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IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Dumps

Internal Audit Engagement Questions and Answers

Question 1

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is based on the results of a preliminary assessment of risks relevant to the area under review?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Audit resources

C.

Audit objectives

D.

Audit plan

Question 2

During engagement planning, which party provides the most accurate and up-to-date description of how organizational processes and key controls operate?

Options:

A.

The management responsible for the activity under review

B.

The individuals who perform the daily tasks and functions of the activity under review

C.

The external auditors since they understand the key controls behind the financial statements

D.

The board of directors since they provide overall oversight for the organization

Question 3

Which of the following steps should an internal auditor complete when conducting a review of an electronic data interchange application provided by a third-party service?

1.Ensure encryption keys meet ISO standards.

2.Determine whether an independent review of the service provider ' s operation has been conducted.

3.Verify that the service provider ' s contracts include necessary clauses.

4.Verify that only public-switched data networks are used by the service provider

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4.

Question 4

Which of the following would most likely be found in an organization that uses a decentralized organizational structure?

Options:

A.

There is a higher reliance on organizational culture

B.

There are clear expectations set for employees.

C.

There are electronic monitoring techniques employed

D.

There is a defined code for employee behavior

Question 5

Which of the following sampling techniques is typically used when an internal auditor wants to test a large sample for fraud?

Options:

A.

Stratified sampling

B.

Haphazard sampling

C.

Discovery sampling

D.

Probability-proportional-to-size sampling

Question 6

Which method of examining entity-level controls involves gathering information from work groups that represent different levels in an organization?

Options:

A.

Questionnaires.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews

D.

Facilitated team workshops

Question 7

Internal audit staff lacks the expertise to perform a fraud investigation engagement stemming from a whistleblowing incident. Which of the following is the most appropriate

option for the chief audit executive?

Options:

A.

Appoint an independent fraud investigation specialist to work with the selected internal auditors.

B.

Organize in-house fraud investigation training sessions for selected internal auditors.

C.

Assign an experienced auditor to the engagement for a development opportunity.

D.

Hire a new internal auditor who possesses fraud investigation experience.

Question 8

An audit observation noted that annual inventory counts of biofuel was not being performed appropriately Fuel yards were not visited and physical amounts of biofuel were not reconciled with accounting data Management of the division understood the issue and promised to resolve the problem When should the internal auditor schedule a follow-up review?

Options:

A.

As soon as possible, no later than two months after the audit

B.

When convenient for both parties

C.

When management has indicated that the issue has been resolved

D.

Before financial year end

Question 9

Which procedure should an internal auditor perform to determine the audit objective?

Options:

A.

Meet with the board to discuss emerging issues and concerns

B.

Conduct a risk assessment of the area under review

C.

Establish the boundaries of the engagement

D.

Outline what will be included in the review

Question 10

What is the primary reason that audit supervision includes approval of the engagement report?

Options:

A.

To ensure the objectives of the area under review are met

B.

To ensure senior management supports the reports conclusions

C.

To ensure report style and grammar are appropriate.

D.

To ensure report findings are substantiated

Question 11

Which of the following should be described in the recognition element of a typical internal audit repot?

Options:

A.

Positive aspects of the process or area under review

B.

A brief synopsis of the process of area under review

C.

Outcomes and ratings of the process or area under review

D.

Report issuance and the communication process of the engagement.

Question 12

While planning for an accounts payable audit an internal auditor performs an entity level controls analysis. Which of the following statements is true regarding me approach used by the auditor?

Options:

A.

It enables the auditor to identify the inherent risks to the effective operation of accounts payable process controls.

B.

It enables the auditor to understand the framework of the activities and associated accounts payable subprocesses

C.

it enables the auditor to understand the accounts payable process and its flow, including key steps and systems.

D.

It enables the auditor to categorize the population of transactions within the accounts payable process

Question 13

Which of the following factors would the auditor in charge be least likely to consider when assigning tasks to audit team members for an engagement?

Options:

A.

The amount of experience the auditors have conducting audits in the specific area of the organization.

B.

The availability of the auditors in relation to the availability of key client staff.

C.

Whether the budgeted hours are sufficient to complete the audit within the current scope.

D.

Whether outside resources will be needed, and their availability.

Question 14

The chief audit executive (CAE) determined that the internal audit activity lacks the resources needed to complete the internal audit plan Which of the following would be the most appropriate action tor the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Use guest auditors from within the organization, and leverage their experience by assigning them to lead engagements m areas where they previously worked

B.

Outsource some of the audits to the organization s external auditor who is already familiar with the organization

C.

Invite nonauditors to join the internal audit activity for a two-year rotational position, and assign them to join audit teams that are reviewing areas where they have no previous management responsibility

D.

Recruit recent college graduates and employ them as audit interns with an aim to offer permanent employment

Question 15

When reviewing workpapers, engagement supervisors may ask for additional evidence or clarification via review notes. According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the engagement supervisors review notes?

Options:

A.

The review notes may be cleared from the final documentation once the engagement supervisors concerns have been addressed

B.

Management of the area under review must address the engagement supervisors review notes before the audit report can be finalized.

C.

The chief audit executive must initial or sign the engagement supervisors review notes to provide evidence of appropriate engagement supervision.

D.

Review notes provide documented proof that the engagement is supervised properly and must be retained for the quality assurance and improvement program

Question 16

When auditing an organization ' s purchasing function, which of the following appropriately matches an engagement objective and the resulting audit procedure?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the purchasing department complies with policy by examining a random selection of purchase orders.

B.

Evaluate whether purchasing requests are properly approved by authorized staff by obtaining independent verification from the vendors.

C.

Ascertain whether material receipts are recorded on a timely basis by reviewing physical inventory stock counts.

D.

Determine whether prices charged for goods received are correct by reviewing the appropriate accounts payable record by vendor.

Question 17

The internal audit activity has adopted the balanced scorecard approach to assess its performance According to MA guidance which of the following is a key performance indicator relevant to the audit client?

Options:

A.

Percentage of recommendations implemented by corrective action date

B.

Staff experience

C.

Percentage of planned audits completed

D.

Conformance with the International Professional Practices Framework

Question 18

During an operational audit of the cash receipts process, internal auditors uncovered many red flags related to possible misappropriation of cash and other cash-flow problems indicative of potential employee fraud. Which of the following statements is true regarding the follow-up investigative audit?

Options:

A.

The audit team that conducted the operational audit must also conduct the investigative audit.

B.

The investigative audit must be conducted by an independent third-party service provider.

C.

To preserve objectivity, auditors who participated on the initial operational audit engagement team must not partake in the investigative audit.

D.

The investigative audit engagement team must include at least one auditor who possesses fraud-related skills and competencies.

Question 19

Which of the following is an appropriate responsibility for the internal audit activity with regard to the organization ' s risk management program?

Options:

A.

Identifying and managing risks in line with the entity ' s risk appetite.

B.

Ensuring that a proper and effective risk management process exists.

C.

Attaining an adequate understanding of the entity ' s key mitigation strategies.

D.

Identifying and ensuring that appropriate controls exist to mitigate risks.

Question 20

Which of the following is most likely to impair the organizational independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) reports administratively to the chief financial officer

B.

The CAE oversees the effectiveness of the organization’s risk management function.

C.

The CAE reports functionally to the CEO.

D.

The CAE managed the finance department for the past five years.

Question 21

A senior internal auditor is hired within the internal audit activity for a period of two years before advancing to an operations manager role within the business operations team. When staffing arrangement is being used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Comer of competence

B.

Career model

C.

Rotational model

D.

Cosourcing agreement

Question 22

In an organization with a large internal audit activity that has several audit teams performing engagements simultaneously which of the following tasks is an engagement supervisor most likely to perform during the planning phase of a new engagement?

Options:

A.

Establish a means for resolving any professional judgment differences over ethical issues that may arise during the engagement.

B.

Approve the engagement work program to ensure the program is designed to achieve the engagement objectives

C.

Evaluate whether the testing and results support the engagement results and conclusion

D.

Review the sample testing results for exceptions.

Question 23

Which of the following internal control attributes should internal auditors consider testing during a review of the board of directors?

Options:

A.

The presence of an independent critical mass

B.

The established philosophy and operating style of senior management

C.

The articulated internal control objectives of the organization

D.

The organization ' s employee recruiting and retention policies

Question 24

In the following risk control map risks have been categorized based on the level of significance and the associated level of control. Which of the following statements is true regarding Risk C?

as

Options:

A.

The level of control is appropriate given the level of risk

B.

The level of control is excessive given the level of risk

C.

The level of control is inadequate given the level of risk

D.

There is not enough of information to determine whether the controls are appropriate or not

Question 25

The external auditor has identified a number of production process control deficiencies involving several departments. As a result, senior management has asked the internal audit activity to complete internal control training for all related staff. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to follow?

Options:

A.

Refuse to accept the consulting engagement because it would be a violation of independence.

B.

Collaborate with the external auditor to ensure the most efficient use of resources.

C.

Accept the engagement but hire an external training specialist to provide the necessary expertise.

D.

Accept the engagement even if the audit engagement staff was previously responsible for operational areas being trained.

Question 26

An accounts payable clerk has recently transferred into the internal audit activity and has been assigned to an engagement related to accounts payable processes for which he was previously responsible Which of the following is the best action for the new internal auditor to take?

Options:

A.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

B.

If it is a consulting engagement, decline the assignment and ask to be reassigned, because in a consulting engagement the auditor must not assess operations for areas in which they were previously responsible.

C.

if it is a consulting engagement, accept the assignment because direct knowledge of the existing accounts payable processes will provide depth and add more value

D.

If it is an assurance engagement, accept the assignment because the chief audit executive had knowledge of the internal auditor ' s previous role when this engagement was assigned.

Question 27

When creating the internal audit plan, the chief audit executive should prioritize engagements based primarily on which of the following?

Options:

A.

The last available risk assessment.

B.

Requests from senior management and the board.

C.

The longest interval since the last examination of each audit universe item.

D.

The auditable areas required by regulatory agencies.

Question 28

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target O Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

B.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement

C.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 29

Where should internal auditor focus their attention when identify and assessing key risks during the planning stage of an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Sampling risk.

B.

Audit risk.

C.

Residual risk.

D.

Inherent risk

Question 30

Which of the following should an internal auditor document to support an assurance engagement’s conclusions?

Options:

A.

Evidence of all data used in an engagement

B.

Internal audit policies and workpaper templates

C.

Workpapers, cross-referenced to audit observations

D.

Satisfaction ratings from management of the area under review

Question 31

An internal auditor has suspicions that the management of a department splits me number of planned purchases to avoid the approval process required for larger purchases. Which of the following would be the most efficient technique to help the auditor identify the seventy of this malpractice?

Options:

A.

Examining the entire population

B.

