continuous improvement.

D.

Validating control assessments performed by the external auditor.

Question 123

Which of the following is a detective control strategy against fraud?

Options:

A.

Requiring employees to attend ethics training.

B.

Performing background checks on employees.

C.

Implementing a control self-assessment.

D.

Performing a surprise audit

Question 124

A whistleblower reveals to the chief audit executive (CAE) detailed allegations of potential fraud at the senior management level. Although the CAE has some experience in the area, she chooses to retain an external fraud expert to conduct the investigation. When asked by the director of finance to defend the expenditure, which of the following statements represents the CAE ' s best response?

Options:

A.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her independence, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

B.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that the internal audit activity must obtain competent assistance if needed.

C.

The CAE refers to the Standards and explains that to protect her objectivity, she needs to remain isolated from the investigation.

D.

The CAE describes the specifics of the allegation to underscore the importance of the situation and the need for expert investigation

Question 125

In the COSO internal control framework, which of the following components serves as the foundation for the other components?

Options:

A.

Control activities.

B.

Control environment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Monitoring

Question 126

During an audit of company expenses, the internal auditor performed a test using data analytics and identified a violation of the company ' s expenses policy. The auditor who discovered the issue considered it a potential fraudulent transaction and informed the chief financial officer (CFO). The CFO dismissed the concern because he did not understand the data analytics test that was performed and the transaction was of a low value. Given this situation, which skills or competencies should this internal auditor seek to improve?

Options:

A.

Skills in evaluating the risk of fraud.

B.

Knowledge of key IT risks and controls

C.

Soft skills such as communication and negotiation.

D.

Knowledge and understanding of the company ' s expenses policy

Question 127

Which of the following is a way to demonstrate an individual internal auditor ' s competency through continuing professional development?

Options:

A.

Create different training budgets for each of the internal auditors

B.

Define average training hours per auditor as a team performance measure

C.

Analyze internal audit client survey feedback following audits

D.

Review training records for all internal auditors

Question 128

An internal audit of warehouse inventory revealed no material deficiencies. However, management later discovered fraud, which occurred during the period that was audited, and determined that a major control deficiency allowed the fraud to occur. Given management ' s discovery, which of the following statements is valid?

Options:

A.

The internal auditors violated the standard for due professional care because they did not detect the fraud, even though it occurred during the period that was reviewed.

B.

The internal auditors should have had sufficient knowledge of fraud to identify red flags indicating possible fraud.

C.

The internal auditors could not have detected the fraud due to collusion among employees in the inventory unit.

D.

The internal auditors are not responsible for considering fraud risk, which is a management responsibility.

Question 129

Which of the following parties would be responsible for ongoing monitoring of the organization ' s corporate social responsibility activities to reduce its carbon footprint?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive

B.

Facility operation manager

C.

Public relations manager

D.

Regulatory agency

Question 130

An internal audit activity includes in its audit reports the assertion that its work is performed in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing ( Standards). A recent external quality assessment concluded that the internal audit activity had substantial deficiencies that impact its overall operations.

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action for issuing future audit reports?

Options:

A.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until the chief audit executive confirms that the internal audit activityhas addressed all areas of nonconformance and the audit committee has been notified.

B.

Refrain from indicating that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards until another external assessment confirms that the significant areas of nonconformance have been addressed.

C.

Indicate that the internal audit activity operates in partial conformance with the Standards t as the internal audit activity has a quality assurance and improvement program in place to address deficiencies and has met the requirement for conducting an external assessment.

D.

Update and reissue previous audit reports, removing the assertion that the internal audit activity operates in conformance with the Standards, and distribute them to ail parties who received the original reports.

Question 131

Which of the following best demonstrates the authority of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Suggesting alternatives to decision makers.

B.

Improving the integrity of information.

C.

Determining the scope of internal audit services

D.

Achieving engagement objectives.

Question 132

According to HA guidance, if an internal auditor suspects fraud during an assurance engagement, what should the auditor do first?

Options:

A.

Recommend parties involved to be sanctioned in accordance with the organization ' s policy.

B.

Determine whether any additional audit work needs to be performed.

C.

Launch an investigation to obtain details of the fraud and parties involved.

D.

Request that the responsible process owner remediate the issue immediately.

