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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Dumps

Practice of Internal Auditing Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following must be in existence as a precondition to developing an effective system of internal controls?

Options:

A.

A monitoring process

B.

A risk assessment process.

C.

A strategic objective-setting process.

D.

An information and communication process

Question 2

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met.

B.

To ensure senior management supports the report's conclusions.

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated.

Question 3

An internal auditor e assessing the design of a control and has identified a potential significant weakness. The auditor shared his concern with management however management does not agree that the weakness is significant. What should the internet auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Perform additional audit work to better articulate the risk

B.

Report the finding that management has accepted a level of risk that is unacceptable.

C.

Proceed to testing how effectively the control is opening.

D.

Because the design weakness has been identified no additional audit work is needed

Question 4

What would be the effect if an organization paid one of its liabilities twice during the year, in error?

Options:

A.

Assets, liabilities, and owners' equity would be understated.

B.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be unaffected

C.

Assets and liabilities would be understated.

D.

Assets, net income, and owners’ equity would be understated, but liabilities would be overstated

Question 5

Which of the following is an advantage of an internal audit activity coordinating with a management-defined risk universe?

Options:

A.

Increased completeness, including risk categories like political, supplier, and social media.

B.

Business managers can identify and assess risks that occur within each category.

C.

The internal audit activity can rely on management's risk assessment.

D.

Organizationwide audits are required since risk events within categories occur in many different ways.

Question 6

The audit manager asked the internal auditor to perform additional testing because several irregularities were found in the financial information. Which of the following would be the most appropriate analytical review for the auditor to perform?

Options:

A.

Compare the firm's financial performance with organizations in the same industry

B.

Interview all managers involved in preparing the financial statements

C.

Perform a bank reconciliation to confirm the cash balance in the financial statements.

D.

Trace each financial transaction to the original supporting document

Question 7

While conducting an audit of a third party's Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management's plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 8

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

Question 9

Which of the following best describes how an internal auditor would use a flowchart during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To prepare for testing the effectiveness of controls

B.

To plan for evaluating potential losses

C.

To prepare a sampling plan for the engagement

D.

To evaluate the design of controls

Question 10

Which of the following best describes the four components of a balanced scorecard?

Options:

A.

Customers, innovation, growth, and internal processes.

B.

Business objectives, critical success factors, innovation, and growth.

C.

Customers, support, critical success factors, and learning.

D.

Financial measures, learning and growth, customers, and internal processes.

Question 11

Which of the following constitutes supervisory activity undertaken during the planning phase of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the process owner with the engagement objectives

B.

Reviewing engagement draft reports

C.

Ensuring workpapers support audit findings

D.

Approving audit work programs

Question 12

Which of the following internal audit activities is performed in the design evaluation phase?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor reviews prior audits and workpapers

B.

The internal auditor identifies the controls over segregation of duties.

C.

The internal auditor checks a process for completeness.

D.

The internal auditor communicates the audit results to management

Question 13

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a chantable contribution from the organization Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities

Question 14

Which of the following manual audit approaches describes testing the validity of a document by following it backward to a previously prepared record?

Options:

A.

Tracing

B.

Reperformance

C.

Vouching

D.

Walkthrough

Question 15

Upon concluding the engagement fieldwork an internal auditor discusses the audit findings with operational management There is a greater likelihood that the auditor will obtain a responsive action plan from management when both parties agree on which of the following attributes of the audit finding?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Condition

C.

Cause

D.

Effect

Question 16

Which of the following statements about assurance maps is correct?

Options:

A.

An assurance map is used by the chief audit executive to coordinate assurance activities with other internal and external assurance providers

B.

An assurance map is a picture of all assurance engagements performed by the internal audit activity across the organization

C.

An assurance map is used by the engagement supervisor to coordinate the roles of various internal audit team members assigned to assurance engagements

D.

An assurance map lists the procedures and testing activities performed by an internal audit team during an assurance engagement

Question 17

A large investment organization hired a chief risk officer (CRO) to be responsible for the organization's risk management processes. Which of the following people should prioritize risks to be used for the audit plan?

Options:

A.

Operational management, because they are responsible for the day-to-day management of the operational risks.

B.

The CRO, because he is responsible for coordinating and project managing risk activities based on his specialized skills and knowledge.

C.

The chief audit executive, although he is not accountable for risk management in the organization.

D.

The CEO, because he has ultimate responsibility for ensuring that risks are managed within the agreed tolerance limits set by the board.

Question 18

According to ISO 31000, which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

The board is responsible for setting the organizational attitude through tone at the top.

B.

The internal audit activity will provide assurance over operating effectiveness but not over the design of risk management activities

C.

The internal audit activity can give objective assurance on any part of the risk management framework for which it is responsible.

D.

The framework is designed to be effective for organizations no matter how small.

Question 19

The board of directors of a global organization has found an increased number of reported cases of unethical practices since last year. To assist the board in gaining a better understanding of the degree of ethics awareness within the organization, which of the following actions should be undertaken?

Options:

A.

Request the internal audit activity to perform an ethics-related assurance engagement.

B.

Offer in-house ethics-related training seminars for employees to attend

C.

Reaffirm the importance of the organization's code of ethics to all employees

D.

Conduct an organization wide employee survey on ethical practices.

Question 20

In which of the following situations would an internal control questionnaire best suit the internal auditor's purpose?

Options:

A.

The auditor wants to receive mid-level management insight on how to improve hiring practices

B.

The auditor wants to obtain information on whether adherence to approval matrices is actually taking place in different maintenance units.

C.

The auditor wants to gain assurance that inventory counts are conducted in accordance with established procedures.

D.

The auditor wants to assess whether different subsidiaries apply centrally established procurement rules in the same manner

Question 21

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework.

Question 22

Which of the following is not a primary purpose for conducting a walk-through during the initial stages of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

To help develop process maps.

B.

To determine segregation of duties.

C.

To identify residual risks.

D.

To test the adequacy of controls.

Question 23

A draft internal audit report that cites deficient conditions generally should be reviewed with which of the following groups?

1. The client manager and her superior.

2. Anyone who may object to the report’s validity.

3. Anyone required to take action.

4. The same individuals who receive the final report.

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

1 and 2 only

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

1, 2, and 4

Question 24

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding reporting the results of the quality assurance and improvement program?

Options:

A.

Results of internal assessments need to be reported to the board at least once every five years.

B.

The external assessor must present the findings from the external assessment to senior management and the board upon completion.

C.

Deficiencies within the internal audit activity must be reported to the board as soon as they are noted

D.

Results of ongoing monitoring of the internal audit activity’s performance must be reported to senior management and the board at least annually

Question 25

The only internal auditor, who was part of a larger team of individuals trained in the testing and reading of the organization’s quality control equipment, has resigned. With a scheduled audit of the quality department not yet completed for this year, what alternative approach should the internal audit function take in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Explain the situation to senior management and remove the audit from the audit plan until next year

B.

Conduct the audit of the quality department but adjust the audit program to remove the quality control testing

C.

Engage one of the other trained employees to participate in the audit review of the quality department

D.

Request that external auditors include this area as part of their review and provide independent assurance

Question 26

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

Determine whether an independent review of the service provider's operation has been conducted.

Verify that the service provider’s contracts include necessary clauses.

Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider.

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4.

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 27

When estimating the impact of an inherent risk, which of the following should internal auditors consider?

Options:

A.

The probability and frequency of occurrence

B.

Financial and nonfinancial factors related to the risk

C.

The number of risks identified on the heat map

D.

The residual risk following implementation of appropriate controls

Question 28

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

Question 29

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

It documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review.

Question 30

As part of internal audit's assistance with an annual external audit, the internal auditors are required to do a preliminary analytical review of an bank account balances. This involves verifying the current year end balances as web as comparing the current year end balances with previous year end balances to highlight significant changes. Which of the following is the most reliable source for verification of the current year end bank balances?

Options:

A.

Bank confirmations

B.

Internal bonk statements

C.

Bank reconciliations as of the end of the year

D.

Bank account general ledger balancer as of the end of the year

Question 31

Which of the following analytical procedures should an internal auditor use to determine whether monthly expenses for the accounting department are reasonable?