Asking management about the malpractice

C.

Testing a sample of random transactions.

D.

Using data analytics

Question 32

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding typical fraud schemes?

1.A diversion occurs when an employee has an undisclosed personal economic interest in a transaction that adversely affects the organization

2.Tax evasion is intentional reporting of false or misleading information on a tax return by an organization to reduce taxes owed.

3.Skimming involves stealing cash or assets from the organization and is normally concealed by adjusting the organization’s records

4Disbursement fraud occurs when a person causes the organization to issue a payment for fictitious goods or services

Options:

A.

1 and 3.

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3.

D.

2 and 4

Question 33

Which of the following is the primary reason an internal auditor would issue an interim report during an engagement?

Options:

A.

To provide a status update on a short engagement to management of the area under review and to the audit supervisor.

B.

To confirm agreement with preliminary observations and conclusions identified during the engagement.

C.

To provide those responsible for the area under review with the opportunity to act on certain observations immediately.

D.

To verify that the corrective actions required by senior management are completed as agreed.

Question 34

An internal audit intends to create a risk and control matrix to better understand the organization ' s complex manufacturing process. With which of the following approaches would the auditor most likely start?

Options:

A.

Assess management responses to key risk exposures

B.

Analyze the costs and benefits of key controls

C.

Evaluate the design adequacy of known controls

D.

Conduct a walk-through of all related activates

Question 35

For an action plan to be effective, it should be designed primarily to address which of the following elements of an observation?

Options:

A.

Condition

B.

Root cause

C.

Criteria

D.

Recommendation

Question 36

Which of the following is the best option for the chief audit executive to consider for effective coordination of assurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Create an assurance map to illustrate each provider ' s level of assurance and planned activities for each area of the organization

B.

LIMIT© ricks inventory to identify the risks and controls in place and the relevant control owners.

C.

Rely on the risk and control and management testing information maintained for compliance with the regulatory framework

D.

Prepare a risk likelihood and impact heal map to prioritize assurance coverage coordination.

Question 37

An internal auditor examined a nostatistical sample of open accounts receivable balances and discovered that 10 out of 60 exceeded the approved unseated credit limit threshold defined by the organization ' s policy What should the auditor document in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Credit limit over drafts are not monitored in accordance with the organizations policy

B.

Seventeen percent of customers ' open balances in the sample exceed their approved unsecured credit rent

C.

The threshold for credit limits defined by the organization ' s policy is not adequate

D.

Management should perform monthly monitoring of open customer balances

Question 38

A customer has supplied personal information to a bank to facilitate opening an account. The bank is part of a larger group of companies with core businesses including general insurance, life insurance, and investment products. Considering that the customer has closed his only account with the bank and the statutory data retention period has elapsed, which of the following actions by the bank is most likely to align with appropriate data privacy principles?

Options:

A.

The bank destroys all records containing a customer ' s personal information without informing the customer.

B.

Based on an assessment of likely products of interest to the customer, the bank shares the customer’s personal information with other companies within the group and informs the customer.

C.

The bank retains customer information to facilitate easier verification of personal information in the event that the customer returns to reopen his account. The customer is not informed.

D.

The customer ' s personal information is used for market research by an external company and the customer is informed prior to publishing the results of the market research.

Question 39

An internal auditor used a risk and control matrix to prepare a work program for testing a software release. During the engagement planning stage, he tested the design of

the release procedure as a key control and concluded that the control was not designed well. During the performance stage, he tested the operation of this control and

concluded that it was implemented as designed. Which of the following statements is true regarding this scenario?

Options:

A.

The test of the control design should have occurred at the performance stage.

B.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control was not necessary.

C.

A risk and control matrix is not appropriate for this type of engagement.

D.

The test of the operating effectiveness of the control should have occurred at the planning stage.

Question 40

Which of the following should be included in a privacy audit engagement?

1. Assess the appropriateness of the information gathered.

2. Review the methods used to collect information.

3. Consider whether the information collected is in compliance with applicable laws.

4. Determine how the information is stored.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

1, 2, 3, and 4

Question 41

Which of the following technologies will best reduce human processing errors and enable seamless exchange of business transactions among business partners?

Options:

A.

Enterprise resource planning

B.

Material requirements planning

C.

Electronic data interchange

D.

Customer relationship management

Question 42

Which of the following statements is true regarding engagement planning?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement should be planned according to the internal audit activity’s budget and then aligned to the risk universe.

B.

The audit engagement objectives should be based on operational management ' s view of risk objectives.

C.

The planning phase of the engagement should be completed and approved before the fieldwork of the engagement begins.

D.

The main purpose of the engagement work program is to determine the nature and timing of procedures required to gather audit evidence.

Question 43

According to IIA guidance, which of the following steps should precede the development of audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Identification of controls.

B.

Scope establishment.

C.

Risk assessment.

D.

Review of resources.

Question 44

Which of the following would most Holy reflect the best possible engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from a company ' s risk function experts.

B.

Engagement objectives derived from senior management ' s risk assessment results

C.

Engagement objectives derived from the mental audit activity ' s own risk assessment results

D.

Engagement objectives derived from risk assessment results from both senior management and the company ' s risk function experts

Question 45

Which of the following measures immediate short-term liquidity?

Options:

A.

Current ratio

B.

Profit margin

C.

Quick ratio

D.

Times interest earned

Question 46

An examination of the accounts payable function evidenced multiple findings with respect to segregation of duties. After management ' s response and action plan are received and documented in the final report, which of the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Follow up after the applicable changes have been incorporated to validate management’s response.

B.

Include the items in the scope of the next scheduled audit of the accounts payable function.

C.

Because management agreed with the findings, no further action is deemed necessary.

D.

Have an internal audit staff member placed into the accounting department until corrections are made.

Question 47

Which of the following is the primary reason the chief audit executive should consider the organization ' s strategic plans when developing the annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Strategic plans reflect the organization ' s business objectives and overall attitude toward risk.

B.

Strategic plans are helpful to identify major areas of activity, which may direct the allocation of internal audit activity resources.

C.

Strategic plans are likely to show areas of weak financial controls.

D.

The strategic plan is a relatively stable document on which to base audit planning.

Question 48

Senior IT management requests the internal audit activity to perform an audit of a complex IT area. The chief audit executive (CAE) knows that the internal audit activity lacks the expertise to perform the engagement. Which of the following is the most appropriate action for the CAE to take?

Options:

A.

Decline the audit engagement, because the Standards prohibit internal auditors from performing engagements where they lack the necessary competencies.

B.

Accept the audit engagement and use the engagement as an opportunity to develop the audit team ' s IT expertise while performing the audit work.

C.

Temporarily hire an experienced and knowledgeable IT analyst from the organization ' s IT department to lead the audit.

D.

Outsource the audit engagement to a reputable IT audit consulting firm.

Question 49

An organization is experiencing a significant risk that threatens its financial well-being Senior management requested that the chief audit executive (CAE) meet with them to discuss the risk. Which of the following would best describe the CAE ' s responsibility at the meeting?

Options:

A.

Inform senior management of the appropriate actions they should take to control the risk

B.

Recommend that the internal audit activity provide consulting services to help minimize the risk

C.

Assume the responsibility of resolving the significant risk that will affect the organization

D.

Determine whether senior management accepted risk that may be deemed unacceptable for the organization

Question 50

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be considered necessary for a one-person audit function?

Options:

A.

A formalized technical audit manual

B.

A written administrative audit manual

C.

A memorandum stating policies and procedures

D.

A comprehensive policy and procedure manual

Question 51

For which of the following fraud engagement activities would it be most appropriate to involve a forensic auditor?

Options:

A.

Independently evaluating conflicts of interests.

B.

Assessing contracts for relevant terms and conditions.

C.

Performing statistical analysis for data anomalies.

D.

Preparing evidentiary documentation.

Question 52

Which of the following statements best explains why an internal auditor should pay attention to retained earnings of an organization?

Options:

A.

Retained earnings indicate the amount of potential dividends to be paid out to new investors.

B.

Retained earnings represent the amount of excess cash available in the organization.

C.

Retained earnings demonstrate that the organization was able to generate working capital from its own activities.

D.

Retained earnings constitute the main criterion used by ratings agencies to assess an organization.

Question 53

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

Question 54

Which of the following statements is true regarding corporate social responsibility (CSR)?

Options:

A.

Many of the areas explored by CSR are normally included in an audit universe or annual audit plan

B.

Despite significant corporate resources spent on CSR reporting, investors generally do not rely on CSR information.

C.

Unlike many other areas of reporting responsibilities impacting stakeholders, CSR is largely voluntary.

D.

Typically, operating management does not have a major role to play based on the public nature of reporting

Question 55

An internal audit team leader is having difficulties completing the planning phase of an assurance engagement because the business unit lacks a system of internal controls. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the internal audit team leader?

Options:

A.

Defer the engagement until a system of internal control has been established

B.

Change the scheduled engagement from assurance to consulting to help correct the shortcomings

C.

Add a consulting component to the already scheduled assurance engagement

D.

Seek the involvement of the external auditor to assist with improving the internal controls

Question 56

Which of the following is not a direct benefit of control self-assessment (CSA)?

Options:

A.

CSA allows management to have input into the audit plan.

B.

CSA allows process owners to identify, evaluate, and recommend improving control deficiencies.

C.

CSA can improve the control environment.

D.

CSA increases control consciousness.

Question 57

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal control questionnaires (ICQs)?

Options:

A.

ICQs are most useful in more organic, decentralized organizations with specialized departmental or regional characteristics.

B.

An ICQ can be used effectively either by sending it in advance for management of the area under review to complete or by testing each procedure and recording the results.

C.

An ICQ is not an efficient tool, as it can only inquire about controls and it does not test them.

D.

ICQs are also known as checklist audits and encourage management of the area under review to answer " no " or " yes " more accurately.

Question 58

According to IIA guidance, when would an interim report typically be produced?

Options:

A.

During a standard audit engagement when management wants to address an issue before the final report is drafted.

B.

Following each workshop conducted during a consulting engagement.

C.

During lengthy audit engagements involving several organizational units.

D.

Following management ' s update tor actions taken on outstanding recommendations.

Question 59

According to Maslow ' s hierarchy of needs theory, which of the following best describes a strategy where a manager offers an assignment to a subordinate specifically to support his professional growth and future advancement^

Options:

A.

Esteem by colleagues.

B.

Self-fulfillment.

C.

Sense of belonging in the organization

D.

Job security.

Question 60

According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be the best first step to manage risk when a third party is overseeing the organization’s network and data ' ?

Options:

A.

Creating a comprehensive reporting system for vendors to demonstrate their ongoing due diligence in network operations.

B.

Drafting a strong contract that requires regular vendor control reports and a right-to-audit clause

C.