Question 133

The management team of an agricultural organization has prioritized corporate social responsibility (CSR) initiatives. Which of the following would be considered a CSR activity?

Options:

A.

Offering a one-off donation to an environmental charity for its expansion efforts

B.

Organizing organization volunteers to provide periodic plantation skill sharing to farmers

C.

Providing special year-end monetary bonuses to the organization ' s employees at all levels

D.

Arranging a free-of-charge picnic for all of the organization ' s employees and their family members

Question 134

Which of the following documents would promote objectivity within an organization ' s internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal audit charter.

B.

Internal audit manual.

C.

Audit committee charter

D.

Human resources employee handbook.

Question 135

An organization allows the same individuals to physical access inventory and purchase new assets when supplies are depleted. Which of the following would best help the organization manage the risk of fraud?

Options:

A.

Accounting personnel should regularly perform reconciliation between invoices and purchase orders

B.

Accounting personnel should conduct a periodic inventory count and reconcile inventory movements

C.

internal auditors should review Vie frequency and volume of purchased assets to detect trends in the inventory levels

D.

Management should established a policy requiring new inventory asset purchases to be made on serialized order forms with copies retained

Question 136

Which of the following actions best demonstrates an internal auditor exercising due professional care?

Options:

A.

Testing an entire population, even when a sample would suffice

B.

Using technology and data analysis techniques for efficiency

C.

Enhancing knowledge, skills, and other competencies through professional development

D.

Establishing audit objectives, performing audit tests, and implementing missing controls

Question 137

According to The IIA ' s Competency Framework, which competency is considered the mandatory minimum for internal auditors to possess when performing internal audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To recognize red flags that indicate fraud.

B.

To recommend controls to prevent fraud.

C.

To apply forensic auditing techniques to detect fraud.

D.

To evaluate the potential for fraud.

Question 138

Which of the following best describes the differences between internal auditors and external auditors?

Options:

A.

External auditors are concerned about misstatements in the organization ' s financial statements, while internal auditors are concerned about fraudulent activities that could impact the organization’s financial statements

B.

External auditors are required to hold an accounting designation and are responsible for continuing their education, while internal auditors are required to hold an internal audit designation.

C.

External auditors focus on the accuracy and understandability of financial statements, while internal auditors help the organization accomplish its objectives by evaluating and improving the effectiveness of the control process.

D.

External auditors are not employees of the organization, while internal auditors are employees who have in-depth knowledge of the business, making their opinion more reliable to the board and senior management.

Question 139

Which of the following would be an important aspect of an internal auditor ' s role in fraud management?

Options:

A.

Utilizing analytical techniques to actively discover instances of potential fraud

B.

Conducting fraud based audits to ensure that fraud will be detected during engagements

C.

Implementing fraud prevention controls to minimize and mitigate the risk of fraud

D.

Reporting instances of fraud discovered during engagements to regulatory bodies

Question 140

In which of the following scenarios would it be appropriate for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

It A new internal audit activity was formed four years ago. An external assessment was never performed, but successive internal assessments were performed and support the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards

B.

An internal self-assessment completed yesterday found that the internal audit activity did not conform with the Standards when carrying out its work. However, the preceding independent external assessment supports the conclusion that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards.

C.

To reduce costs, the CAE excluded the use of external assessors from the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program for the past seven years.However, the CAE concluded that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards because all internal assessments over the period have supported this conclusion.

D.

The results of the last external assessment of the internal audit activity, performed a little over five years ago, indicated that the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards. The most recent internal assessment performed within the past year also indicates conformance.

Question 141

Guidelines need to be set for various levels of suspected fraud within an organization and when it would be reported to the audit committee. Which of the following would be

reported at the next meeting?

Options:

A.

Minor theft of less than $10,000, not involving senior management.

B.

Theft using collusion for more than $10,000. but not involving senior management.

C.

Denial of access to requested employees during an audit.

D.

Discussion of replacement of the chief audit executive.

Question 142

The internal audit activity was asked to conduct an investigation for potential fraud in the treasury department and subsequently contracted with a forensic accountant to join the team for the engagement. Which of the following parties has the primary responsibility for resolving any fraud incidents found as a result of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Chief audit executive.

B.

Senior management.

C.

The forensic accountant.

D.

The legal department.