Options:

A.

Review year-over-year trending of total dollars spent in each period.

B.

Review changes to the vendor master file for suspicious activity.

C.

Review the percentage of on-time payments against prior periods.

D.

Review total expenses for accounting against other department expenses in the organization.

Question 32

Which of the following describes the primary objective of an internal audit engagement supervisor?

Options:

A.

Uphold the quality of the internal audit actively

B.

Provide engagement progress updates to management of the area under review

C.

Assure risks and controls are identified and assessed

D.

Ensure timely completion of the engagement

Question 33

The board of directors expressed concerns about potential external risks that could impact the organization s ability to meet its annual objectives and goals The board requested consulting services from the internal audit activity to gain insight regarding the external risks Which of the following engagement objectives would be appropriate to fulfill this request?

Options:

A.

Assess the organization's ability to minimize potential external risks

B.

Assess the organization's process of vetting vendors that provide necessary services to the organization

C.

Assess the organization's risk impacts from the markets in which it operates

D.

Assess the organization's controls implemented that would help minimize risks

Question 34

Which of the following should the chief audit executive do when evaluating the possibility of relying on external auditors' work?

Options:

A.

Perform comprehensive background checks on all independent auditors on the engagement.

B.

Recalculate all financial calculations to confirm competency.

C.

Examine objectivity and any perceived or actual conflicts of interest.

D.

Review audit tests employed in all previous audits.

Question 35

Which of the following statements is true regarding managements use of judgement to design, implement, and conduct internal control?

Options:

A.

The use of judgment enhances managements ability to make better decisions about internal control, but cannot guarantee perfect outcomes.

B.

introducing judgment generally diminishes managements ability to make good decisions about internal control

C.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in areas such as specifying and using suitable accounting principles.

D.

It is inappropriate for management to exercise judgement in assessing whether components are present, functioning, and operating together

Question 36

Which of the following best describes external benchmarking using trend analysis for a subsidiary of an international company?

Options:

A.

Comparing the current ratio of the subsidiary with the current ratio of another company for the same period

B.

Comparing common-size financial statements of the subsidiary with the averages of the industry for the last two periods

C.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the sales of another subsidiary for the last two periods.

D.

Comparing the sales of the subsidiary with the budgeted figures for the last two periods

Question 37

Which of the following statistical sampling approaches is the most appropriate for testing a population for fraud?

Options:

A.

Discovery sampling.

B.

Stop-or-go sampling.

C.

Haphazard sampling.

D.

Stratified attribute sampling.

Question 38

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department's staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity's increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization's recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 39

An internal audit activity has to confirm the validity of the activities reported by a grantee that received a charitable contribution from the organization. Which of the following methods would best help meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Visiting the grantee to assess whether the execution of the project was in line with the defined grant scope.

B.

Verifying that the grantee's final report is in line with what was depicted in the initial budget request.

C.

Reconciling general ledger accounts used by management of the area under review for reflecting expenses on charitable contributions.

D.

Interviewing employees of the corporate affairs department, which is responsible for charitable activities.

Question 40

The internal audit activity needs to review the information security function but does not have the IT expertise needed for the engagement. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to ensure the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a staff auditor and closely review his work and report.

B.

Assign the engagement to a senior auditor, who carefully researches and studies the company’s IT infrastructure.

C.

Contract an external service provider auditor with the experience necessary to perform the audit.

D.

Perform the audit herself and work closely with the information security function to obtain expertise in the area.

Question 41

Which of the following activities Is most likely to require a fraud specialist to supplement the knowledge and skills of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Planning an engagement of the area in which fraud is suspected.

B.

Employing audit tests to detect fraud

C.

Interrogating a suspected fraudster.

D.

Completing a process review to improve controls to prevent fraud.

Question 42

For an action plan to be effective, it should be designed primarily to address which of the following elements of an observation?

Options:

A.

Condition

B.

Root cause

C.

Criteria

D.

Recommendation

Question 43

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 44

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer "no" or "yes" more accurately.

Question 45

When auditing an organization's purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

Question 46

Which of the following is applicable to both a job order cost system and a process cost system'?

Options:

A.

Total manufacturing costs are determined at the end of each period.

B.

Costs are summarized in a production cost report for each department

C.

Three manufacturing cost elements are tracked: direct materials, direct labor, and manufacturing overhead.

D.

The unit cost can be calculated by dividing the total manufacturing costs for the period by the units produced during the period.

Question 47

An internal auditor is conducting a review of the procurement function and uncovers a potential conflict of interest between the chief operating officer and a significant supplier of IT software development services. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Inform the audit supervisor.

B.

Investigate the potential conflict of interest.

C.

Inform the external auditors of the potential conflict of interest.

D.

Disregard the potential conflict, because it is outside the scope of the audit assignment.

Question 48

An internal auditor recommended that an organization implement computerized controls in its sales system in order to prevent sales representatives from executing contracts in excess of their delegated authority levels A follow-up review found that the sales system had not been modified, but a process had been implemented to obtain written approval by the vice president of sales for all contracts in excess of S1 million The chief audit executive (CAE) would be justified in reporting this situation to the organization's board under which of the tollowing circumstances'?

1. In the opinion of the CAE the level of residual risk assumed by senior management is too high

2. Testing of compliance with the new process finds that all new contracts in excess of $1 million have been approved by the vice president of sales

3. The cost of modifying the sales system to include a preventive control is less than S100.000

Options:

A.

1 only

B.

3 only

C.

1 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and3

Question 49

When auditing an organization's cash-handling activates which of the following is the most reliable form of testimonial evidence an internal auditor can obtain?

Options:

A.

Testimony from the cashier who performs the processes being reviewed

B.

Testimony from me cashier's supervisor who knows how processes should be performed

C.

Testimony from a knowledgeable person who is independent of the cashiering duty

D.

Testimony from a manager who oversees all cashiering activities being reviewed

Question 50

The internal audit activity is responsible for which of the following actions related to an organization’s internal controls9

Options:

A.

Mitigating risks affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

B.

Enabling opportunities affecting achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Analyzing and advising regarding costs versus benefits of control activities.

D.

Attesting to fairness of financial statements

Question 51

Which of the following would be considered a violation of The IIA’s mandatory guidance on independence?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports functionally to the board and administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The board seeks senior managements recommendation before approving the annual salary adjustment of the CAE.

C.

The CAE confirms to the board, at least once every five years, the organizational independence of the internal audit act/vity.

D.

The CAE updates the internal audit charter and presents it to the board for approval periodically, not on a specific timeline

Question 52

According to IIA guidance, which of the following strategies would add the least value to the achievement of the internal audit activity's (IAA's) objectives?

Options:

A.

Align organizational activities to internal audit activities and measure according to the approved IAA performance measures.

B.

Establish a periodic review of monitoring and reporting processes to help ensure relevant IAA reporting.

C.

Use the results of IAA engagement and advisory reporting to guide current and future internal audit activities.

D.

Establish a format and frequency for IAA reporting that is appropriate and aligns with the organization's governance structure.

Question 53

Which of the following is the advantage of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs) as part of a preliminary survey for an engagement?

Options:

A.

ICQs provide testimonial evidence.

B.

ICQs are efficient.

C.

ICQs provide tangible evidence to be quantified.

D.

ICQs put observations into perspective.

Question 54

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor's suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 55

To compete in the global market, an organization is restructuring and consolidating many of its divisions. Prior to the consolidation, senior management requested assistance from tie internal audit activity. Which of the following consulting services would be most appropriate in this situation?

Options:

A.

Assess controls for potential compliance issues that may affect me consolidation

B.

Brief vendors on the potential risks that will occur without continued business

C.

Advise division managers on how to streamline operations for better efficiency

D.

Determine whether the organization’s controls are effective in meeting business objectives

Question 56

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

Question 57

In which scenario might it be considered problematic for the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance services over the payroll function?

Options:

A.

The CAE previously undertook a consulting assignment in that area to improve processes.

B.

A couple of years ago, the CAE performed accounting functions for the payroll department.

C.

Prior to becoming the CAE, the CAE was the payroll manager.