Applying administrative privileges to ensure right-to-access controls are appropriate

D.

Creating a standing cybersecurity committee to identify and manage risks related to data security.

Question 61

Which of the following actions is the most appropriate response for an internal auditor to take when a significant risk is identified during a consulting engagement?

Options:

A.

Report the risk identified from the consulting engagement to senior management.

B.

Do not include the risk in the assessment of risk management processes, as that is management ' s responsibility.

C.

Do not report the risk, as it is out of scope for the consulting engagement.

D.

Include the risk identified from the consulting engagement in the next annual risk assessment only if it is part of the consulting engagement objectives.

Question 62

Which type of engagement would be the most appropriate to assess the maturity and rigor of the organizationwide risk management process of a target entity that

management is considering acquiring?

Options:

A.

A due diligence engagement.

B.

An operational audit engagement.

C.

A feasibility study engagement.

D.

A risk and control self-assessment engagement.

Question 63

Which of the following actions should the internal audit activity take during an audit engagement when examining the effectiveness of risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Evaluate how the organization manages fraud risk.

B.

Establish procedures for improving risk management processes.

C.

Ensure risk responses are aligned with industry standards

D.

Verify that organizational objectives are aligned with each departments objectives.

Question 64

Which of the following offers the best explanation of why the auditor in charge would assign a junior auditor to complete a complex part of the audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The senior auditors are unavailable, as they are currently working on other portions of the engagement

B.

The auditor in charge believes that the junior auditor should obtain a specific type of experience.

C.

The audit engagement has a tight deadline and the work must be completed timely.

D.

The auditor in charge is unable to identify audit staff with all of the required skills needed to complete the engagement

Question 65

Internal auditors map a process by documenting the steps in the process, which provides a framework for understanding Which of the following is a reason to use narrative memoranda?

Options:

A.

To create a detailed risk assessment

B.

To identify individuals who perform key roles

C.

To explain a simple process.

D.

To document which outputs support other activities.

Question 66

What is the primary objective of an engagement supervisor ' s review of key activities performed during the engagement?

Options:

A.

To ensure that the engagement is completed on time and within budget

B.

To ensure that all work performed meets acceptable quality standards

C.

To ensure that management has provided suitable responses to all observations

D.

To ensure that management is satisfied with the progress of the engagement

Question 67

An internal auditor is planning a consuming engagement and the objective is to identify opportunities to improve the efficiency of the organization’s procurement process. The auditor is preparing to conduct a preliminary survey of the area. Which of the following approaches would be most useful to obtain relevant information to support the engagement objective?

Options:

A.

Complete a transaction walkthrough fiat focuses on the design and operation of financial reporting controls

B.

Conduct interviews with senior management to obtain their input and insights regarding operational controls.

C.

Perform a comprehensive review of the organization s existing policies and standard operating procedures.

D.

Review the procurement process map w*h employees who carry out key activities to obtain their input and insights.

Question 68

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal controls?

Options:

A.

For assurance engagements, internal auditors should plan to assess the effectiveness of all entity-level controls.

B.

Poorly designed or deficient entity-level controls can prevent well-designed process controls from working as intended.

C.

During engagement planning, internal auditors should not discuss the identified key risks and controls with management of the area under review, to prevent tipping off probable audit tests.

D.

Reviewing process maps and flowcharts is an appropriate method for the internal auditor to identify all key risks and controls during engagement planning.

Question 69

According to IIA guidance, how should an internal auditor apply any relevant information obtained from an internal consulting engagement during a related internal audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Document any facts obtained and include them as part of the audit engagement workpapers.

B.

Rely upon the information to draw conclusions about the effectiveness of controls.

C.

Use the knowledge obtained to evaluate the effectiveness of internal control processes.

D.

Objectivity requires that this information should not be used in any part of the audit engagement.

Question 70

Which of the following statement is consistent with IIA guidance the use of mentoring for internal auditors?

Options:

A.

The member and the internal auditor should opt for informal meetings even if it means that no formal documentation will be created.

B.

The mentor relationship is usually not suitable for internal audit staff, as it does not leas to professional development.

C.

The value of mentoring is derived primarily from the personal relationship between the two parties involved, and the mentor’s level of relevant experience should not be a key factor.

D.

The mentor should be the internal auditor’s supervisor to ensure that the auditor performance is assessed in a relevant and meaningful context.

Question 71

The head of customer service asked the chief audit executive (CAE) whether internal auditors could assist her staff with conducting a risk self-assessment in the customer service department The CAE promised to meet with customer service managers analyze relevant business processes and come up with a proposal Who is most likely to be the final approver of the engagement objectives and scope?

Options:

A.

Senior management of the organization

B.

The chief audit executive

C.

The head of customer service

D.

The board of directors

Question 72

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements are true regarding the internal audit plan?

1. The audit plan is based on an assessment of risks to the organization.

2. The audit plan is designed to determine the effectiveness of the organization ' s risk management process.

3. The audit plan is developed by senior management of the organization.

4. The audit plan is aligned with the organization ' s goals.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

3 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 73

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, which of the following would an internal auditor use to assess and present the severity of the impact of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Kanban board

B.

Control self-assessment

C.

Heat map

D.

Risk register

Question 74

Which of the following resources would be most effective for an organization that would like to improve how it informs stakeholders of its social responsibility performance?

Options:

A.

ISO 26000

B.

Global Reporting Initiative.

C.

Open Compliance and Ethics Group.

D.

COSO’s enterprise risk management framework.

Question 75

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a small internal audit activity (IAA) plans to test conformance with the Standards through a quality assurance review. According to the Standards, which of the following are acceptable practice for this review?

1. Use an external service provider.

2. Conduct a self-assessment with independent validation.

3. Arrange for a review by qualified employees outside of the IAA.

4. Arrange for reciprocal peer review with another CAE.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

2 and 4

C.

1, 2, and 3

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 76

According to an internal audit observation, the organization’s rules of record management require all contracts to be registered and stored in a specific electronic system. One subsidiary has thousands of client contracts on paper, which are kept in the office because there are not enough assistants to scan the contracts into the system. Which of the following component should be added to this observation?

Options:

A.

Criteria

B.

Cause

C.

Effect

D.

Condition

Question 77

An organization ' s internal audit plan includes a recurring assurance review of the human resources (HR) department. Which of the following statements is true regarding preliminary communication between the auditor in charge (AIC) and the HR department?

1. The AIC should notify HR management when the draft audit plan is being developed, as a courtesy.

2. The AIC should notify HR management before the planning stage begins.

3. The AIC should schedule formal status meetings with HR management at the start of the engagement.

4. The AIC should finalize the scope of the engagement before communicating with HR management.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 78

An internal auditor wants to compare performance information from one quarter to another. Which analytics procedure would the auditor use?

Options:

A.

Ratio analysis

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Vertical analysis

D.

Benchmarking analysis

Question 79

Which of the following engagement supervision activities should be performed first?

Options:

A.

Ensure that internal audit recommendations are practical, cost-effective, and value-added

B.

Ensure that internal audit conclusions am based on sufficient and reliable evidence

C.

Ensure that risks to the timely completion of the engagement are assessed

D.

Ensure that performance assessments are completed for audit team members

Question 80

An internal auditor is performing a review of an organization ' s vendor for any possible conflicts of interest. Which of the following would provide the greatest assistance to the auditor in meeting this objective?

Options:

A.

Vendor contracts.

B.

Employee master list.

C.

Payment records.

D.

Purchasing policy.

Question 81

Which of the following statements is true regarding the management-by-objectives method?

Options:

A.

Management by objectives is most helpful in organizations that have rapid changes

B.

Management by objectives is most helpful in mechanistic organizations with rigidly defined tasks.

C.

Management by objectives helps organizations to keep employees motivated.

D.

Management by objectives helps organizations to distinguish clearly strategic goals from operational goals

Question 82

An internal auditor is assessing the organization ' s risk management framework. Which of the following formulas should he use to calculate the residual risk?

A) as

B)as

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Question 83

An internal audit activity maintains a quality assurance and improvement program that includes annual self-assessments The internal audit activity includes in each engagement report a clause that the engagement is conducted in conformance with the International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing (Standards). Which of the following justifies inclusion of this clause in the reports?

Options:

A.

Internal audit activity policies and engagement records provide relevant, sufficient, and competent evidence that the statement is correct.

B.

The audit committee has reviewed the annual self-assessment results and approved the use of the clause.

C.

The self-assessment results were validated by a qualified external review team three years prior.

D.

The internal audit charter, approved by the audit committee, requires conformance with the Standards

Question 84

While conducting an audit of a third party ' s Web-based payment processor, an internal auditor discovers that a programming error allows customers to create multiple accounts for a single mailing address. Management agrees to correct the program and notify customers with multiple accounts that the accounts will be consolidated. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

1. Schedule a follow-up review to verify that the program was corrected and the accounts were consolidated.

2. Evaluate the adequacy and effectiveness of the corrective action proposed by management.

3. Amend the scope of the subsequent audit to verify that the program was corrected and that accounts were consolidated.

4. Submit management ' s plan of action to the external auditors for additional review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 85

Upon completing a follow-up audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) noted that management has not implemented any mitigation measures to address the high

risks that were reported in the initial audit report. What initial step must the CAE take to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Communicate the issue to senior management.

B.

Discuss the issue with members of management responsible for the risk area.

C.

Report the situation to the external auditors.

D.

Escalate the issue to the board.

Question 86

An internal auditor is conducting an assessment of the purchasing department. She has worked the full amount of hours budgeted for the engagement; however, the audit objectives are not yet complete. According to IIA guidance, which of the following are appropriate options available to the chief audit executive?

1. Allow the auditor to decide whether to extend the audit engagement.

2. Determine whether the work already completed is sufficient to conclude the engagement.

3. Provide the auditor feedback on areas of improvement for future engagements.

4. Provide the auditor with instructions and directions to complete the audit.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3

B.

1, 2, and 4

C.

1, 3, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 87

Which of the following is the primary reason a chief audit executive should network with an organization’s executives?

Options:

A.

To better understand and influence executives ' planning.

B.

To make executives aware of the benefits that the internal audit activity can provide.

C.

To assist executives in setting the organization’s risk appetite.

D.

To have a better understanding of the training needed to strengthen the audit team.

Question 88

Which of the following behaviors could represent a significant ethical risk if exhibited by an organization ' s board?

1. Intervening during an audit involving ethical wrongdoing.

2. Discussing periodic reports of ethical breaches.

3. Authorizing an investigation of an unsafe product.

4. Negotiating a settlement of an employee claim for personal damages.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

3 and 4

Question 89

An internal auditor concluded that delays in an ongoing construction project have cost the organization $10 million to date. Which documents should be included in the audit workpapers to provide sufficient evidence to support the conclusion?