Question 143

Which of the following statements is true regarding the disclosure of results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

If the results of both internal and external assessments support conformance with the Standards, the internal audit activity must communicate this to the board and senior management in writing.

B.

If it has been in existence fewer than five years and has no documented external assessment, the internal audit activity may not indicate that it is operating in conformance with the Standards.

C.

If nonconformance affects its ability to fulfill its professional responsibilities or stakeholder expectations, the internal audit activity should disclose nonconformance as well as its impact.

D.

If an external assessment reflects an overall conclusion of nonconformance, the internal audit activity may continue to communicate that it conforms with theStandards if it discloses a remediation plan, including timeline with subsequent validation.

Question 144

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization ' s code of ethics?

Options:

A.

It should be written with primary consideration given to using a rule-based approach.

B.

It should be of two variations: one applicable internally and one applicable for third parties.

C.

Its operational effectiveness cannot be tested using traditional audit and rating systems such as maturity models.

D.

It should require an annual attestation of compliance with the code of conduct by all employees.

Question 145

Due to toe increased operational responsibility of the CEO. The chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO). What is the likely imped of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation m the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CPO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expense of finance staff can be catted upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 146

Which of the following factors is most important for internal auditors to consider when prioritizing fraud risks?

Options:

A.

The organization’s code of conduct.

B.

The organization’s competition.

C.

The organization’s code of ethics.

D.

The organization’s culture

Question 147

An internal auditor assessed that the risk of steel theft at a plant is high. In response, the plant ' s management introduced a number of controls, including fences around the facility, a metal detector at the entrance, and monthly steel inventory counts. If the controls operate as intended, which of the following outcomes would the internal auditor hope to see?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk will be mitigated to a level lower than the residual risk.

B.

The inherent risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

C.

The residual risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

D.

The residual risk will be eliminated

Question 148

In which of the following ways can a chief audit executive demonstrate to the board that the internal audit activity collectively possesses all of the skills needed to complete its annual goals?

Options:

A.

Involve board members in hiring activities and request advice.

B.

Require all internal audit staff to complete the same training course on a general audit subject,

C.

Require senior auditors to obtain a professional certification.

D.

Provide a competency assessment of the internal audit staff.

Question 149

In which of the following situations would the organizational independence of an internal audit activity be impaired?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports administratively to the CEO.

B.

Scope limitations are imposed on internal audits.

C.

The internal audit activity provides assurance services for an activity for which the engagement supervisor had responsibility within the previous year.

D.

The compensation committee of the board approves the remuneration of the chief audit executive.

Question 150

During an audit engagement of a large retail store, internal auditors noted significant discrepancies between available inventory and sales and suspect an abuse of cash register refunds and voids. Which of the following would be the most effective preventative control to reduce these losses?

Options:

A.

Ensure that returned merchandise is restocked to shelves or sent to the manufacturer by an independent employee.

B.

Call a sample of customers who returned merchandise to test the legitimacy of the returns and check refund amounts.

C.

Require that a manager use a reserved register code to approve voids or refunds.

D.

Analyze voids and refunds by employee, credit card number, and amount for unusual numbers, amounts, or patterns.

Question 151

During a quality assessment of the internal audit activity an auditor is assessing whether the independence of the internal audit activity is at risk of being compromised. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would provide the best source of evidence for such an assessment?

Options:

A.

An organizational chart showing the reporting line of the chief audit executive to the CEO

B.

The internal audit charter as endorsed by the organization’s governing body

C.

A review of the audit opinions issued from a sample of recent audit engagements

D.

An assessment of the scope of the audit work performed by the internal au < M activity

Question 152

According to IIA guidance, which of the following training methods is considered most effective in assisting new entry-level internal auditors in achieving competence with internal audit practices in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Pursuance of an internal audit certification.

B.

Enrollment in internal audit practice webinars.

C.

Attendance of internal audit workshops.

D.

Involvement in a variety of audit assignments.

Question 153

In which of the following ways can a whistleblower hotline serve as a prevent

Options:

A.

active control? 3

B.

Third parties who operate the hotline ensure anonymity for whistle blowers. D Whistleblower tips help discover wrongdoings and violations of the code of conduct.Potential perpetrators of fraud know that their actions can be reported easily.

C.

Better investigation protocols are triggered by the whistleblower hotline.