D.

The assurance review was initiated following issues identified during a consulting assignment requested by management.

Question 58

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization's accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

Question 59

At a construction company, an internal auditor is planning an audit of the company's process for designing and building grid connections The process involves customers making payments m three parts

• The first payment of 10% after approval of the customer s application

• The second payment of 70% prior to construction

• The third payment of 20% after construction is complete

Which of the following key controls should the auditor test to ensure that the company is not taking any unwanted credit risks?

Options:

A.

Controls that ensure that grid connection design is finalized before construction is approved to begin

B.

Controls that ensure construction orders are initiated after the second invoice is paid

C.

Controls that ensure all three invoices are calculated correctly according to the total project cost

D.

Controls that ensure that applications are verified for approval prior to initiating design and construction

Question 60

Which of the following parties is accountable for ensuring adequate support for conclusions and opinions readied by the internal audit activity while relying on external auditors' work?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

External auditors

C.

Chief audit executive

D.

Senior management

Question 61

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with management's decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

Question 62

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor's use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor's review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor's review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor's review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor's review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

Question 63

According to the MA guidance, which of the following does the engagement work program test in a review of an organizational process?

Options:

A.

Process objectives.

B.

Process risks

C.

Process controls.

D.

Process scope

Question 64

Which of the following is a true statement regarding the use of flowcharts as an audit tool?

Options:

A.

Flowcharts are typically not well suited to support information provided by a risk and control matrix.

B.

Flowcharts are preferred to narratives, as they can provide much greater detail on the design and operation of a process.

C.

Flowcharts are best applied to linear process flows but cannot address all risks related to the process.

D.

Flowcharts describe process steps but cannot provide the level of detail needed to adequately assess the design of the process.

Question 65

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

Question 66

An internal auditor discovered fraud while performing an audit of an organization's procurement process. Which of the following describes the greatest benefit of using forensic auditing techniques in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Enhanced capability to prevent frauds from occurring.

B.

Greater assurance that procurement frauds will be detected in a timely manner

C.

Improved capability of evaluating fraud risks within the organization.

D.

Greater understanding of fraud through better evidence collection

Question 67

An organization's chief audit executive is developing an integrated audit approach to provide value-added services that can help the organization meet its strategic objectives and goals. Which of the following is an advantage of using an integrated audit approach that assists the organization?

Options:

A.

It allows the internal audit function to provide more subjective conclusions that would help the organization meet its goals and objectives.

B.

It allows the internal audit function to perform the appropriate engagements that minimize audit fatigue within the organization.

C.

It allows the internal audit function to focus more attention on ensuring that solutions and risks adhere to defined regulations.

D.

It allows the internal audit function to obtain more resources to perform more engagements of departments within the organization.

Question 68

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

Question 69

Which of the following statements is true regarding an organization’s inventory valuation?

Options:

A.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped free on board (FOB) destination to another organization.

B.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods received on consignment from another organization.

C.

The valuation will be incorrect if the inventory includes goods in transit shipped FOB shipping point from another organization.

D.

The valuation will be correct if the inventory includes goods sent on consignment to another organization

Question 70

Which of the following statements about including consulting engagements in the annual internal audit plan is true?

Options:

A.

All requests for consulting engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan

B.

Assurance engagements must be included in the annual internal audit plan but there is no requirement to include consulting engagements

C.

Consulting engagements do not need to be included m the annual internal audit plan unless requested by the board

D.

The acceptance of proposed consulting engagements into the annual internal audit plan may depend on their ability to add value

Question 71

A chief audit executive (CAE) is trying to balance the internal audit activity's needs for technical audit skills budget efficiency and staff development opportunities. Which of the following would best assist the CAE in achieving this balance1?

Options:

A.

Strategic sourcing

B.

Loan staff arrangement

C.

Flat organizational structure

D.

Hierarchical organizational structure

Question 72

The chief audit executive (CAF) determined that the residual risk identified in an assurance engagement is acceptable. When should this be communicated to senior management?

Options:

A.

When the CAE reports the audit outcome to senior management.

B.

When the residual risk is identified before the engagement is complete.

C.

Immediately, as residual risk should be communicated as soon as possible

D.

When management of the area under review has resolved and mitigated the residual risk

Question 73

According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement^

Options:

A.

Esteem by colleagues.

B.

Self-fulfillment.

C.

Sense of belonging in the organization

D.

Job security.

Question 74

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 75

A bakery chain has a statistical model that can be used to predict daily sales at individual stores based on a direct relationship to the cost of ingredients used and an inverse relationship to rainy days. What conditions would an auditor look for as an indicator of employee theft of food from a specific store?

Options:

A.

On a rainy day, total sales are greater than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

B.

On a sunny day, total sales are less than expected when compared to the cost of ingredients used.

C.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are greater than expected.

D.

Both total sales and cost of ingredients used are less than expected.

Question 76

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the purpose of a planning memorandum for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

It documents the audit steps and procedures to be performed.

B.

it documents preliminary information useful to the audit team.

C.

It documents events that could hinder the achievement of process objectives.

D.

It documents existing measures that manage risks in the area under review

Question 77

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the Internal audit activity^

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

Question 78

What is the primary purpose of issuing a preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To build good relations with management

B.

To help management develop more responsive and timely action plans

C.

To formally report medium- and high-risk observations in writing

D.

To improve the internal audit key performance indicators

Question 79

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

Question 80

Management testimony of improper segregation of duties in the cash receipt process can be considered which of the following?

Options:

A.

Analytical

B.

Reliable

C.

Relevant

D.

Sufficient

Question 81

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control serf-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit

D.

hours Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only rf the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 82

Management asks the chief audit executive (CAE) to allocate an internal auditor as a non-voting member of a steering committee. The committee will oversee the implementation of a significant and confidential acquisition. Which of the following should guide the CAE’s selection?

Options:

A.

To select a candidate who can be trusted to gather sensitive information on the acquisition

B.

To select a candidate capable of conveying internal audit strategy even without voting status

C.

To self-assign as only the CAE has authority to express opinions and offer advice to committee members

D.

To select a candidate who has prior experience in mergers or the completion of due diligence of entities

Question 83

An internal auditor is assessing whether a vendor onboarding procedure is being followed in all business units. The procedure has been centrally designed and depicts activities and validations that must be performed at every step. Which of the following is the most suitable way to compile an internal control questionnaire?

Options:

A.

Develop statements that are based on the procedure requirements and ask respondents to select yes or no responses

B.

Develop open questions that inquire about the appropriateness and efficacy of the procedure

C.

Develop closed questions asking managers to describe the onboarding process in detail

D.

Develop multiple response questions where a respondent has to identify one correct answer out of four

Question 84

An internal auditor has discovered that duplicate payments were made to one vendor Management has recouped the duplicate payments as a corrective action Which of the following describes managements action in this case?

Options:

A.

A condition-based action plan

B.

A cause-based action plan.

C.

A root cause-based action plan.

D.

An effect-based action plan.

Question 85

Which of the following technologies will best reduce human processing errors and enable seamless exchange of business transactions among business partners?

Options:

A.

Enterprise resource planning

B.

Material requirements planning

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Customer relationship management

Question 86

The internal audit activity plans to assess the effectiveness of management’s self-assessment activities regarding the risk management process. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate to accomplish this objective?

Options:

A.

Review corporate policies and board minutes for examples of risk discussions.

B.

Conduct interviews with line and senior management on current practices.

C.

Research and review relevant industry information concerning key risks.

D.

Observe and test control and monitoring procedures and related reporting.

Question 87

An internal auditor submitted a report containing recommendations for management to enhance internal controls related to investments. To follow up, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

Observe corrective measures.

B.

Seek a management assurance declaration.

C.

Follow up during the next scheduled audit.

D.

Conduct appropriate testing to verify management responses.

Question 88

'Internal policy prohibits employees from entering into contacts with financial obligations without proper approval.

A project manager signed a change to an important service agreement without obtaining the proper approval As a result the organization is receiving $5,000 per month less for its services.’’

Which of the following should be added to the observation?

Options:

A.

The reason for not following the internal policy

B.