Options:

A.

Payment and work milestones

B.

Pictures from the construction site

C.

Initial sprint planning

D.

Project internal rate of return

Question 90

Which of the following best describes the manual audit procedure known as vouching?

Options:

A.

Testing the validity of information by following it backward to a previously prepared record

B.

Testing the accuracy of the control by reperforming the task or process required

C.

Soliciting and obtaining written verification of the accuracy from an independent third party

D.

Testing the completeness of information forward from a record to a subsequently prepared document

Question 91

An internal auditor wants to identity potential ghost employees in the organization ' s payroll system The auditor extracts the following data

- Human resources data with employees ' names addresses employment conditions and identification codes

- Payroll data

- Logs from entrance systems

With this data, which of the following types of ghost employees will the auditor be able to identify?

Options:

A.

Employees who are being paid more than then approved wages

B.

Employees who get paid although their employment has expired

C.

Employees who are related to one of the subcontractors

D.

Employees who are physically present at the workplace but who do not perform the specified job duties

Question 92

Which of the following is not a primary reason for outsourcing a portion of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

To gain access to a wider variety of skills, competencies and best practices.

B.

To complement existing expertise with a required skill and competency for a particular audit engagement.

C.

To focus on and strengthen core audit competencies.

D.

To provide the organization with appropriate contingency planning for the internal audit function.

Question 93

In an assurance engagement focused on the adequacy of organizationwide risk management practices, which of the following best describes a primary area of interest for the engagement?

Options:

A.

The effectiveness of process-level and transaction-level controls.

B.

Conflicts of interest within the organizational structure of the senior management.

C.

The alignment of management decisions with the level of risk the organization is willing to accept.

D.

The actions of upper management in response to the internal audit acth/lty ' s reporting

Question 94

The internal audit function is in the fieldwork stage of the annual staff performance appraisal assurance engagement. A new auditor is hired and added to the engagement team. The auditor reviews the engagement work program with another member of the team and suggests improvements to make the fieldwork easier to complete. What action should be taken next?

Options:

A.

Refer the suggested changes to the engagement supervisor for approval.

B.

Note the suggested changes to be included in next year’s engagement program.

C.

Update the engagement work program with the suggested changes.

D.

No action is required as the work program has been approved and is underway.

Question 95

Which of the following best describes the internal audit activity ' s responsibility within a risk and control framework?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity constitutes the first line of defense in effective risk management.

B.

The internal audit activity provides direction regarding internal controls implementation.

C.

The internal audit activity verifies that management has met its responsibility for implementing effective controls.

D.

The internal audit activity implements the internal control framework and advises management regarding best practices

Question 96

Internal control questionnaires are used to achieve which of the following objectives?

Options:

A.

To ascertain the operating effectiveness of a procedure

B.

To verify the accuracy of Information in a report

C.

To assess the controls mitigating major risks

D.

To determine whether specified contra procedures are in place

Question 97

An internal auditor is conducting an initial risk assessment of an audit area and wants to assess management ' s compliance with privacy laws for safeguarding customer information stored on the organization ' s servers. Which course of action is appropriate for this phase of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Solicit the services of a specialist information systems auditor

B.

Obtain the most current approved copies of the organization ' s privacy policy

C.

Consult with legal counsel about new privacy laws to establish appropriate criteria

D.

Consider the detection risk of noncompliance with the laws

Question 98

Which of the following factors should be considered when determining the staff requirements for an audit engagement?

    The internal audit activity ' s time constraints.

    The nature and complexity of the area to be audited.

    The period of time since the area was last audited.

    The auditors’ preference to audit the area.

    The results of a preliminary risk assessment of the activity under review.

Options:

A.

1 and 4 only.

B.

1, 2, and 5 only.

C.

2, 3, and 5 only.

D.

1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

Question 99

When setting the scope for the identification and assessment of key risks and controls in a process, which of the following would be the least appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

Develop the scope of the audit based on a bottom-up perspective to ensure that all business objectives are considered.

B.

Develop the scope of the audit to include controls that are necessary to manage risk associated with a critical business objective.

C.

Specify that the auditors need to assess only key controls, but may include an assessment of non-key controls if there is value to the business in providing such assurance.

D.

Ensure the audit includes an assessment of manual and automated controls to determine whether business risks are effectively managed.

Question 100

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following Is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Question 101

Which of the following statements is true regarding different competitive strategies?

Options:

A.

An organization that adopts a cost leadership competitive strategy generally maintains standard operating procedures to ensure efficiency.

B.

An organization that adopts a differentiation strategy generally maintains a targeted strategic approach to its operations.

C.

An organization that adopts a focus strategy is known for taking the lead in technological advancement.

D.

An organization that adopts a cost leadership strategy is known for cherishing employees who think creatively and emphasize uniqueness.

Question 102

Acceding to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding the risk assessment process performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The assessment of high-level risks is typically a linear process.

B.

Management should create the preliminary risk matrix

C.

The analysis should begin with ne identification of objectives

D.

Likelihood should receive greater consideration than impact

Question 103

During an assurance engagement an internal auditor uses benchmarking research to support preparation of a report to stakeholders that contains significant findings about control deficiencies. Which of the following skills did the auditor demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Internal audit management

B.

Conflict negotiation.

C.

Critical thinking

D.

Persuasion and collaboration

Question 104

An internal auditor accessed accounts payable records and extracted data related to fuel purchased tor the organization ' s vehicles As a first step, she sorted the data by vehicle and used spreadsheet functions to identify all instances of refueling on the same or sequential dates She then performed other tests Based on the auditor ' s actions which of the following is most likely the objective of this engagement1?

Options:

A.

To identify whether fuel was purchased for work-related purposes

B.

To estimate future fuel costs for the organization ' s fleet of vehicles

C.

To determine trends in average fuel consumption by vehicle

D.

To determine whether the organization is paying more than the industry average for fuel

Question 105

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements regarding the internal audit charter is true?

Options:

A.

The nature of consulting services typically is not included in the charter.

B.

The chief audit executive must formally review the charter at least once a year

C.

The nature of assurances provided to parties outside of the organization typically is not included in the charter.

D.

The charter typically defines the internal audit activity’s position within the organization.

Question 106

An internal auditor discovered that equipment used to monitor air quality was not maintained according to the established maintenance schedule. If the issue is not addressed, the equipment may not provide accurate information on pollutant levels, which could result in regulatory sanctions and reputational damage. The auditor discussed the issue with both the manager in charge and the CEO, who explained that they understand the risk, but it has become too expensive to maintain the equipment as scheduled. In this situation, what should the chief audit executive do?

Options:

A.

Add value to the organization by taking initiative and implementing corrective actions to mitigate the identified risks.

B.

Communicate to the board the current situation, including the risk exposure to the organization.

C.

Discuss the matter with external auditors and request that they persuade management to address the issue.

D.

Contact the regulatory agency and inform them of the risk exposure.

Question 107

Which of the following approaches to understanding business processes is conducted from a broad organizational perspective and has the greatest risk of overlooking processes that are ultimately critical?

Options:

A.

Process narrative.

B.

Process mapping.

C.

Bottom-up.

D.

Top-down.

Question 108

Which of the following would most likely prompt special notification from the chief audit executive to same management?

Options:

A.

Operational management has decried to weigh an audit issue against the organization ' s risk tolerance

B.

A controls inaccurate operation has materially impacted the accuracy of the poor year ' s financial statements

C.

Occurrences of asset misappropriation have been identified as a result of an ineffective operational control design

D.

The controls that management performed to confirm compliance with health and safety standards were not systematically documented

Question 109

The internal audit activity is planning an assurance engagement for a foreign subsidiary. According to IIA guidance, which of the following would be included in the preliminary communication to management of the area under review?

Options:

A.

The scope of the engagement, the estimated time frame, and the names of the auditors.

B.

The estimated time frame, the names of the auditors, and the resources and travel budget

C.

The names of the auditors, the resources and travel budget, and the scope of the engagement.

D.

The resources and travel budget, the scope of the engagement, and the estimated time frame.

Question 110

With regard to project management, which of the following statements about project crashing is true?

Options:

A.

It leads to an increase in risk and often results in rework.

B.

It is an optimization technique where activities are performed in parallel rather than sequentially

C.

It involves a revaluation of project requirements and/or scope.

D.

It is a compression technique in which resources are added to the project

Question 111

Which of the following components should be included in an audit finding?

1. The scope of the audit.

2. The standard(s) used by the auditor to make the evaluation.

3. The engagement ' s objectives.

4. The factual evidence that the internal auditor found in the course of the examination.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 4

D.

1, 3, and 4

Question 112

An internal auditor is preparing for an auditor of newly implemented software that is used by 3,000 employees in South America and Europe. What would be the best way for the auditor to gather relevant feedback?

Options:

A.

interview IT management in both regions

B.

Inspect regional user software training records

C.

Interview propel management and the vendor responsible for implementation

D.

Distribute surveys to software users in both regions

Question 113

When me internal audit activity does not have sufficient time to complete its usual root cause analysis which c4 the following is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive may recommend that management conduct further work to identify the root cause and address the issue

B.

Internal auditors should finish the engagement without conducting the root cause analysis and draft the audit report, though the report would not be considered complete until the analysis is concluded

C.

internal auditors must adjust their future engagement schedule to ensure that the root cause analysis is always performed before the engagement is concluded

D.

Internal auditors should Instead perform a Pareto rule analysis

Question 114

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

increased access to the organization ' s employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization ' s key business processes.

D.

increased access to the organization ' s software and proprietary data.

Question 115

While reviewing the workpapers and draft report from an audit engagement, the chief audit executive (CAE) found that an Important compensating control had not been considered adequately by the audit team when it reported a major control weakness Therefore, the CAE returned the documentation to the auditor in charge for correction Based on this Information, which of the following sections of the workpapers most likely would require changes?

1.Effect of the control weakness.

2.Cause of the control weakness

3.Conclusion on the control weakness.

4.Recommendation for the control weakness.

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3.

B.

1.2. and 4

C.

1,3, and 4.

D.

2, 3, and 4.

Question 116

Which of the followings statements describes a best practice regarding assurance engagement communication activities?

Options:

A.

All assurance engagement observations should be communicated to the audit committee.

B.

All assurance engagement observations should be included in the main section of the engagement communication.

C.

During the " communicate " phase of an assurance engagement, it is best to define the methods and timing of engagement communications.

D.

A detailed escalation process should be developed during the planning stage of an assurance engagement.

Question 117

Which of the following items, included in the preliminary audit communication would be most useful for management to formulate action plans in response to audit recommendations?

Options:

A.

A condition

B.

An audit objectives

C.

An audit scope

D.

An observation rating

Question 118

According to IIA guidance,which of the following is true about the supervising internal auditor ' s review notes?