Question 154

What is the main difference between a consulting engagement versus an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The nature of services provided are defined in the internal audit charter.

B.

Internal auditors must maintain objectivity while performing their work.

C.

The objectives and scope of the engagement typically are directed by management.

D.

Internal auditors may assume management responsibilities.

Question 155

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

Question 156

The chief audit executive of an organization assigns audit resources to undertake a consulting engagement requested by senior management the previous year, and a scheduled assurance audit of the procurement process Which of the following appropriately differentiates the two engagements?

Options:

A.

The details of assurance services are expected to be included in the risk-based audit plan; this is not the case for consulting services.

B.

The objectivity of assurance services is impaired when undertaken by internal auditors who have had recent prior responsibility in the area under review; this is not the case for consulting services

C.

The performance of assurance services may be outsourced for competency gaps: this is not the case for consulting services.

D.

The results of assurance services are required to be monitored; this is not the case for consulting services

Question 157

To achieve conformance with the Standards, the chief audit executive must include which of the following activities in the quality assurance and improvement program (QAIP)?

Options:

A.

Require board oversight of the QAIP.

B.

Assess Standards conformance for each individual engagement.

C.

Conduct a self assessment at least once every five years.

D.

Report the results of the QAIP to senior management

Question 158

Which of the following written documents typically offers the best evidence that internal auditors exercise due professional care in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Internal audit charter.

B.

Workpaper.

C.

Audit report.

D.

Code of ethics.

Question 159

Which of the following best demonstrates organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports directly to the board

B.

Internal auditors may not disclose personal data of the audit client

C.

Internal auditors may not accept gifts from management of the area under review

D.

Internal auditors must observe the law and make required disclosures

Question 160

Which of the following statements best describes a functional difference between external auditors and internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors evaluate past achievements to understand whether controls are operating effectively, and external auditors focus on the accuracy of financial reporting.

B.

Internal auditors provide assurance about the sufficiency of controls to manage risks. Including risks of failure to achieve future goals, and external auditors evaluate the accuracy and understandability of financial reporting.

C.

internal auditors are always employed by the organization, rather than outsourced, and external auditors are never employed by the organization but contracted independently.

D.

Internal auditors are most directly concerned with the detection of fraud, while external auditors are most directly concerned with the prevention of fraud.

Question 161

Which of the following is the best way for internal auditors to demonstrate their proficiency to effectively carry out their professional responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Volunteer for audit engagements in areas or industries in which the auditor is unfamiliar

B.

Sign an annual attestation indicating that the auditor has all required competencies to perform her job effectively.

C.

Obtain appropriate professional certifications or other designations.

D.

Disclose potential impairments to independence or objectivity prior to performing an audit engagement.

Question 162

Which of the following describes the internal audit activity ' s most appropriate role in an organization ' s risk management process?

Options:

A.

Reporting to the board on management ' s assessment of current risks

B.

Establishing a risk management policy and framework for the organization

C.

Assigning responsibility for identifying and managing significant risks

D.

Developing key controls to mitigate risks across the organization

Question 163

Which of the following is the most appropriate way to ensure that a newly formed internal audit activity remains free from undue influence by management?

Options:

A.

Appoint the chief audit executive as a member of the board.

B.

Adopt written policies and procedures for the internal audit activity, approved by the board.

C.

Ensure the chief audit executive reports administratively to the audit committee.

D.

Establish the internal audit activity’s position within the organization in an audit charter.

Question 164

An external assessment was performed as part of the organization ' s quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following conclusions confirms that the internal audit activity is in conformance with the Standards ' ?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive is well qualified and has responsibilities over operational areas that the internal audit activity assesses.

B.

Periodic self-assessments are assigned to entry-level internal audit staff to support their continuing professional development.

C.

All audit workpapers are reviewed and signed by the engagement supervisor before the audit report is issued.

D.

Employees who rotate into the internal audit activity from other areas of the organization are assigned to audit areas where they previously worked, to take advantage of their operational expertise and experience.

Question 165

According to NA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1. A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects

the organization.

2. Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3. Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s

records.

4, Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.B.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 166

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques.

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court.

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care.

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques.

Question 167

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions by the chief audit executive (CAE) best demonstrates the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The CAE seeks senior management approval of the internal audit charter

B.