A description of what constitutes proper approval

C.

The annual impact of the changed agreement on cash flows

D.

Details regarding when the change to the agreement was signed

Question 89

An internal auditor performed a test of controls and found that a statistically selected representative sample of recorded transactions within the account receivables ledger had an error rate that was within management expectations. The associated revenue account was outside the scope of the audit engagement. How should the conclusion to this engagement be reported?

Options:

A.

The auditor should state that the error rate was within the selected confidence level.

B.

Negative assurance should be provided, as the associated revenue account was not examined.

C.

The auditor should state that controls over the recording of transactions in the revenue account are operating effectively.

D.

Positive assurance could be provided for the effectiveness of the accounts receivable controls.

Question 90

During an engagement in one of the subsidiaries of an organization, an internal auditor noted the following in the workpapers:

"As a subsidiary of a multinational organization in this particular country, the entity is required to register annually with the

respective ministry. However, the subsidiary did not submit the required documentation for registration during the prior year. Failure

to comply with internal and external regulations could lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities. It is recommended

that the management of the subsidiary ensures compliance with the relevant legislation. As a recoverable action, management

should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

What part of this narrative represents a condition of the observation made by auditors in the final report?

Options:

A.

" ... the subsidiary did not submit required documentation for registration in the prior year."

B.

" ... the entity is required to register annually with the respective ministry."

C.

" ... failure to comply with internal and external regulations might lead to penalties or fines from the respective authorities."

D.

" ... management should register the subsidiary in the current year as soon as possible."

Question 91

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires?

Options:

A.

Internal control questionnaires are useful m evaluating the effectiveness of standard operating procedures

B.

internal control questionnaires provide reliable documents allowing internal auditors to cover many control procedures in little time

C.

Internal control questionnaires can be used by internal auditors as an interview guide

D.

Internal control questionnaires provide direct audit evidence which may need corroboration

Question 92

Who is responsible for ensuring internal auditors continuing professional development*

Options:

A.

Individual internal auditors

B.

Chief audit executive.

C.

The board

D.

Engagement supervisors

Question 93

While performing fieldwork for an assurance engagement, a member of the internal audit team identified a key control that was not identified during the planning phase of the engagement Which of the following actions by the internal auditor would be most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Promptly adjust the audit work program to include tests that address the newly identified control and notify the other audit team members of the change

B.

Proceed with the current audit work program because the engagement scope has already been finalized but plan to address the newly identified control as part of the follow up engagement

C.

Adjust the audit work program to account for the new control, but only with approval from the engagement supervisor

D.

Discuss the control with management of the area under review and seek their approval prior to including the control in the current audit engagement

Question 94

Which of the following would most likely be found in an organization that uses a decentralized organizational structure?

Options:

A.

There is a higher reliance on organizational culture

B.

There are clear expectations set for employees.

C.

There are electronic monitoring techniques employed

D.

There is a defined code for employee behavior

Question 95

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate actions for the chief audit executive regarding management's response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

B.

Evaluate and verify management's response, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

C.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and determine the need and scope for additional work.

D.

Oversee the corrective actions undertaken by management, and establish timelines for corrective action by management.

Question 96

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

Question 97

Which of the following would be the most helpful to a chief audit executive when developing a talent management strategy?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Staff preferences

C.

Maturity analysis

D.

Extent of external audit coverage

Question 98

Which of the following statements accurately describes the Standards requirement for ret internal audit records?

Options:

A.

Retention requirements for internal audit records should be compliant with ones set for external audit records

B.

Retention requirements should take into account the medium in which internal audit records are stored

C.

Retention requirements should be set by the chief audit executive and aligned will the organization s process and procedures

D.

Retention requirements should set a minimum period of the for records storage and the process of archiving documents

Question 99

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action to be taken by the chief executive (CAE) if management refuses to accept audit recommendations and implement corrective actions, Even after escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

The CAE should continue to meet with management to obtain their agreement for corrective action

B.

The CAE should note in the final report that management has decided to accept the risk.

C.

The CAE should ask that additional testing be undertaken to strengthen his case as to the need for corrective action.

D.

The CAE should advise senior management of his intention to escalate the matter to the board.

Question 100

Which of the following is true about surveys?

Options:

A.

A survey with open-ended questions is weaker than a structured interview

B.

A survey with closed-ended questions can produce quantifiable evidence

C.

A survey's participants are likely to volunteer information that was not specifically requested

D.

A survey, like inspections and confirmations are best used to test the operating effectiveness of controls

Question 101

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity's risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity's key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

Question 102

The internal audit activity is currently working on several engagements, including a consulting engagement on the management process in the human resources department. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to most efficiently and effectively ensure the quality of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Assign an experienced manager to monitor the whole engagement process.

B.

Employ fieldwork peer review to enhance the work quality.

C.

Require internal auditors to follow a standardized work program.

D.

Personally supervise the engagement

Question 103

Which of the following information is most appropriate for the chief audit executive to share when coordinating audit plans with other internal and external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Objectives scope and timing at a high level to support coordination while adhering to confidentiality requirements

B.

The area and timing of the audit engagement to ensure confidentially and avoid conflict of interest.

C.

All plan information, including risk assessments, planned tests and past results to maximize the opportunity for coordination with internal and external providers.

D.

No information should be shared with internal and external provider as it could introduce bias into the engagement results.

Question 104

When a significant finding is noted early during a review of the accounts payable function, which next course of action is best for communicating the issue?

Options:

A.

Intern accounting management via an interim memorandum update

B.

Note the item in the workpapers for inclusion in the final audit report

C.

Call a meeting and discuss me issue with the audit committee

D.

Alert the CEO as soon as the issue is discovered

Question 105

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

Options:

A.

The organizational chart, business objectives and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

C.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

D.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement

Question 106

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following Is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 107

A chief audit executive's report to the board showed a significant trend of recent aud4s going over planned budgeted hours. Which of the following factors could cause this trend?

Options:

A.

Poor engagement supervision

B.

ineffective board reporting

C.

Untimely observation follows up and closure

D.

Limited staff resources

Question 108

Which of the following methodologies consists of the internal auditor holding individual meetings with different people, asking them the same questions, and aggregating the results?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews.

D.

Elicitation.

Question 109

According to the International Professional Practices Framework, which of the following is an appropriate reason for issuing an interim report?

To keep management informed of audit progress when audit engagements extend over a long period of time.

To provide an alternative to a final report for limited-scope audit engagements.

To communicate a change in engagement scope for the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

1 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 3 only.

D.

1, 2, and 3.

Question 110

Which type of assurance engagement is conducted to determine whether a process or area is performing as intended, accomplishing its objectives, and doing so in an efficient and economical way?

Options:

A.

Compliance audit.

B.

Operational audit.

C.

Financial audit.

D.

Provider audit.

Question 111

An audit observation states the following:

"Despite the rules of the organization there is no approved credit risk management policy in the subsidiary. The subsidiary is concluding contacts with clients who have very high credit ratings. The internal audit team tested 50 contacts and 17 showed clients with a poor credit history"

Which of the following components are missing in the observation?

Options:

A.

Cause and effect.

B.

Effect and criteria

C.

Condition and cause

D.

Criteria and condition.

Question 112

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization's principal risk events.

C.

The organization's risk response strategies

D.

The organization's major control activities

Question 113

An internal auditor is conducting a preliminary survey of the investments area, and sends an internal control questionnaire to the management of the function. (An extract of the survey is provided below).

1. Are there any restrictions for any company's investments?

2. Are there any written policies and procedures that document the flow of investment processing?

3. Are investment purchases recorded in the general ledger on the date traded?

4. Is the documentation easily accessible to an persons who need in to perform their job?

Which of the following is a drawback of testing methods like this?

Options:

A.

They ore kitted as they do not allow the auditor to test many controls.

B.

They do not highlight control gaps

C.

They are not useful for identifying areas on which the auditor should locus.

D.

They are limited as there is a risk that management may not answer fairly.

Question 114

Which of the following statements best explains why an internal auditor should pay attention to retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

Retained earnings indicate the amount of potential dividends to be paid out to new investors.