• They are discussed with management prior to finalizing the audit.

• They may be discarded after working papers are amended as appropriate.

• They are created by the auditor to support her fieldwork in case of questions.

• They are not required to support observations issued in the audit report.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

1 and 4 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

2 and 4 only

Question 119

When taken by a chief audit executive, which of the following actions would be most likely to prevent division management from exaggerating sales reports

1.Announcing a series of internal audit engagements focusing on compliance with corporate sales-reporting policies.

2.Asking the president and the board to issue a statement of corporate policy stressing the importance of accurate management reporting and the negative consequences of intentional misreporting

3.Setting up a hotline for employees to report fraudulent behavior anonymously.

4.Assisting the controller in developing and monitoring a series of business process indicators, which are historically correlated with, but independent of. sales.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only.

B.

2 and 3 only.

C.

2 and 4 only.

D.

3 and 4 only.

Question 120

According to the IIA Code of Ethics, which of the following is required with regard to communicating results?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor should present material information to appropriate personnel within the organization without revealing confidential matters that could be detrimental to the organization

B.

The internal auditor should disclose all material information obtained by the date of the final engagement communication.

C.

The internal auditor should obtain all material information within the established time and budget parameters.

D.

The internal auditor should reveal material facts that could potentially distort the reporting of activities under review

Question 121

According to IIA guidance which of the following best describes reliable information?

Options:

A.

Reliable information is factual adequate, and convincing so that a prudent informed person would reach the same conclusions as the internal auditor

B.

Reliable information is the best attainable information through the use of appropriate engagement techniques

C.

Reliable information supports engagement observations and recommendations and is consistent with the objectives for the engagement

D.

Reliable information helps the organization and the internal audit activity meet its goals

Question 122

Which of the following describes (he primary reason why a preliminary risk assessment is conducted during engagement planning?

Options:

A.

To identify the greatest risks organizationwide

B.

To ensure that the engagement work program covers all risk areas

C.

To ensure that risks identified during previous audits of the area have been adequately addressed

D.

To ensure that significant risks are included in the engagement scope

Question 123

Which of the following information is most appropriate for the chief audit executive to share when coordinating audit plans with other internal and external assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Objectives scope and timing at a high level to support coordination while adhering to confidentiality requirements

B.

The area and timing of the audit engagement to ensure confidentially and avoid conflict of interest.

C.

All plan information, including risk assessments, planned tests and past results to maximize the opportunity for coordination with internal and external providers.

D.

No information should be shared with internal and external provider as it could introduce bias into the engagement results.

Question 124

Which of the following is the most important concept to be included in a consulting engagement agreement?

Options:

A.

Define the duties and responsibilities needed from management to perform the engagement.

B.

Disclose the fact that auditors who perform the work may not be subject matter experts in the topic of the review.

C.

Clarify that matters discovered during the engagement may also be reported to senior management and the audit committee.

D.

Disclose the fact that follow-up reviews may be conducted to ensure that recommendations are implemented adequately.

Question 125

A chief audit executive (CAE) a developing a work program for an upcoming engagement that will review an organization’s small contracting services. When of the following would the CAT need to consider most when developing the work program?

Options:

A.

The contracting department ' s staffing changes within the last year

B.

The certifications held by the internal auditors assigned to the engagement

C.

The internal audit activity ' s increase n budget and staffing for the year

D.

The organization ' s recent changes to how it processes payments

Question 126

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is true regarding audit supervision?

1. Supervision should be performed throughout the planning, examination, evaluation, communication, and follow-up stages of the audit engagement.

2. Supervision should extend to training, time reporting, and expense control, as well as administrative matters.

3. Supervision should include review of engagement workpapers, with documented evidence of the review.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

1 and 3 only

C.

2 and 3 only

D.

1, 2, and 3

Question 127

According to the theory of constraints, which of the following is most influenced by various bottlenecks the organization encounters?

Options:

A.

Manufacturing.

B.

Profitability.

C.

Overheads.

D.

Quality.

Question 128

The internal auditors available to perform the engagement do not have sufficient skills related to the area under review. Which of the following iss an appropriate action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Continue the engagement with the available staff, providing more hands-on supervision than usual

B.

Limit the objectives and scope of the engagement to align them with the skills available among the current staff.

C.

Cosource the performance of the engagement using personnel in the area that will be reviewed to supplement the knowledge of the staff and complete the engagement

D.

Supplement the internal auditors assigned to the engagement by bringing onto the engagement team a consultant who is independent of the area under review and has the missing expertise

Question 129

According to IIA guidance, which of the following objectives was most likely formulated for a non-assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity will assess the effects of changes in maintenance strategy on the availability of production equipment.

B.

The internal audit activity will inform management on the possible risks of moving the data warehouse to a cloud server maintained by a third party.

C.

The internal audit activity will ascertain whether the data center security arrangements are compliant with agreed terms.

D.

The internal audit activity will ensure equipment downtime risks have been managed in accordance with internal policy.

Question 130

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs.

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals.

Question 131

Which of the following statements is true regarding partnership liquidation?

Options:

A.

Operations can continue after the liquidation, if all partners agree.

B.

Partnership liquidation ends both the legal and economic life of an entity

C.

Partnership liquidation occurs when there is capital deficiency.

D.

When a partnership Is liquidated, each partner pays creditors from cash received

Question 132

Which of the following would most likely form part of the engagement scope?

Options:

A.

Potential legislation on privacy topics will be employed as a compliance target.

B.

Wire transfers that exceeded $10,000 in the last 12 months will be analyzed.

C.

Both random and judgmental samplings will be used during the engagement.

D.

The probability of significant errors will be considered via risk assessment.

Question 133

An internal auditor wants to determine whether the key risks identified by management in the risk register are reflective of the key risks in the industry. Which of the following techniques would the auditor apply to achieve this goal?

Options:

A.

Perform benchmarking

B.

Perform a trend analysis

C.

Perform a ratio analysis

D.

Perform observation to gather evidence

Question 134

At a conference an internal auditor presented a new computer-assisted audit technique developed by his organization The presentation included sample data derived from performing audit engagements for the organization. Travel costs were paid by the conference organizers and the trip was approved by the chief audit executive (CAE). However, neither management nor the CAE was aware that the internal auditor would be making a presentation based on work completed for the organization According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is most relevant regarding the actions of the auditor?

Options:

A.

The auditor did not violate the standard of objectivity because the presentation had no impact on the organization.

B.

The auditor violated the principle of confidentiality by disclosing information about the organization without approval.

C.

The auditor should have obtained permission before using the material, but did not violate the IIA Code of Ethics or Standards

D.

The auditor breached the conflict of interest standard by accepting payment for travel costs

Question 135

Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take when senior management decides to accept risks by choosing to do business with a questionable vendor?

Options:

A.

Persuade senior management to take appropriate action.

B.

Cancel issuing the engagement report due to the assumed risks.

C.

Accept senior management’s assumption of the risks.

D.

Discuss the issue with the board for them to take appropriate action.

Question 136

The audit plan requires a review of the testing procedures used in pre-production of a large information system prior to its live launch. If the chief audit executive (CAE) is uncertain that the current audit team has all the required knowledge to conduct the engagement, which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the CAE to take to preserve independence?

Options:

A.

Contract with the software vendor to provide an appropriate resource.

B.

Ask for a knowledgeable resource from the IT department.

C.

Make use of an external service provider.

D.

Request audit resources through the external auditor.

Question 137

According to IIA guidance, which of the following factors should the auditor in charge consider when determining the resource requirements for an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

The number, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

B.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources and the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

C.

The number, proficiency, experience, and availability of audit staff as well as the ability to coordinate with external auditors.

D.

The appropriateness and sufficiency of resources as well as the nature, complexity, and time constraints of the engagement.

Question 138

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned: executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client

Question 139

The audit committee has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to conduct an ad hoc forensic investigation of the purchasing department within a month due to the significance and urgency of a recently discovered risk The internal audit activity currently has no available staff with relevant experience or qualifications Which of the following is the CAE ' s best option for fulfilling the internal audit activity ' s responsibilities in this case?

Options:

A.

Outsource the investigation to independent professional consultants

B.

Select certain internal auditors and remove them from their current assignments so that they can begin a forensic investigation course

C.

Recruit additional internal auditors possessing relevant qualification and experience

D.

Decline the engagement at this time

Question 140

During an audit, the chief audit executive reviews and approves changes to the audit program. Which of the following describes this activity?

Options:

A.

Engagement reporting

B.

Continuous monitoring

C.

Engagement supervision

D.

Engagement risk assessment

Question 141

An internal auditor discovered a control weakness that needs to be communicated to management. Which of the following is the best method for first communicating the weakness?

Options:

A.

Draft report, to be reviewed by management just prior to final report issuance.

B.

Preliminary observation document, discussed during the engagement.

C.

Final report, after review by audit management.

D.

Verbal communication during the engagement, followed by the final report issuance.

Question 142

Which of the following best describes the risk contained in an initial public offering for a new stock?

Options:

A.

Residual risk.

B.

Net risk.

C.

Inherent risk.

D.

Underlying risk

Question 143

During the planning phase of an assurance engagement, the internal audit engagement team identifies and evaluates the inherent fraud risks within the procurement function. What should be the engagement team’s next step?

Options:

A.

Identify and map existing controls to their relevant inherent fraud risks

B.

Detect fraudulent activities in the activity under review for the audited period

C.

Select the appetite level for each inherent fraud risk

D.

Evaluate and respond to residual fraud risks that need to be mitigated

Question 144

Which of the following engagements is likely to be most appropriate for an organization that is planning an acquisition?

Options:

A.

A performance engagement.

B.

A system security engagement.

C.

A due diligence engagement.

D.

A compliance engagement.

Question 145

The internal audit activity is asked to review the effectiveness of controls around the disposal of chemical waste. However, the internal auditors on staff lack the necessary skills to conduct this review Which of the following would be the most appropriate approach?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor who recently attended a three-day workshop on chemical waste disposal, and therefore has the most knowledge on the topic, should lead the engagement.

B.

A team of available internal auditors should be assembled and should consult with an external nonaudit expert on chemical waste disposal to plan and conduct the engagement.

C.

A team of the most knowledgeable auditors could be assembled and use the engagement work program from the previous year to gather additional insight regarding recommended audit procedures

D.

A nonaudit employee from the chemical disposal area may share his expertise with the audit team, provided the internal audit manager conducts a detailed review of all engagement work performed.

Question 146

According to IIA guidance, which of the following typically serves as the basis for an engagement work program?

Options:

A.

Past audit findings.

B.

Scope and audit objectives.

C.

Techniques and resources.

D.

Stakeholders ' expectations.

Question 147

Which of the following documents are internal auditors most likely to be asked to sign as a demonstration of due professional care?