The CAE obtains senior management ' s approval to hire staff

C.

The CAE reports significant issues to the organization ' s CEO

D.

The CAE provides the board with an annual budget for approval

Question 168

According to NA guidance, which of the following provides the best evidence of conformance with the Standards with respect to the proficiency required of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Discussions with the chief audit executive.

B.

A listing of employee profiles and certifications.

C.

Inquiry of external auditors.

D.

Validation by human resources.

Question 169

The internal audit activity was denied access to expenditure and budget reports because they were considered to be confidential. This situation would result in which of the following limitations of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Independence

B.

Integrity

C.

objectivity

D.

Authority

Question 170

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes expense reimbursement fraud?

Options:

A.

Theft of cash after it is recorded in the books

B.

Theft of cash before it is recorded in the books

C.

Theft of assets through fictitious or inflated invoices

D.

Theft of assets through false mileage travel logs and meal charges

Question 171

Which of the following statements relating to risk management is true?

Options:

A.

The high-level risk assessment performed during engagement planning is a detailed step-by-step analytical process

B.

External auditors must be engaged to evaluate the potential for fraud and how the organization manages fraud risk

C.

A lack of controls is acceptable if the risk is reduced to an acceptable level in some other way

D.

Internal auditors are responsible for managing the risks of the organization

Question 172

When a plant manager from within the organization is hired as a rotational internal auditor within the internal audit activity which area should he most likely be trained for immediately?

Options:

A.

Industry knowledge

B.

Project management

C.

Leadership skills

D.

Risk assessments

Question 173

Which of the following statements best illustrates why internal auditors assess soft controls?

Options:

A.

Assessing soft controls are an effective method of assessing risk related to personnel.

B.

Assessing soft controls, as opposed to hard controls, makes it easier to evaluate operating effectiveness.

C.

Assessing soft controls can help internal auditors in undertaking root-cause analysis.

D.

Assessing soft controls provides more objective information than assessing hard controls.

Question 174

According to MA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding an effective governance process?

Options:

A.

It stipulates that risk needs to be considered when making strategic decisions.

B.

It encourages strict segregation of the risk management and internal control processes.

C.

It relies on effective risk management when establishing the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

It relies on the board to devise ways to communicate the effectiveness of internal controls.

Question 175

With regard to the internal audit activity ' s quality assurance and improvement program, which of the following must be reported to the board?

Options:

A.

A statement of independence of the organization ' s internal auditors.

B.

Meeting minutes with the assessment team, if key risks were identified and discussed.

C.

Frequency of the quality assessments being performed.

D.

Summary of previous internal assessments undertaken.

Question 176

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA ' s Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Question 177

Outsourcing a business activity is considered which of the following risk management techniques?

Options:

A.

Sharing a risk.

B.

Avoiding a risk.

C.

Reducing a risk.

D.

Mitigating a risk

Question 178

Which of the following factors are commonly assessed to determine the magnitude of risk events?

Options:

A.

Tolerance and appetite

B.

Inherent and residual risk

C.

Cost and benefit

D.

Impact and likelihood

Question 179

A large commercial bank was fined by regulators for fraudulent practices when employees, over a period of time, opened thousands of new accounts for existing clients without the clients ' consent. It was later found that employees were given unrealistic new account targets and were aggressively monitored by management on a daily basis.

Which of the following controls would have most likely reduced the likelihood of the fraudulent practice from occurring?

Options:

A.

An evaluation of the current performance and compensation program.

B.

The performance of background investigations on all existing employees.

C.

The availability of fraud training to all employees.

D.

The availability of an employee whistleblower hotline

Question 180

Which competency is required of all staff internal auditors prior to the commencement of an IT audit?

Options:

A.

The ability to assess IT governance.

B.

The ability to provide an explanation on the risk profile of the organization to the board and senior management.

C.

The ability to ensure that proposals for improvements to internal controls are balanced with organizational objectives and capabilities.

D.

The ability to assess the potential for fraud risk and identifying common types of fraud associated with the engagement.

Question 181

Which documents would help a forensic auditor identify instances of collusion between an employee and vendor to defraud the organization?

Options:

A.

Email correspondence.

B.

Payment request forms.

C.

Vendor invoices.

D.

Bank statements.