B.

Retained earnings represent the amount of excess cash available in the organization.

C.

Retained earnings demonstrate that the organization was able to generate working capital from its own activities.

D.

Retained earnings constitute the main criterion used by ratings agencies to assess an organization.

Question 115

An internal auditor is preparing for an auditor of newly implemented software that is used by 3,000 employees in South America and Europe. What would be the best way for the auditor to gather relevant feedback?

Options:

A.

interview IT management in both regions

B.

Inspect regional user software training records

C.

Interview propel management and the vendor responsible for implementation

D.

Distribute surveys to software users in both regions

Question 116

A newly appointed chief audit executive (CAE) started analyzing the organization's policies in an attempt to customize them to address internal audit specifics. Which of the following organizationwide practices is most likely to be acceptable to the CAE?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors' performance evaluation is primarily based on both client satisfaction surveys and cost savings identified from the audits

B.

Standard training for each employee, including internal auditors, is 10 hours per year.

C.

To enhance efficiency, Internal auditors should not be rotated regularly among engagements

D.

Hiring practices include requiring potential auditors to disclose any significant stock ownership in the organization.

Question 117

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization's risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year's financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

Question 118

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagements planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques

Question 119

According to IIA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason the chief audit executive (CAE) should actively network and build relationships with senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

To fulfill the CAE's responsibility to keep the board appropriately informed.

B.

To expand the CAE's understanding of management issues.

C.

To help maintain the objectivity of the internal audit activity.

D.

To increase opportunities to demonstrate the internal audit activity performance.

Question 120

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk.

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization’s general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms

Question 121

An engagement work program o of greatest value to audit management when which of the following is true?

Options:

A.

The work program provides more detailed support for the audit report

B.

The work program helps determined the required amount of audit resources

C.

The work program helps ensure tie achievement of the engagement objectives

D.

The work program assists the auditor n developing and managing audit tests

Question 122

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

Question 123

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 124

During a review of the treasury function an internal auditor identified a risk that all bank accounts may net to include in the daily reconciliation process.

Which of the following responses would be most effective to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

The treasury supervisor establishes a threshold for amounts on bank statements to be reconciled against data in the system

B.

The treasury analyst performs a daily reconciliation of al bank statements obtained via email against data in the system

C.

The treasury analyst reviews a daily report automatically generated by the treasury system, which shows bank statements that have not been uploaded into the accounting system.

D.

The treasury supervisor seeks an annual confirmation from the bank regarding the bank statements processed within a year

Question 125

The chief risk officer (CRO) of a large manufacturing organization decided to facilitate a workshop for process managers and staff to identify opportunities for improving productivity and reducing defects. Which of the following is the most likely reason the CRO chose the workshop approach?

Options:

A.

It minimizes the amount of time spent and cost incurred to gather the necessary information.

B.

Responses can be confidential, thus encouraging participants to be candid expressing their concerns.

C.

Workshops do not require extensive facilitation skills and are therefore ideal for nonauditors.

D.

Workshop participants have an opportunity to learn while contributing ideas toward the objectives.

Question 126

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 127

An internal auditor tested whether purchase orders were supported by appropriately approved purchase requisitions She sampled a population of purchase documents and identified instances where purchase requisitions were missing However, she did not notice that n some cases purchase requisitions were approved by an unauthorized person Which of the following risks most appropriately describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Nonsampling risk

B.

Sampling risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Due diligence risk

Question 128

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management's responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

Question 129

Which of the following evaluation criteria would be the most useful to help the chief audit executive determine whether an external service provider possesses the knowledge, skills, and other competencies needed to perform a review?

Options:

A.

The financial interest the service provider may have in the organization.

B.

The relationship the service provider may have had with the organization or the activities being reviewed.

C.

Compensation or other incentives that may be applicable to the service provider.

D.

The service provider's experience in the type of work being considered.

Question 130

Which of the following is most appropriate for internal auditors to do during the internal audit recommendations monitoring process?

Options:

A.

Report the monitoring status to senior management when requested.

B.

Assist management with implementing corrective actions.

C.

Determine the frequency and approach to monitoring.

D.

Include all types of observations in the monitoring process.

Question 131

When forming an opinion on the adequacy of management's systems of internal control, which of the following findings would provide the most reliable assurance to the chief audit executive?

• During an audit of the hiring process in a law firm, it was discovered that potential employees' credentials were not always confirmed sufficiently. This process remained unchanged at the following audit.

• During an audit of the accounts payable department, auditors calculated that two percent of accounts were paid past due. This condition persisted at a follow up audit.

• During an audit of the vehicle fleet of a rental agency, it was determined that at any given time, eight percent of the vehicles were not operational. During the next audit, this figure had increased.

• During an audit of the cash handling process in a casino, internal audit discovered control deficiencies in the transfer process between the slot machines and the cash counting area. It was corrected immediately.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 132

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle's details from one of the delivery employees.

Question 133

An internal audit manager assigns an audit team to test purchase transactions by selecting a sample from transactions processed by each of the three procurement officers.

Which of the following techniques will help the audit team achieve this sampling objective?

Options:

A.

Systematic sampling.

B.

Stratified sampling.

C.

Stop-or-go sampling

D.

Discovery sampling.

Question 134

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

Question 135

According to IIA guidance, which of the following are the most important objectives for helping to ensure the appropriate completion of an engagement?

1. Coordinate audit team members to ensure the efficient execution of all engagement procedures.

2. Confirm engagement workpapers properly support the observations, recommendations, and conclusions.

3. Provide structured learning opportunities for engagement auditors when possible.

4. Ensure engagement objectives are reviewed for satisfactory achievement and are documented properly.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 136

Which of the following best demonstrates that the internal audit activity is using due professional care?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity reports directly to the board on the engagements it performs.

B.

Internal auditors undertake the necessary training to complete their audit work.

C.

The completion of engagements is based on the assumption that fraudulent activities may exist.

D.

Internal auditors consider the use of technology-based audit and other data analysis techniques

Question 137

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 138

What type of audit engagement would be the most appropriate to determine how an organization could be more profitable in the long term?

Options:

A.

Operational audit

B.

Compliance and financial audit

C.

Performance audit

D.

Quality audit

Question 139

During audit engagement planning, an internal auditor is determining the best approach for leveraging computer-assisted audit techniques (CAATs). Which of the following approaches maximizes the use of CAATs and why?

Options:

A.

Tracing, because it would enable the auditor to verify quickly that the record counts were properly included in the compilation.

B.

Inspection, because it would enable the auditor to verify how management enters the data into the application for processing.

C.

Testing data, because it would enable the auditor to ensure that the application processes the transaction as described by management.

D.

Reperformance, because it enables the auditor to verify that the application performed the calculation correctly.

Question 140

An internal auditor of a construction organization found that completed inspection results, required by the organization's policy, were missing from the computer system. Which of the following, if included in the audit report, would demonstrate that the auditor performed a root cause analysis of this observation?

Options:

A.

Some inspection results were missing from the computer system.

B.

The results of lengthy inspections were more likely to be omitted from the computer system.

C.

Flaws in the computer system prevented employees from saving their inspection results.

D.

Employees did not ensure that inspection results were completed in the computer system.

Question 141

Which of the following should an internal auditor document to support an assurance engagement’s conclusions?

Options:

A.

Evidence of all data used in an engagement

B.

Internal audit policies and workpaper templates

C.

Workpapers, cross-referenced to audit observations

D.

Satisfaction ratings from management of the area under review

Question 142

Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for a chief audit executive to conduct an external assessment more frequently than five years?

Options:

A.

Significant changes in the organization's accounting policies or procedures would warrant timely analysis and feedback.

B.

More frequent external assessments can serve as an equivalent substitute for internal assessments.

C.

The parent organization's internal audit activity agreed to perform biennial reciprocal external assessments to provide greater assurance at a reduced cost.

D.

A change in senior management or internal audit leadership may change expectations and commitment to conformance

Question 143

In which of the following situations would it be most appropriate for an internal audit function to issue an interim report or memo?

Options:

A.

A scheduled audit observed that several agreed improvements from the previous audit were still being implemented.