Options:

A.

A description of their job responsibilities.

B.

A non-disclosure agreement

C.

An annual declaration of commitment to The HAs Code of Ethics.

D.

The internal audit charter

Question 148

An internal auditor wants to test the processing logic of a computer application during a specific period to ensure consistent processing of transactions. Which of the following is the best approach to achieve the objective of the test?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Integrated test facility

C.

Parallel simulation

D.

Generalized audit software

Question 149

Which of the following is the next step in understanding a business process once an internal auditor has identified the process?

Options:

A.

Determine process outputs

B.

Determine process inputs.

C.

Determine process activities.

D.

Determine process goals

Question 150

According to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing statements is true regarding an engagement supervisor ' s use of review notes?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes should be retained m the final documental or even after they are addressed.

B.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes cannot be used as evidence of engagement supervision

C.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes could be cleared from all final documentation after they are addressed

D.

The engagement supervisor ' s review notes must be maintained in a checklist separate from tie final documentation

Question 151

Which of the following situations is most critical for the chief audit executive to report to the board?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive disagreed with the business unit manager ' s initial decision to accept a particular risk Management ultimately agreed to address the risk only after discussing the issue with senior management.

B.

The internal audit activity was restructured, which resulted in a significant change in responsibilities among audit managers and supervisors for some audits

C.

A staff internal auditor had difficulties completing a portion of the audit because management of the area under review was unwilling to cooperate and provide information timely.

D.

The resignation of an internal audit manager during the year caused the chief audit executive to defer a number of audit engagements to the following year.

Question 152

Which of the following methodologies consists of the internal auditor holding individual meetings with different people, asking them the same questions, and aggregating the results?

Options:

A.

Facilitated workshops.

B.

Surveys.

C.

Structured interviews.

D.

Elicitation.

Question 153

An internal auditor wants to determine whether employees are complying with the information security policy, which prohibits leaving sensitive information on employee desks overnight. The auditor checked a sample of 90 desks and found eight that contained sensitive information. How should this observation be reported, if the organization tolerates 4 percent noncompliance?

Options:

A.

The matter does not need to be reported, because the noncompliant findings fall within the acceptable tolerance limit.

B.

The deviations are within the acceptable tolerance limit, so the matter only needs to be reported to the information security manager.

C.

The incidents of noncompliance fall outside the acceptable tolerance limit and require immediate corrective action, as opposed to reporting.

D.

The incidents of noncompliance exceed the tolerance level and should be included in the final engagement report.

Question 154

Which of the following statements is true regarding risk assessments, including the evaluation and prioritization of risk and control factors?

Options:

A.

A risk-by-process matrix enables the user to determine associations between any of the processes and the risks.

B.

The risk-factor approach for linking business processes and risks is more direct than the use of a risk-by-process matrix.

C.

Internal risk factors are built into the environment and the nature of the process itself.

D.

A risk map is used primarily to depict which risks will be reduced and which will be shared.

Question 155

Which of the following is not an outcome of control self-assessment?

Options:

A.

Informal, soft controls are omitted, and greater focus is placed on hard controls.

B.

The entire objectives-risks-controls infrastructure of an organization is subject to greater monitoring and continuous improvement.

C.

Internal auditors become involved in and knowledgeable about the self-assessment process.

D.

Nonaudit employees become experienced in assessing controls and associating control processes with managing risks.

Question 156

Which of the following is most likely the subject of a periodic report from the chief audit executive to the board?

Options:

A.

A complete, accurate, and comprehensive account of engagement observations and recommendations.

B.

Oversight of the coordination between the internal audit activity and independent outside auditors

C.

The internal audit activity ' s purpose, authority, responsibility, and performance relative to plan.

D.

Management ' s assertions regarding the system of internal controls.

Question 157

Which type of assurance engagement is conducted to determine whether a process or area is performing as intended, accomplishing its objectives, and doing so in an efficient and economical way?

Options:

A.

Compliance audit.

B.

Operational audit.

C.

Financial audit.

D.

Provider audit.

Question 158

An IT auditor is reviewing the access controls in an organization ' s accounting application. The auditor intends to deploy a tool that can help test the logical controls embedded in the system to ensure employee access is granted according to need. Which of the following would help achieve this objective?

Options:

A.

Utility software

B.

Generalized audit software

C.

Audit expert systems.

D.

integrated test facility

Question 159

Which of the following is the primary purpose of financial statement audit engagements?

Options:

A.

To assess the efficiency and effectiveness of the accounting department.

B.

To evaluate organizational and departmental structures, including assessments of process flows related to financial matters.

C.

To provide a review of routine financial reports, including analyses of selected accounts for compliance with generally accepted accounting principles.

D.

To provide an analysis of business process controls in the accounting department, including tests of compliance with internal policies and procedures.

Question 160

Which of The following best justifies an internal auditor ' s decision to issue a preliminary audit report?

Options:

A.

The internal audit team and audit client have a serious dispute over the scope and objective of the engagement

B.

The internal audit team expects management to address certain issues immediately due to their severe impact

C.

The internal audit team anticipates that the formal final audit report would be undesirable for management due to the significance of outlined risks

D.

The internal audit team would like to issue a clean final audit report without any material observations or risks

Question 161

Which of the following statements regarding the risk management process ' support of the internal audit activity is true?

Options:

A.

The risk management process can provide more extensive internal audit services to the organization if it does not have an internal audit department

B.

The risk management process supports internal audit by evaluating whether critical controls are adequate and effective.

C.

The risk management process can determine whether all significant risks have been identified and are being treated.

D.

The risk management process establishes an organization-specific documented risk management framework.

Question 162

An internal auditor is assigned to validate calculations on the organization ' s building application As pad of the test the internal auditor is required to use an automated audit tool to simulate transactions for testing. Which of the following would most appropriately be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Generalized audit software.

B.

Utility software

C.

integrated test facilities

D.

Audit expert systems

Question 163

An internal auditor is asked to determine why the production line for a large manufacturing organization has been experiencing shutdowns due to unavailable parts The auditor learns that production data used for generating automatic purchases via electronic interchange is collected on personal computers connected by a local area network (LAN) Purchases are made from authorized vendors based on both the production plans for the next month and an authorized materials requirements plan (MRP) that identifies the parts needed per unit of production. The auditor suspects the shutdowns are occurring because purchasing requirements have not been updated for changes in production techniques. Which of the following audit procedures should be used to test the auditor ' s theory?

Options:

A.

Compare purchase orders generated from test data Input into the LAN with purchase orders generated from production data for the most recent period.

B.

Develop a report of excess inventory and compare the inventory with current production volume.

C.

Compare the parts needed based on current production estimates and the MRP for the revised production techniques with the purchase orders generated from the system for the same period

D.

Select a sample of production estimates and MRPs for several periods and trace them into the system to determine that input is accurate

Question 164

During a fraud interview, it was discovered that unquestioned authority enabled a vice president to steal funds from the organization. Which of the following best describes this condition?

Options:

A.

Scheme.

B.

Opportunity.

C.

Rationalization.

D.

Pressure.

Question 165

Which of the following is most likely to be judged as a significant residual risk that would exceed the organization ' s acceptable risk level?

Options:

A.

Any risk involving organizational expansion into a new geographical area with an unstable political environment.

B.

Any risk involving investments into bitcoin and suspicious derivatives

C.

Any risk that can cause material or financial loss

D.

Any risk that could cause injuries or pollute the environment

Question 166

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the key planning step internal auditors should perform to establish appropriate engagement objectives prior to starting an audit engagement?

Options:

A.

Review the organizational structure, management roles and responsibilities, and operating procedures.

B.

Evaluate management ' s risk assessment and the internal audit activity ' s risk assessment.

C.

Assess process flow and control documents used to meet regulatory requirements.

D.

Review meeting notes from discussions involving management of the area to be reviewed.

Question 167

When presenting an observation m writing which or the Mowing is usually true regarding the level of detail provided?

1. The description of the observation in the final audit report contains more detail then the description m the engagement workpapers

2. The description of the observation m the engagement workpapers contains more detail than the descriptor n a preliminary observation document

3. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the final audit report

4. A preliminary observation document contains more detail than tie observation description in the engagement workpapers

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and3

D.

3 and 4

Question 168

An internal auditor using the five-attribute approach to document deficiencies in a warehouse shipping process. Which of the following attributes will be included in the workpapers?

Options:

A.

Risk, impact likelihood existing control, recommendation

B.

Condition, cause, effect, recommendation

C.

Condition, cause effect test result

D.

Risk, impact test result recommendation

Question 169

During follow-up, the chief audit executive (CAE) is having a discussion with management about the internal audit team ' s recommendations related to a significant issue Management accepted the issue but took no remedial action What is the next step for the CAE?

Options:

A.

The CAE should reassess and validate the risk tolerance policy

B.

The CAE should escalate the issue to senior management .

C.

The CAE should reiterate the internal audit team ' s recommendations to management .

D.

The CAE should grant management more time to implement the recommendation and check the status of the issue during the next scheduled follow-up.

Question 170

An internal auditor wanted to determine whether the organization ' s 200 employees are charging their work hours accurately to the correct project. The internal auditor selected a sample of 30 employee time reports for testing. Based on the testing, the internal auditor determined the following:

- 5 Time reports were incorrect.

- 21 Time reports were correct.

- 4 Time reports were not supported.

Options:

A.

The organization has significant flaws in its reporting of employee time, which could lead to the overstatement of project labor costs. The organization ' s failure to report accurate and complete employee time could lead to potential fraud and abuse.

B.

The organization needs to ensure that all reporting of employee time is accurate and complete for each of its projects By dang so the organization can minimize potential issues related to overstating employee tames and labor project costs.

C.

The organization overstated project costs due to inaccurate and incomplete reporting of employee time charged to the affected accounts As a result the organization cannot ensure at protects costs are accurately reported to stakeholders

D.

The organization generally ensured that employee hours charged to each project were accurate and complete. However, there were instances of employee time reports that were incorrect or not supported to justify the multiple project labor coats

Question 171

An internal auditor is examining the organization ' s internal control processes. Which of the following would the auditor do to test the reliability of a customer database1?

Options:

A.

Perform a site visit to see whether the organization ' s servers are operational

B.

Interview end users to determine whether they understand how to use the database information

C.

Determine whether policies are in place on how to use the database information

D.

Review for indications of potential issues with the database information

Question 172

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding audit workpapers?

Options:

A.

Review notes on audit workpapers must be retained to provide a record of questions raised by the reviewer.

B.

Audit workpaper documentation policies are reviewed and approved by the audit committee.

C.

Management of the department being audited should review the prepared workpapers for accuracy.

D.

Audit workpaper preparation contributes to the professional development of the internal audit staff.

Question 173

Which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors and other assurance providers?