Question 182

The internal audit activity conducted an organization wide risk assessment. One of the most significant risks identified is associated with the oil price market. The chief audit executive (CAE) is considering including in the annual audit plan an assessment of the effectiveness of oil price risk management. The manager responsible commented that the assessment was not needed, as market risks were regularly addressed by the financial risk committee. If the CAE decides to include this activity in the annual audit plan anyway, how should it be recorded?

Options:

A.

A consulting engagement independent of the financial risk committee ' s review.

B.

A risk assessment.

C.

An assurance engagement.

D.

A joint consulting engagement with input from the financial risk committee.

Question 183

Due to the increased operational responsibility of the CEO the chief audit executive (CAE) of an organization currently reports to the chief financial officer (CFO) What is the likely impact of such a situation?

Options:

A.

There may be limitation in the scope of engagements that can be undertaken

B.

The CFO could provide expert advice when auditing areas under his purview

C.

The internal audit activity is adequately positioned when the CAE reports to a member of executive management

D.

The expertise of finance staff can be called upon during an audit of finance-related areas

Question 184

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management’s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Question 185

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true of assurance services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot assess an operation for which they were responsible within the previous year.

B.

Management of the area under review must agree with the engagement objectives, scope, and techniques.

C.

The engagement results will vary in form and content depending upon the needs and wishes of the engagement client.

D.

The only parties involved in the engagement are the internal auditor and management of the area under review.

Question 186

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of tie engagement were included m a written report mat was issued to the cleint who requested me engagement

C.

During audit planning the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of fie system

Question 187

The largest risks facing an organization should be mitigated by which type of controls?

Options:

A.

Entity-level

B.

Activity-level

C.

Transaction-level

D.

Process-level

Question 188

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a required aspect of an internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Independent review

C.

Reporting relationships

D.

Quarterly assessment

Question 189

Which of the following situations would cause the greatest concern regarding impairment of internal audit objectivity?

Options:

A.

The eternal auditor reviewed the audit clients proposed procedures and standards of control and offered suggested improvements at the client’s request.

B.

The internal auditor performed nonaudit work for the audit client which was communicated to senior management and the board before the engagement was performed and restated in the audit report

C.

internal auditors accepted limited access to the audit client ' s systems and records m accordance with the scope of the engagement

D.

The internal auditor used his in-depth knowledge of systems development to assist the audit client m designing a new operational system with robust controls.

Question 190

According to IIA guidance, a new internal auditor is expected to possess which of the following competencies?

Options:

A.

Technical industry-specific expertise.

B.

Expertise in cybersecurity, an area of increasing risk.

C.

Knowledge of IT risks and controls.

D.

Knowledge of forensic accounting.

Question 191

An organization is considering purchasing a new banking software system and has asked the internal audit activity to evaluate the system. An internal auditor assigned to perform the engagement worked at the software company two years ago and is familiar with the system ' s design strengths and weaknesses. Which of the following is true regarding impairment to the auditor ' s objectivity?

Options:

A.

This situation does not necessitate any action related to the auditor ' s objectivity.

B.

The auditor should decline to perform the audit because personal conflicts of interest are likely.

C.

The auditor must disclose to the chief audit executive that this situation may impair her objectivity.

D.

The auditor can provide only consulting services, not assurance.

Question 192

An internal auditor found that his organization did not make a disclosure that is required by law. However, the auditor decided not to raise an audit finding. Which of the following Code of Ethics principles was violated?

Options:

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Proficiency.

D.

Confidentiality.

Question 193

Operational management in the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap,

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability/reward failure,

D.

Communication failure.

Question 194

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions is a chief audit executive required to take with regard to reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Report external assessments upon completion of such assessments

B.

Report external assessments at least annually

C.

Report ongoing monitoring quarterly

D.

Report post-engagement reviews at least once every five years

Question 195

Which of the following types of fraud tests would be most effective if an internal auditor was looking for possible fictitious vendors?

Options:

A.

Checking for invoice amounts that do not match that of the purchase order.

B.

Searching for identical invoice numbers and payment amounts.

C.

Running checks to uncover post office box addresses matching employee addresses.

D.

Comparing prices across vendors to see whether one vendor is unreasonably high.