B.

A planned inventory count at the production plant revealed a material variance.

C.

An employee shared concerns of suspected fraud but did not provide evidence.

D.

An auditor responsible for the fieldwork has carried out only half of the planned audit procedures and has no observations so far.

Question 144

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 145

According to HA guidance, the chief audit executive is directly responsible for which of the following?

Options:

A.

Maintaining a quality assurance program even in the absence of management support

B.

Periodically reviewing and approving the internal audit charier

C.

Providing opportunities for all staff auditors to satisfy their professional development requirements

D.

Establishing the objectives scope and plan for each engagement

Question 146

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

Question 147

Which of the following is essential for ensuring that the internal audit activity's findings and recommendations receive adequate consideration?

Options:

A.

Reporting results of audits with recommendations to management.

B.

Providing formal follow-up procedures to ensure that management complies with an action plan or accepted risk of not taking action.

C.

Reporting quarterly to management that the audit plan is focused on higher exposures of risk.

D.

Discussing audit findings with independent auditors.

Question 148

The internal audit activity (IAA) wants to measure its performance related to the quality of audit recommendations. Which of the following client survey questions would best help the IAA meet this objective?

Options:

A.

Were audit findings relevant and useful to management?

B.

Does the audit report format present issues clearly and concisely?

C.

Does the IAA work with a high degree of professionalism and objectivity?

D.

Were the findings reported in a timely manner?

Question 149

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

Question 150

According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions might place the independence of the internal audit function in jeopardy?

Options:

A.

Having no active role or involvement in the risk management process.

B.

Auditing the risk management process for reasonableness.

C.

Coordinating and managing the risk management process.

D.

Participating with management in identifying and evaluating risks.

Question 151

When using cost-volume-profit analysis, which of the following will increase operating income once the break-even point has been reached?

Options:

A.

Fixed costs per unit for each additional unit sold.

B.

Variable costs per unit for each additional unit sold.

C.

Contribution margin per unit for each additional unit sold.

D.

Gross margin per unit for each additional unit sold

Question 152

A manufacturing organization specializes in the production of evaporated milk and breakfast cereals. The manufacturing processes create significant loss in the form of waste and byproducts. The provision for normal production loss is known to senior management, but little action is taken when abnormal production losses occur. The organization sells its production byproducts to fish farmers at a reduced price. The byproducts are a widely recognized and used product in the fish farming industry. The organization has a policy that also allows its employees to purchase the byproducts at a negligible price. Based on the above, which of the following risks should the internal audit function consider when planning an engagement of the production process?

Options:

A.

The production team may be incentivized to increase production losses.

B.

The production team may work overtime and be overworked.

C.

Increased misappropriation of finished products.

D.

Risk that the finished product quality may be impaired.

Question 153

Which of the following is the primary weakness of internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs do not allow for open-ended questions.

B.

ICQs do not allow for evaluating multiple locations.

C.

ICQs require significant auditor follow-up, as different managers may give different responses.

D.

ICQ respondents have incentives to answer that there are internal controls in place.

Question 154

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

Question 155

During an organization’s management meetings, employees who report bad news and significant risks are treated as if they were to blame for those circumstances. As a result, employees tend to postpone delivering bad news to management for as long as possible. Which of the following should be addressed to improve this culture?

Options:

A.

Tone at the top

B.

Risk accountability

C.

Risk leadership

D.

Code of ethics

Question 156

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

Options:

A.

To better understand and influence executives' planning.

B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.

C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.

D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.

Question 157

Which of the following best describes why an internal audit activity would consider sending written preliminary observations to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Written observations allow for more interpretation.

B.

Written observations help the internal auditors express the significance.

C.

Written and verbal observations are equally effective.

D.

Written observations limit premature agreement.

Question 158

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement.

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement.

Question 159

The objective of an upcoming engagement is to review the wind park projects and assess compliance with established project management principles. Which of the following is most likely to be the aim of the engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the application of project management guidance in the development of wind parks.

B.

Identify key risks and mitigation plans pertaining to the management of wind parks.

C.

Assess whether development of wind parks is compliant with relevant legal acts and international best practices.

D.

Review the wind park development strategy and compare its goals with operational targets and metrics.

Question 160

Which of the following is the primary reason for internal auditors to conduct interim communications with management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

To demonstrate good project oversight

B.

To provide timely discussion of results

C.

To demonstrate internal auditor proficiency

D.

To follow up on previously requested information

Question 161

A new internal auditor is overwhelmed by the number of tasks they need to complete at the engagement planning stage. Which of the following could support the auditor’s organization and delivery of planned work?

Options:

A.

Review the auditor's job description

B.

Create a checklist

C.

Develop a control questionnaire

D.

Prepare a fishbone diagram

Question 162

Due to emerging new technologies that greatly affect the organization, the chief audit executive (CAE) wants to conduct frequent IT audit and is particularly focused on improving the quality of these engagements. Which of the following is the most viable solution for the CAE to ensure that IT audit quality is immediately enhanced and maintained long-term?

Options:

A.

Each year send a different member of the internal audit staff to an IT audit conference to learn about emerging technologies

B.

Contract an external IT special to offer advice and consult on IT audits

C.

Employ an independent external IT specialist to perform IT audits for the first year

D.

Invite qualified staff from the IT department to serve as guest auditors and lead IT audits

Question 163

An organization's healthcare insurance costs have been rising approximately 10 percent per year for several years. Which of the following analytical review procedures would best evaluate the reasonableness of the increase in healthcare costs?

Options:

A.

Develop a comparison of the costs incurred with similar costs incurred by other organizations.

B.

Obtain the government index of healthcare costs for the comparable period of time and compare the rate of increase with that of the cost per employee incurred by the organization.

C.

Obtain a bid from another healthcare administrator to provide the same administrative services as the current healthcare administrator.

D.

Review all claims and compare with appropriate procedures to ensure that overpayments have not occurred.

Question 164

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team’s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 165

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 166

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether the organization's 200 employees are charging their work hours accurately to the correct project. The internal auditor selected a sample of 30 employee time reports for testing. Based on the testing, the internal auditor determined the following:

- 5 Time reports were incorrect.

- 21 Time reports were correct.

- 4 Time reports were not supported.

Options:

A.

The organization has significant flaws in its reporting of employee time, which could lead to the overstatement of project labor costs. The organization's failure to report accurate and complete employee time could lead to potential fraud and abuse.

B.

The organization needs to ensure that all reporting of employee time is accurate and complete for each of its projects By dang so the organization can minimize potential issues related to overstating employee tames and labor project costs.

C.

The organization overstated project costs due to inaccurate and incomplete reporting of employee time charged to the affected accounts As a result the organization cannot ensure at protects costs are accurately reported to stakeholders

D.

The organization generally ensured that employee hours charged to each project were accurate and complete. However, there were instances of employee time reports that were incorrect or not supported to justify the multiple project labor coats

Question 167

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements about analytical procedures is true?

Options:

A.

Analytical procedures compare information against expectations.

B.

Analytical procedures begin after the engagement’s planning phase.

C.

Analytical procedures provide internal auditors with explainable results.

D.

Analytical procedures are computer-assisted audit techniques.

Question 168

Senior management wants assurance that third-party contractors are following procedures as agreed with the organization. Which type of audit would be most appropriate

to achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

A compliance audit.

B.

A due diligence audit.

C.

A financial audit.

D.

An external audit.

Question 169

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

Question 170

An internal auditor completed a review of expenses related to the launch of a new project. The auditor sampled 45 transactions approved by a senior project manager and identified 30 with questionable vendor documentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the auditor to include in the audit report?

Options:

A.

The organization incurred excessive cost overruns that resulted in significant financial and legal risk to the project.

B.

The organization experienced a potential conflict of interest

C.

The organization had weaknesses in its review process which allowed questionable transactions with some vendors

D.

The organization allowed the project to launch without assurance that all transactions were regularly approved

Question 171

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

Question 172

The internal audit activity is asked to review the effectiveness of controls around the disposal of chemical waste. However, the internal auditors on staff lack the necessary skills to conduct this review Which of the following would be the most appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who recently attended a three-day workshop on chemical waste disposal, and therefore has the most knowledge on the topic, should lead the engagement.