Options:

A.

Assurance providers who report to management and/or are part of management cannot provide control serf-assessments services

B.

Internal auditors should always reperform and validate audit work completed by external assurance providers

C.

Internal auditors may rely on the work of internal compliance teams to expand their coverage of the organization without increasing direct audit

D.

hours Internal auditors can rely on the work of other assurance providers only rf the other assurance providers report directly to the board

Question 174

An internal auditor is performing an engagement to determine whether quality control checks of electronic gaming systems are performed consistently among a technology company’s factories. Which of the following tests would support the audit engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

Obtain and review the organization’s policies and procedures to gain an understanding of the quality control checks performed on the gaming systems.

B.

Perform unannounced onsite observations at factories to help determine how employees perform quality control checks of the gaming systems in real time.

C.

Meet and discuss with the quality control supervisors at the facilities to obtain information about the processes related to the quality control of gaming systems.

D.

Use the organization’s manufacturing documentation to create a flowchart that shows how the gaming systems are built to meet the established quality control standards.

Question 175

An organization s inventory is stored m multiple warehouses. During an inventory audit which of the following activities would most benefit from the use of computerized audit tools?

Options:

A.

Verifying the existence of inventory items in each warehouse

B.

Assigning the tolerable deviation rate to determine the sample size

C.

Valuating the obsolete Inventory from all the warehouse locations

D.

Confirming that the purchased items are recorded In the correct period

Question 176

An internal auditor reviewed the tender documents for the procurement of manufacturing equipment and observed the following:

    Tender technical specifications were compliant with internal policies.

    The sole assessment criterion of the tender was economic feasibility.

    All bids were submitted to a designated software and could not be opened before the submission deadline.

    The winner was approved by senior management.

    The winner was selected based on which bidder offered the newest technology.

Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

Options:

A.

Key controls of the procurement process operate as intended based on the analysis of the specific tender documents.

B.

IT controls implemented to ensure confidentiality of submitted bids seem to have several deficiencies.

C.

Management ' s selection of the winner should be positively acknowledged for focusing on innovative technological solution.

D.

The principles of transparency and equal treatment of bidders seem to be impaired.

Question 177

Which of the following actions are appropriate for the chief audit executive to perform when identifying audit resource requirements?

1. Consider employees from other operational areas as audit resources, to provide additional audit coverage in the organization.

2. Approach an external service provider to conduct internal audits on certain areas of the organization, due to a lack of skills in the organization.

3. Suggest to the audit committee that an audit of technology be deferred until staff can be trained, due to limited IT audit skills among the audit staff.

4. Communicate to senior management a summary report on the status and adequacy of audit resources.

Options:

A.

1 and 3 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 178

An audit identified a number of weaknesses in the configuration of a critical client/server system. Although some of the weaknesses were corrected prior to the issuance of the audit report, correction of the rest will require between 6 and 18 months for completion. Consequently, management has developed a detailed action plan, with anticipated completion dates, for addressing the weaknesses. What is the most appropriate course of action for the chief audit executive to take?

Options:

A.

Assess the status of corrective action during a follow-up audit engagement after the action plan has been completed.

B.

Assess the effectiveness of corrections by reviewing statistics related to unplanned system outages, and denials of service.

C.

Reassign information systems auditors to assist in implementing management ' s action plan.

D.

Evaluate the ability of the action plan to correct the weaknesses and monitor key dates and deliverables.

Question 179

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities are typically primary objectives of engagement supervision?

Options:

A.

Enable training and development of staff, identify engagement objectives, and assign responsibilities to individual auditors.

B.

Identify engagement objectives, assign responsibilities to individual auditors, and approve the engagement program.

C.

Assign responsibilities to individual auditors, approve the engagement program, and enable training and development of staff.

D.

Approve the engagement program, enable training and development of staff, and identify engagement objectives

Question 180

In which of the following situations has an internal audit of obtained physical evidence?

Options:

A.

An internal auditor made purchases from several of the organization ' s retail outlets to evaluate customer service

B.

An internal auditor interviewed various employees regarding health and safety issues and recorded their answers

C.

An internal auditor obtained the current quarterly financial report and computed changes in deb-to-equity ratio

D.

An internal auditor received a signed confirmation regarding the terms of a transaction from an independent attorney

Question 181

The internal auditor and her supervisor are in dispute about a risk that was not tested during an audit of the procurement function. Which of the following tools would best support the auditor ' s decision not to test the risk?

Options:

A.

A spaghetti map

B.

A heat map.

C.

A process map

D.

An assurance map

Question 182

An internal auditor and engagement client are deadlocked over the auditor ' s differing opinion with management on the adequacy of access controls for a major system. Which of the following strategies would be the most helpful in resolving this dispute?

Options:

A.

Conduct a joint brainstorming session with management.

B.

Ask the chief audit executive to mediate.

C.

Disclose the client ' s differing opinion in the final report.

D.

Escalate the issue to senior management for a decision.

Question 183

Which phase of an audit engagement is typically the most effective time for an internal auditor to develop a risk and control matrix?

Options:

A.

When preparing to recap audit test results.

B.

At sample selection, to determine sampling methodology.

C.

At the start of fieldwork, as part of developing the annual audit plan.

D.

At planning, to assist in developing the engagement work program.

Question 184

Which of the following is the primary engagement responsibility of an entry-level internal auditor?

Options:

A.

Leadership

B.

Documentation.

C.

Analysis.

D.

Reporting

Question 185

To effectively communicate the acceptance of risk in an organization a chief audit executive must first consider which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s view on risk tolerance

B.

The organization ' s principal risk events.

C.

The organization ' s risk response strategies

D.

The organization ' s major control activities

Question 186

Which of the following is an advantage of utilizing an external fraud specialist in a suspected fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Increased access to the organization’s employees.

B.

Increased ability to preserve evidence and the chain of command.

C.

Increased ability to scrutinize the organization ' s key business processes.

D.

Increased access to the organization’s software and proprietary data.

Question 187

An internal auditor s testing tor proper authorization of contracts and finds that the rate of deviations discovered in the sample is equal to the tolerable deviation rate. When of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the internal auditor to make based on this result?

Options:

A.

The internal auditor concludes that management may be placing undue reliance on me specified control

B.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is more effective than it really is.

C.

The internal auditor concludes that the specified control is acceptably effective

D.

The internal auditor concludes that additional testing will be required to evaluate the specified control

Question 188

An internal auditor is planning an engagement at a financial institution. Toe engagement objective is to identify whether loans were granted in accordance with the organization ' s policies. When of the following approaches would provide the auditor with the best information?

Options:

A.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and verify whether they were repaid timely and in full

B.

Randomly select 30 cases of loans and validate them against applicable underwriting guidelines

C.

Randomly select 30 employees to complete a survey regarding whether policies and standards are followed

D.

Randomly select several months obtain ageing reports for these months and compare them with the poor year

Question 189

Senior management requested that the internal audit activity perform a consulting project to assist in making a decision on a new software system. Which of the following would be used to determine the engagement objectives?

Options:

A.

An assessment of risks to the business objectives

B.

An understanding of the engagement client ' s expectations

C.

The probability of significant errors fraud or noncompliance

D.

Criteria previously established by the board

Question 190

An organization has a mature control environment but limited internal audit resources Given this scenario, on which of the following should the internal auditors focus their testing?

Options:

A.

Detective compensating controls

B.

Preventive compensating controls

C.

Detective Key controls

D.

Preventive key controls

Question 191

Which of the following is least likely to help ensure that risk is considered in a work program?

Options:

A.

Risks are discussed with audit client.

B.

All available information from the risk-based plan is used.

C.

Client efforts to affect risk management are considered.

D.

Prior risk assessments are considered.

Question 192

According to IIA guidance, which of the following practices by the chief audit executive (CAE) best enhances the organizational independence of the Internal audit activity^

Options:

A.

CAE reviews and approves the annual audit plan.

B.

CAE meets privately with the CEO at least annually

C.

CAE meets privately with the board at least annually.

D.

CAE reports to the board regarding audit staff performance evaluation and compensation.

Question 193

An internal auditor plans to conduct a walk-through to evaluate the control design of a process. Which of the following techniques is the auditor most likely to use?

Options:

A.

Observation and inspection.

B.

Inquiry and observation.

C.

Inspection and reperformance.

D.

Inquiry and reperformance.

Question 194

Which of the following factors should a chief audit executive consider when determining the audit universe?

1. Components of the organization ' s strategic plan.

2. Inputs from senior management and the board.

3. Views of competitors and business associates.

4. Results of exit interviews with departing employees.

Options:

A.

1 and 2 only

B.

2 and 4 only

C.

1, 2, and 4

D.

2, 3, and 4

Question 195

An internal auditor for a regional bank suspects that the head of commercial lending has been granting loans without the required collateral Which of the following sampling techniques will be most effective for investigating the auditor ' s suspicion?

Options:

A.

Variables sampling

B.

Dollar-unit sampling

C.

Judgmental sampling

D.

Discovery sampling

Question 196

An internal auditor tested whether purchase orders were supported by appropriately approved purchase requisitions She sampled a population of purchase documents and identified instances where purchase requisitions were missing However, she did not notice that n some cases purchase requisitions were approved by an unauthorized person Which of the following risks most appropriately describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Nonsampling risk

B.

Sampling risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Due diligence risk

Question 197

An organization owns vehicles that are kept off-site by employees to pick up and deliver orders. An internal auditor selects a specific vehicle from the fixed asset register for

testing. Which of the following would best provide sufficient, indirect evidence for the auditor to confirm the existence of the vehicle?

Options:

A.

Review logs of the vehicles assigned to employees for the delivery of goods during the engagement period.

B.

Visit the home address of the specific employee to see the selected vehicle.

C.

Compare the registered details of the vehicle in the fixed asset register to a date-stamped photograph of the vehicle.

D.

Seek independent confirmation of the vehicle ' s details from one of the delivery employees.

Question 198

In the years after the mid-service point of a depreciable asset, which of the following depreciation methods will result in the highest depreciation expense?

Options:

A.

Sum of the years’ digits.

B.

Declining balance.

C.

Double-declining balance.

D.

Straight line.

Question 199

An internal auditor completed a review of expenses related to the launch of a new project. The auditor sampled 45 transactions approved by a senior project manager and identified 30 with questionable vendor documentation. Which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion for the auditor to include in the audit report?

Options:

A.

The organization incurred excessive cost overruns that resulted in significant financial and legal risk to the project.

B.

The organization experienced a potential conflict of interest

C.

The organization had weaknesses in its review process which allowed questionable transactions with some vendors

D.