Question 196

Six months after an employee was transferred to the internal audit activity his former operating manager requested that he return to assist a project team with the evaluation of a new pricing module for the organization’s online ordering system According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

The auditor cannot be assigned to this project, as it has been fewer than 12 months since he was transferred from that department.

B.

Another internal auditor should be appointed to the engagement to preserve the independence of the internal audit activity

C.

The auditor cannot participate in the assignment, as providing an opinion would impair his objectivity

D.

The auditor may participate on the project, as the nature of the assignment is consulting

Question 197

Which of the following would be considered a monitoring activity in organization wide risk management?

Options:

A.

Validate the results of management ' s self-assessment.

B.

Perform reviews of personnel.

C.

Maintain rigorous and comprehensive documentation.

D.

Obtain authorizations and signatures.

Question 198

The organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) is planning an immediate assurance engagement following several product recalls. However, the internal audit staff does not have the required Knowledge and experience to adequately assess all the relevant processes and procedures. According to 11A guidance, which of the following actions should the CAE take under these circumstances?

Options:

A.

Use the current available resources to conduct the review and exclude those procedures that can ' t currently be performed.

B.

Implement an accelerated training plan to provide the audit staff with the necessary skills and knowledge to conduct the engagement.

C.

Encourage management to accept the assessed risk until the internal audit activity is able to adequately review the area.

D.

Obtain assistance for the audit team from other internal assurance providers who possess the requisite expertise in the area.

Question 199

Which of the following most accurately describes the role of the board when it comes to organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Responsibility for outcome of the process.

B.

Responsibility to be involved in management of the organization.

C.

Responsibility to determine who is accountable for outcomes.

D.

Responsibility to identify risks in the organization’s business environment

Question 200

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity ' s position within the organization.

Question 201

Which of the following documents most directly describes the guidelines for and importance of the objectivity of internal auditors?

Options:

A.

Internal audit quality assessments.

B.

Internal audit charter.

C.

Internal audit plan.

D.

Internal audit reporting.

Question 202

Which statement accurately describes the authority of the internal audit activity as outlined in the audit charter?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) shall report directly to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The CAE shall provide senior management and the board with performance updates quarterly.

C.

The internal audit team shall have full access to the organization ' s records, physical property, and personnel required to conduct audit engagements.

D.

The internal audit activity shall maintain a quality assurance and improvement program in conformance with the Standards.

Question 203

Which of the following is most likely to be considered a control weakness?

Options:

A.

Vendor invoice payment requests are accompanied by a purchase order and receiving report.

B.

Purchase orders are typed by the purchasing department using prenumbered forms.

C.

Buyers promptly update the official vendor listing as new supplier sources become known.

D.

Department managers initiate purchase requests that must be approved by the plant superintendent.

Question 204

Management of an area under review is aggressive, upset, and questioning the knowledge and experience of the organization ' s internal auditors, as the audit results highlight critical findings. The relationship between the internal audit activity and management has continued to degenerate. as previous audit reports also showed a large number of issues. What would be the best strategy for working through the current audit results while also attempting to repair the relationship with management?

Options:

A.

Take an accommodating approach and change the overall rating of the audit report.

B.

Take a compromising approach by modifying the tone of the report, while maintaining the critical findings.

C.

Take an assertive approach and be persistent in attempting to convince the director.

D.

Take an assisting approach and offer to assist with the implementation of action plans.

Question 205

Which of the following would best preserve the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter is approved by the chief audit executive (CAE).

B.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

C.

The CAE ' s internal audit plan is endorsed by the board.

D.

The chief financial officer determines the appointment of the CAE.

Question 206

During fieldwork, an internal auditor located a significant internal control issue. Without identifying the origins of the issue, the auditor concluded the engagement and included the issue in the final audit report. To enhance audit quality, which of the following skills should the internal auditor improve?

Options:

A.

Business acumen.

B.

Critical thinking.

C.

Communication.

D.

Audit report writing.

Question 207

An internal audit activity uses a rotational program to recruit high-performing staff members from other parts of the organization One of these individuals is nearing the end of her four-year internal audit rotation The chief audit executive assigned her to an assurance engagement in the business area she will be going into when she leaves the internal audit activity Which of the following statements is

true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

Accepting the assignment is a violation of internal audit independence

B.