B.

A team of available internal auditors should be assembled and should consult with an external nonaudit expert on chemical waste disposal to plan and conduct the engagement.

C.

A team of the most knowledgeable auditors could be assembled and use the engagement work program from the previous year to gather additional insight regarding recommended audit procedures

D.

A nonaudit employee from the chemical disposal area may share his expertise with the audit team, provided the internal audit manager conducts a detailed review of all engagement work performed.

Question 173

A chief audit executive (CAE) following up on action plans from previously completed audits identifies that management has determined that certain action plans are no longer necessary If the CAE disagrees with managements decision, which of the following is the most appropriate next step for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

The CAE must discuss the matter with senior management

B.

The CAE must discuss the matter with key shareholders.

C.

The CAE must discuss the matter with legal counsel.

D.

The CAE must discuss the matter with the board

Question 174

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

Question 175

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable parts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production. The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques. Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor's theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data Input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period.

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume.

C.

Compare the parts needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 176

When constructing a staffing schedule for the internal audit activity (IAA), which of the following criteria are most important for the chief audit executive to consider for the effective use of audit resources?

1. The competency and qualifications of the audit staff for specific assignments.

2. The effectiveness of IAA staff performance measures.

3. The number of training hours received by staff auditors compared to the budget.

4. The geographical dispersion of audit staff across the organization.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 177

During the review of an organization's retail fraud deterrence program, an employee mentions that an expensive fraud surveillance information system is rarely used. The internal auditor concludes that additional staff are required to properly utilize the system to its full potential. According to IIA guidance, which criteria for evidence is most lacking to reach this conclusion?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Reliability.

C.

Relevancy.

D.

Usefulness.

Question 178

Which of the following items, included in the preliminary audit communication would be most useful for management to formulate action plans in response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

A condition

B.

An audit objectives

C.

An audit scope

D.

An observation rating

Question 179

According to HA guidance, which of the following is the Key planning step internal auditors should perform to establish appropriate engagement objectives prior to starting an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Review the organizational structure, management roles and responsibilities and operating procedures

B.

Evaluate management's risk assessment and the internal audit activity's risk assessment

C.

Assess process How and control documents used to meet regulatory requirements

D.

Review meeting notes from discussions involving management of the area to be reviewed.

Question 180

Which of the following methods is most closely associated to year over year trends?

Options:

A.

Horizontal analysts

B.

Vertical analysis.

C.

Common-size analysis.

D.

Ratio analysis.

Question 181

During a payroll audit, the internal auditor discovered that several individuals who have the same position classification as the are earning a significantly higher salary. The auditor noted the names and amounts of each; and he planned to prepare a request to the chief audit executive for a salary Increase based on this Information. Which of the following IIA Code of Ethics principles was violated in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Competency.

B.

Objectivity.

C.

integrity

D.

Confidentiality

Question 182

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The engagement objectives are the boundaries for the engagement, which outline what will be included in the review

B.

The risk-based objectives of the engagement can be determined once the scope of the engagement has been formed

C.

For a consulting engagement, planning typically occurs after the engagement objectives and scope have already been determined

D.

For an assurance engagement, once the scope is established and testing has begun, the scope cannot be modified.

Question 183

Which of the following is an appropriate documentation of proper engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

A completed engagement workpaper review checklist.

B.

The supervisor's review notes on engagement workpapers.

C.

The email exchanges between the audit team and the supervisor.

D.

A supervisor's approval of resources allocated to the engagement

Question 184

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team's recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team's recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

Question 185

Upon the completion of an audit engagement an audit manager performs a review of a staff auditor's workpapers. Which of the following actions by the manager is the most appropriate this review''

Options:

A.

Communicate the workpaper review results to management of fie area under review to validate the final report

B.

Update the final report in the file with any necessary corrections based on the workpaper review.

C.

Discuss the workpaper review results with the staff auditor where appropriate as a leaning opportunity

D.

Add the manager's review notes to the final documentation following the review

Question 186

Which of the following approaches to understanding business processes is conducted from a broad organizational perspective and has the greatest risk of overlooking processes that are ultimately critical?

Options:

A.

Process narrative.

B.

Process mapping.

C.

Bottom-up.

D.

Top-down.

Question 187

Options:

A.

Reviewing quality department survey results, which show 96% of employees believe all defective products are removed prior To shipping.

B.

Physically inspecting a sample of completed processing cycles for detective products prior to shipment.

C.

Observing employees while they raped products for defects

D.

Reviewing a quality report provided by management mat snows 13 products were identified and removed during me most recent processing cycle

Question 188

An audit client responded to recommendations from a recent consulting engagement. The client indicated that several recommended process improvements would not be implemented. Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take in response?

Options:

A.

Escalate the unresolved issues to the board, because they could pose significant risk exposures to the organization.

B.

Confirm the decision with management and document this decision in the audit file.

C.

Document the issue in the audit file and follow up until the issues are resolved.

D.

Initiate an assurance engagement on the unresolved issues.

Question 189

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team's IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization's IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 190

A financial services organization's CEO requests that the internal audit function carry out fraud scenario testing over the supplier payment process. The engagement supervisor intends to identify these scenarios using a technique that motivates the sharing of ideas. Which of the following provides the internal audit function with this information?

Options:

A.

Fraud risk matrix

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Walkthroughs

Question 191

Which of the following internal audit activity staffing models has the disadvantage that auditors are always new and in training?

Options:

A.

Career model.

B.

Center of competence model.

C.

Rotational model.

D.

Hybrid model.

Question 192

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 193

Which of the following is the most important determinant of the objectives and scope of assurance engagements?

The organizational chart, business objectives, and policies and procedures of the area to be reviewed

Options:

A.

The most recent risk assessment conducted by management of the area to be reviewed.

B.

The requests of operational and senior management throughout the organization.

C.

The preliminary risk assessment performed by internal auditors planning the engagement.

Question 194

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would not be a consideration for the internal audit activity (IAA) when determining the need to follow-up on recommendations?

Options:

A.

Degree of effort and cost needed to correct the reported condition.

B.

Complexity of the corrective action.

C.

Impact that may result should the corrective action fail.

D.

Amount of resources required to conduct the follow-up activities.

Question 195

As a result of server managements assumption of risk there is residual risk that exceeds me organisation's risk appetite. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

ignore the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

B.

Assume the responsibility of addressing the residual risk

C.

Ensure senior management acknowledges residual risk

D.

Communicate with the board the issue of residual risk

Question 196

An internal auditor is planning to audit the organization's payroll function, which was recently outsourced. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Review management's organ nationwide risk assessment

B.

Understand the objectives and strategies of the new arrangement

C.

Revise the scope of the audit engagement

D.

Form objectives for the audit engagement

Question 197

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

Question 198

In addition to gathering information, which of the following is a primary objective of a client interview conducted during the planning stage of an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

To obtain sufficient audit evidence.

B.

To test the client's knowledge.

C.

To agree on the auditor’s scope of authority.

D.

To establish rapport.

Question 199

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

Question 200

Which statement best describes the benefit of using workpapers from recent internal audit engagements of the area under review to plan new engagements?

Options:

A.

Recent workpapers can help during the planning of a new engagement to understand any corrective actions taken by management to address previous engagement observations.

B.

Tests described in recent workpapers can be copied into the new workpapers to save time from reperforming a risk assessment.

C.

Recent workpapers serve as the best source for identification of the risks to be examined in the new engagement.

D.

The new engagement scope can be derived from recent workpapers to ensure the reperformance of engagement procedures.

Question 201

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources. Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls.

C.

Detective key controls.

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 202

An organization has a health and safety division that conducts audits to meet regulatory requirements. The chief health and safety officer reports directly to the CEO. Which of the following describes an appropriate role for the chief audit executive (CAE) with regard to the organization's health and safety program?

Options:

A.

The CAE has no role to play, because the chief health and safety officer reports to a senior executive.

B.

The CAE should coordinate with, and review the work of, the chief health and safety officer to gain an understanding of whether risks related to health and safety are managed properly.