The organization allowed the project to launch without assurance that all transactions were regularly approved

Question 200

During an audit of the accounts receivable (AR) process, an internal auditor noted that reconciliations are still not performed regularly by the AR staff, a recommendation that was made following a previous audit. Monitoring by the financial reporting function has failed to detect the shortcoming. Both the financial reporting function and AR report to the controller, who is responsible for implementing action plans. Which of the following supports the internal auditor ' s decision to combine both observations into one reported finding?

Options:

A.

The observation was made during the same audit, and the action plan has a common owner.

B.

The observation relates to the same control activity within a common process.

C.

The observation has a common control, and it was noted in a prior audit.

D.

The observation has a common process, and the action plan for the observation has a common owner.

Question 201

Which of the following is the primary reason to develop an audit work program?

Options:

A.

To alert operational management to the types of audit tests that will likely be performed.

B.

To help the engagement team understand which tasks have to be performed and how.

C.

To assist with communicating all relevant audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations to operational management.

D.

To facilitate the supervision of the audit engagement and enable the chief audit executive to provide relevant feedback.

Question 202

Evidence discovered during the course of an engagement suggests that multiple incidents of fraud have occurred. There do not appear to be sufficient controls in place to prevent reoccurrence. Which of the following is the internal auditor ' s most appropriate next step?

Options:

A.

Immediately notify management of the area under review and the other internal auditors involved in the engagement

B.

Discuss the situation with the engagement supervisor to determine whether fraud investigation experts are required to investigate the matter properly.

C.

Fully document in the workpapers the evidence that has been discovered and recommend appropriate controls to address the fraud

D.

Provide the evidence that was discovered to local lav/ enforcement for possible prosecution of the suspected fraud

Question 203

While auditing an organization ' s credit approval process, an internal auditor learns that the organization has made a large loan to another auditors relative. Which course of action should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Proceed with the audit engagement, but do not include the relative ' s information.

B.

Have the chief audit executive and management determine whether the auditor should continue with the audit engagement.

C.

Disclose in the engagement final communication that the relative Is a customer

D.

Immediately withdraw from the audit engagement

Question 204

Which of the following statements describes an engagement planning best practice?

Options:

A.

It is best to determine planning activities on a case-by-case basis because they can vary widely from engagement to engagement.

B.

If the engagement subject matter is not unique, it is not necessary to outline specific testing procedures during the planning phase.

C.

The engagement plan includes the expected distribution of the audit results, which should be kept confidential until the audit report is final.

D.

Engagement planning activities include setting engagement objectives that align with audit client ' s business objectives.

Question 205

The chief audit executive of an international organization is planning an audit of the treasury function located at the organization ' s headquarters. The current internal audit team at headquarters lacks expertise in the area of financial markets which is needed tor the engagement When of the following would be the most approbate solution considering the time constraint?

Options:

A.

Outsource the engagement 10 tie organization ' s external auditor who has expertise in the area of financial markets

B.

Hire additional internal auditors who have expertise in the area of financial markets.

C.

Invite a guest auditor from one of the organization ' s affiliates who has expertise m the area of financial markets.

D.

Limit the scope of the engagement to the knowledge and skills possessed by the internal audit team.

Question 206

Which of the following would be most likely found in an internal audit procedures manual?

Options:

A.

A summary of the strategic plan of the area under review.

B.

Appropriate response options for when findings are disputed by management.

C.

An explanation of the resources needed for each engagement.

D.

The extent of the auditor ' s authority to collect data from management.

Question 207

Which of the following represents a ratio that measures short term debt-paying ability?

Options:

A.

Debt-to-equity ratio.

B.

Profit margin.

C.

Current ratio.

D.

Times interest earned.

Question 208

Acceding to IIA guidance, when of the Mowing is an assurance service commonly performed by the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Proposing fine item recommendation lot the annual financial budget of the accounting department

B.

Making recommendations regarding financial approval authority limits for the operations department

C.

Validating whether employees are following established policies and procedures in the procurement department

D.

Generating expense report metrics for employees in the finance department

Question 209

An internal auditor is assigned to an advisory engagement for the launch of a new system relating to travel and expense. During fieldwork, the auditor tests interfacing controls with the procurement system. The auditor observes that a key control is missing within the procurement system. The auditor identifies that senior management has approved a temporary manual workaround for the missing control. Which of the following actions should the auditor take?

Options:

A.

Propose to include an assurance engagement for the procurement system in next year’s audit plan

B.

Perform a root cause analysis and test the workaround effectiveness

C.

Expand the scope of the advisory engagement to include the procurement system

D.

Ignore the risk as senior management has implemented the workaround

Question 210

During a consulting engagement an internal auditor wants to determine whether all principal stakeholders are involved in a project. Which tool should the auditor use?

Options:

A.

RACI (responsible, accountable, consult and inform) chart

B.

Flowchart

C.

SWOT{strengths. weaknesses opportunities, and threats) analysis

D.

Workflow analysis

Question 211

An internal auditor develops an engagement observation related to an organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances. The auditor observes that the organization ' s procedures do not require justification for travel advances greater than a specific amount Which of the following best describes the organization ' s procedures?

Options:

A.

A criterion of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

B.

A condition of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

C.

A consequence of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

D.

A cause of the organization ' s accumulation of large travel advances

Question 212

Which of the following statements is true regarding the audit objective for an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

Operational management must determine the audit objective in cooperation with the internal auditor

B.

The audit objective may be adjusted after the start of an engagement and it does not need to align with the assessed risks

C.

The audit objective must consider the possibility of fraud and noncompliance

D.

The audit objective may or may not consider the possibility of fraud depending on the assessed likelihood and impact

Question 213

According to the Standards, which of the following is leastimportant in determining the adequacy of an annual audit plan?

Options:

A.

Sufficiency.

B.

Appropriateness.

C.

Effective deployment.

D.

Cost effectiveness.

Question 214

What is the best course of action for a chief audit executive if an internal auditor identifies in the early stage of an audit that some employees have inappropriate access to a key system?

Options:

A.

Contact the audit committee chair to discuss the finding

B.

Obtain verbal assurance from management that the inappropriate access will be removed

C.

Issue an interim audit report so that management can implement action plans

D.

Ask the auditor to create a ticket with the IT help desk requesting to revoke the inappropriate access

Question 215

The internal audit activity is currently working on several engagements, including a consulting engagement on the management process in the human resources department. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to most efficiently and effectively ensure the quality of the engagement?

Options:

A.

Assign an experienced manager to monitor the whole engagement process.

B.

Employ fieldwork peer review to enhance the work quality.

C.

Require internal auditors to follow a standardized work program.

D.

Personally supervise the engagement.

Question 216

According to IIA guidance, which of the following individuals should receive the final audit report on a compliance engagement for the organization ' s cash disbursements process?

Options:

A.

The accounts payable supervisor, accounts payable manager, and controller.

B.

The accounts payable manager, purchasing manager, and receiving manager.

C.

The accounts payable supervisor, controller, and treasurer.

D.

The accounts payable manager, chief financial officer, and audit committee.

Question 217

According to IIA guidance, which of re following actions should the internal auditor take immediately after having considered fraud scenarios and identified and prioritized fraud risks?

Options:

A.

Determine which controls if any are in place to mitigate the fraud risks

B.

Follow protocol for internal reporting and investigating fraud allegations

C.

Research frauds that nave occurred t\ similar organizations

D.

Incorporate the fraud risk assessment into the engagement plan

Question 218

An internal control questionnaire would be most appropriate in which of the following situations?

Options:

A.

Testing controls where operating procedures vary.

B.

Testing controls in decentralized offices.

C.

Testing controls in high risk areas.

D.

Testing controls in areas with high control failure rates.

Question 219

The internal audit team judgmentally selected 60 of the 600 employee timesheets that were processed during the previous month to determine whether supervisors were properly approving timesheets in accordance with the organization ' s policies. The internal audit team found three exceptions. Based on the audit test, which of the following is most appropriate for the internal audit team to conclude?

Options:

A.

The internal control is operating with 95% effectiveness

B.

There is 90% probability that the internal control is operating as designed

C.

The internal control is not designed appropriately

D.

5% of the selected timesheets were not properly approved

Question 220

A code of business conduct should include which of the following to increase its deterrent effect?

1. Appropriate descriptions of penalties for misconduct.

2. A notification that code of conduct violations may lead to criminal prosecution.

3. A description of violations that injure the interests of the employer.

4. A list of employees covered by the code of conduct.

Options:

A.

1 and 2

B.

1 and 3

C.

2 and 4

D.

3 and 4

Question 221

A healthcare organization ' s chief audit executive (CAE) noted that the organization ' s IT team relies heavily on a vendor. Therefore an IT vendor assessment review was added to the annual audit plan. During the review, the audit team discovered that the vendor had not been performing proper monitoring to ensure that the subcontractors it hired comply with the organization requirements. The organization ' s chief information officer (ClO) does not agree with the audit team ' s recommendation for the IT team to monitor the compliance level of vendor subcontractors. How should the audit team proceed to resolve this situation?

Options:

A.

Write a risk acceptance memo for the CIO to sign acknowledging the observation and indicating a willingness to accept the risk.

B.

Provide an example of the attestation form that vendors must use. Then, recommend that the IT team require vendors to submit the attestation form on a regular basis.

C.

Escalate the issue to the audit committee, as the CIO is unwilling to implement the recommended action plan.

D.

Escalate the issue to the CAE to assess whether the ClO ' s reasoning is acceptable.

Question 222

A newly promoted chief audit executive (CAE) is faced with a backlog of assurance engagement reports to review for approval. In an attempt to attach a priority for this review, the CAE scans the opinion statement on each report. According to IIA guidance, which of the following opinions would receive the lowest review priority?

1. Graded positive opinion.

2. Negative assurance opinion.

3. Limited assurance opinion.

4. Third-party opinion.

Options:

A.

1 and 3

B.

1 and 4

C.

2 and 3

D.

2 and 4

Question 223

During planning, the chief audit executive submits a risk-and-control questionnaire to management of the activity under review. Which of the following statements is true regarding the questionnaire?

Options:

A.

It would be an inefficient way for internal auditors to address multiple controls in the activity under review.

B.

It would limit certain members of the internal audit team from being fully involved in the engagement.

C.

It would be the most effective way for the internal audit team to obtain a detailed understanding of the processes and controls in the activity to be audited.

D.

It would be an efficient way for the internal audit team to determine whether specified control activities are in place.

Question 224

The internal audit activity needs to review the information security function but does not have the IT expertise needed for the engagement. Which of the following actions should the chief audit executive take to ensure the internal audit activity conforms with the Standards?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a staff auditor and closely review his work and report.

B.

Assign the engagement to a senior auditor, who carefully researches and studies the company’s IT infrastructure.

C.

Contract an external service provider auditor with the experience necessary to perform the audit.

D.

Perform the audit herself and work closely with the information security function to obtain expertise in the area.

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Total 747 questions