Accepting the assignment will improve competencies and develop relationships that will be needed in her next assignment

C.

Accepting the assignment creates the appearance of an impairment to her professional judgment and detectivity

D.

Accepting the assignment on the assurance engagement would be a breach of due professional care

Question 208

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

Question 209

Which of the following best describes the Standards requirement for collective proficiency of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must have auditors on staff who collectively possess all of the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan,

B.

All internal auditors on staff should possess the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform any assurance engagement on the audit plan.

C.

The internal audit activity must possess or obtain the competencies needed to carry out their professional responsibilities, including providing relevant advice and recommendations.

D.

Internal auditors collectively are responsible for ensuring that the internal audit activity has the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan.

Question 210

The internal audit activity is undergoing a self-assessment as part of its quality assurance and improvement program. Which of the following observations must be addressed in order for the internal audit activity to achieve conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

The internal audit charter does not identify which audit services are outsourced.

B.

The internal audit charter has not been reviewed by the legal department.

C.

The internal audit charter has not been approved by the board within the past year.

D.

The internal audit charter does not describe the authority of the internal audit activity.

Question 211

Which of the following statements is true with regard to services provided by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

For consulting engagements, internal auditors do not need to be alert to control issues.

B.

Assurance and consulting services have similar objectives.

C.

Internal auditors may not perform assurance and consulting roles at the same time.

D.

Both assurance and consulting engagements require a final engagement report

Question 212

Which of the following best describes the type of organizational culture known as adaptability culture ' ?

Options:

A.

A results-oriented culture that values competitiveness and personal initiative

B.

A culture that emerges in quick-response and high-risk decision-making environments

C.

A culture that is characterized by low involvement with environmental and health issues

D.

A culture that places high value on participation and meeting the needs of employees.

Question 213

An internal auditor observed that sales staff are able to modify or cancel an order in the system prior to shipping* She wonders whether they can also modify orders after shipping. Which of the following types of controls should she examine?

Options:

A.

Batch controls.

B.

Application controls.

C.

General IT controls.

D.

Logical access controls

Question 214

In order for an internal auditor to assess the opportunity for fraud to occur in an organization, which of the following does the auditor first need to understand?

Options:

A.

Fraud prevention.

B.

Fraud detection.

C.

Corporate culture.

D.

Forensic analysis techniques.

Question 215

Which of the following is the best example of an ongoing independent monitoring activity?

Options:

A.

Management quality assurance activities

B.

Internal audit fraud prevention and detection activities

C.

Management and supervisory activities

D.

External audit quality assurance activities

Question 216

A chief audit executive has reported to the board that the internal audit activity is lacking financial accounting knowledge for specific audit projects. Upon approval from the board which of the following hiring approaches is best in this situation?

Options:

A.

An inbound rotational program

B.

A full-time permanent recruitment

C.

An outbound rotational program

D.

A guest auditor program

Question 217

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are considered a core internal audit role with regard to enterprise risk management?

Reviewing the management of key risks.

Evaluating the reporting of key risks.

Evaluating risk management processes.

Consolidating the reporting of risks.

Options:

A.

1 and 4.

B.

2 and 4.

C.

2, 3, and 4.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 218

Which data analytics competency is critical for new internal auditors to possess in order to plan and perform internal audit engagements in conformance with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Describe data analytics and the application of data analytics methods in internal auditing.

B.

Apply data analytics methods in internal auditing.

C.

Evaluate the use of data analytics in an internal audit.

D.

Understand the definition of data analytics only.

Question 219

Which of the following best describes the role of internal control frameworks?

Options:

A.

They outline specific internal controls for an organization to implement to ensure business objectives will be achieved.

B.

They provide guidance related to internal control design and implementation to assist with the evaluation and benchmarking of business practices.

C.

They serve as a list of appropriate internal controls for auditors to ensure an organization is using best practices.

D.

They serve as a template for identifying standardized best practices in effective risk management across industries and countries.

Question 220

In which of the following scenarios would the chief audit executive (CAE) be required to decline the assignment?

Options:

A.

The CAE would need to procure external services to deliver the internal audit assurance program.

B.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for detecting and investigating fraud.

C.

There is no expertise within the internal audit team for auditing an IT engagement.

D.

There is no available expertise on the internal audit team to perform a consulting engagement

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Total 735 questions