C.

The CAE should give periodic reports directly to the regulator regarding health and safety issues, as it is the appropriate regulatory oversight body.

D.

The CAE should hire an independent external specialist to conduct an annual assessment and provide assurance over the effectiveness of the health and safety program and the reliability of its reports.

Question 203

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is a limitation of a heat map?

Options:

A.

Impact cannot be represented on a heat map unless it is quantified in financial terms

B.

Impact and likelihood at times cannot be differentiated as to which is more important.

C.

A heat map cannot be used unless a risk and control matrix has been developed.

D.

Qualitative factors cannot be incorporated into a heat map

Question 204

Which of the following statements is true regarding the final assurance engagement report issued to management?

Options:

A.

Ratings are only used to assess the condition of an observation made by an internal auditor.

B.

Audit findings may be communicated to management prior to issuance of the final approved audit report.

C.

Communications must be relevant logical, and free from errors before they are disseminated.

D.

The audit report must present the information in the following order (1) audit scope, (2) engagement objectives, and (3) engagement results

Question 205

An internal auditor at a bank informed the branch manager of a malfunctioning lock on one of the vaults. The risk associated with this issue was deemed significant by the chief audit executive (CAE), and immediate remediation was recommended. However, during a follow-up engagement, the branch manager told the CAE that the risk was actually not significant, hence no action was taken. What is the most appropriate next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management that the branch manager decided to cancel the committed action plan without any previous communication.

B.

Discuss the issue with the board, which has ultimate responsibility to resolve this risk.

C.

Have another discussion with the branch manager, attempt to change his view, and encourage him to implement the recommendations.

D.

Document the branch manager’s decision to accept the risk; otherwise, no other specific course of action is required.

Question 206

Which of the following statements is true regarding a drawback of using internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

When internal auditors need to cover many control procedures using ICQs is generally less efficient than conducting observations and inspections

B.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors lo compile appropriate ICQs for business activities that are governed by standardized operating procedures

C.

ICQs are inadequate to provide effective assurance on how organizational processes are executed in practice.

D.

It is generally difficult for internal auditors to process completed questionnaires, because ICQs frequently elicit detailed comments and long answers from management

Question 207

Which of the following is the best audit procedure to obtain evidence of an organization's legal ownership of a new property?

Options:

A.

Review documents registered with the appropriate governmental authority.

B.

Examine the board of directors' minutes and look for approvals to acquire property.

C.

Confirm with senior management and legal counsel concerning property acquisition.

D.

Confirm ownership with the title company that handles the escrow account.

Question 208

During an audit, the chief audit executive reviews and approves changes to the audit program. Which of the following describes this activity?

Options:

A.

Engagement reporting

B.

Continuous monitoring

C.

Engagement supervision

D.

Engagement risk assessment

Question 209

As part of the preliminary survey, an internal auditor sent an internal control questionnaire to the accounts payable function Based on the questionnaire responses, the auditor determines that there is no established procedure for adding and approving new vendors. What would the auditor do next?

Options:

A.

Determine that this situation is acceptable and focus on more significant issues

B.

Document the issue m the draft audit report

C.

Document the observation for further follow up when testing the operating effectiveness of controls

D.

Interview the personnel associated with this observation.

Question 210

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

Question 211

An internal auditor is performing an assessment in a vehicle brake manufacturing company. The auditor learned that the product quality test conditions are aligned with the company’s written test procedures. However, the test conditions are not similar to conditions experienced by vehicles in the real world. Documentation shows that a significant percentage of products fail the quality tests. Products that fail the tests are discarded. Which perspective is appropriate?

Options:

A.

The tests are acceptable since they are good enough to detect quality problems and failure products are not sent to the market.

B.

Despite a significant rejection percentage, the test conditions are not useful because they are not similar to real world conditions. The significance of the finding is reduced because tests are performed in accordance with written procedures.

C.

The quality tests must be run in similar conditions as vehicles experience in the real world. This is a major finding since there is a risk to life considering the type of product being evaluated.

D.

Despite the risk of an accident, the severity of the finding can be reduced because the company discards the failed products. Due to this, the likelihood of occurrence is low.

Question 212

An audit reveals that a manager's spouse is receiving paychecks, but is not employed by the organization. According to IIA guidance, which of the following actions should the internal auditor take?

Options:

A.

Contact the external auditor and provide all relevant documentation.

B.

Report the finding to senior management in a timely manner, following the normal chain of command.

C.

Meet with the local manager to obtain more information on the finding before taking further action.

D.

Bypass the normal chain of command and contact the board directly to report the finding.

Question 213

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, the internal audit engagement team identifies and evaluates the inherent fraud risks within the procurement function. What should be the engagement team’s next step?

Options:

A.

Identify and map existing controls to their relevant inherent fraud risks

B.

Detect fraudulent activities in the activity under review for the audited period

C.

Select the appetite level for each inherent fraud risk

D.

Evaluate and respond to residual fraud risks that need to be mitigated

Question 214

According to IIA guidance, which of the following accurately describes the responsibilities of the chief audit executive with respect to the final audit report?

1. Coordinate post-engagement conferences to discuss the final audit report with management.

2. Include management's responses in the final audit report.

3. Review and approve the final audit report.

4. Determine who will receive the final audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 215

An examination of the accounts payable function evidenced multiple findings with respect to segregation of duties. After management's response and action plan are received and documented in the final report, which of the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Follow up after the applicable changes have been incorporated to validate management’s response.

B.

Include the items in the scope of the next scheduled audit of the accounts payable function.

C.

Because management agreed with the findings, no further action is deemed necessary.

D.

Have an internal audit staff member placed into the accounting department until corrections are made.

Question 216

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with the internal policy.

Question 217

After the team member who specialized in fraud investigations left the internal audit team, the chief audit executive decided to outsource fraud investigations to a third party service provider on an as needed basis. Which of the following is most likely to be a disadvantage of this outsourcing decision?

Options:

A.

Cost.

B.

Independence.

C.

Familiarity.

D.

Flexibility.

Question 218

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

Question 219

After finalizing an assurance engagement concerning safety operations in the oil mining process, the audit team concluded that no key controls were compromised. However, some opportunities for improvement were noted. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way for the chief audit executive (CAE) to report these results?

Options:

A.

The CAE should send the final report to operational and senior management and the audit committee.

B.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management only, as there is no need to communicate this information to higher levels.

C.

The CAE should notify operational and senior management that the audit engagement was completed with no significant findings to report.

D.

The CAE should send the final report to operational management and notify senior management and the audit committee that no significant findings were identified.

Question 220

According to IIA guidance which of the following statements is true regarding the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

The annual audit plan should only be adjusted in response to problems with resourcing, scope, and data availability.

B.

The chief audit executive (CAE) may incorporate risk information, including risk appetite levels from management for the audit plan at her discretion.

C.

In an immature risk management environment it is preferable for the CAE to rely solely on her judgment regarding risk identification and assessment to develop the audit plan.

D.

The CAE may make adjustments to the annual audit plan as needed without senior management or board approval.

Question 221

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

Question 222

Which of the following is an example of a compliance assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Providing in-house training to senior management regarding applicable laws and regulations.

B.

Providing an assessment of the design adequacy of controls related to consumer privacy and confidentiality.

C.

Providing an assessment of customer satisfaction with customer service provided by the organization.

D.

Providing testing on the operating effectiveness of controls over the reliability of financial reporting.

Question 223

During which phase of the contracting process are contracts drafted for a proposed business activity’

Options:

A.

Initiation phase.

B.

Bidding phase.

C.

Development phase.

D.

Management phase

Question 224

An organization is expanding into a new line of business selling natural gas. The internal auditor is planning an engagement and wants to obtain a general understanding of the natural gas market the market share that the organization wants to win, and the competitive advantage that the organization may have. Which of the following would be the best source of such information?

Options:

A.

Interview responsible managers and read strategic documents

B.

Conduct internet searches on gas sales and analyze market players

C.

Review gas clients' portfolio and compile statistics on sales margins

D.

Analyze the organization's revenues and calculate the proportion of gas

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Total 747 questions