NV Accident and Health Questions and Answers
A producer who makes misleading policy comparisons for the purpose of inducing an insured to surrender an existing policy is guilty of:
Options:
rebating
coercion
twisting
defamation
Answer:
CExplanation:
Twisting is the use of misleading, incomplete, or fraudulent policy comparisons to induce, or attempt to induce, a policyowner to lapse, forfeit, surrender, terminate, exchange, convert, or replace an existing insurance policy. The producer’s conduct described in the question is a classic example of twisting because the misleading comparison is used to convince the insured to surrender existing coverage.
Twisting is prohibited because replacement decisions can have serious consequences. A new policy may have different exclusions, waiting periods, contestability periods, benefit limits, premiums, surrender charges, or underwriting requirements. A producer must provide accurate, balanced, and complete comparisons when discussing replacement or surrender of coverage.
Rebating involves offering an unlawful return of premium, commission, or other inducement not stated in the policy. Coercion involves forcing or improperly pressuring a person to act. Defamation involves false statements that harm another person’s reputation. None of those terms specifically describes misleading comparisons intended to cause surrender of an existing policy.
Study Guide references/topics: unfair trade practices; policy replacement; twisting; misleading comparisons; NRS 686A.050 .
In a typical HMO arrangement, what is the primary role of the primary care provider?
Options:
To coordinate routine care and referrals under the plan’s rules
To sell insurance policies to other patients
To guarantee that all out-of-network care is covered
To determine the insurer’s investment return
Answer:
AExplanation:
In a typical health maintenance organization, the primary care provider acts as the central coordinator of the insured’s routine medical care. The primary care provider may deliver preventive and basic medical services, maintain the patient’s care plan, and refer the patient to specialists or other facilities when required by the HMO’s rules. This gatekeeper function is intended to coordinate care, reduce unnecessary duplication, and manage costs through the plan’s provider network.
The precise referral rules depend on the particular HMO. Some plans may allow direct access to certain specialists, such as obstetricians or behavioral-health providers, while others require prior referral or authorization. Emergency services are subject to separate protections and should not be described as ordinary out-of-network elective care. The producer must explain the network, referral, prior-authorization, and out-of-network rules before enrollment.
A PPO also has a preferred provider network but commonly allows members to use nonnetwork providers at a reduced benefit level and without the same referral structure. An indemnity plan may provide broader provider choice but may have different reimbursement limits and cost sharing. The test distinction is that an HMO commonly emphasizes coordinated, network-based care through a primary care provider.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Managed Care; HMO; Primary Care Provider; Gatekeeper Model; Provider Networks.
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According to Nevada law, an authorized insurer is BEST defined as:
Options:
any insurer with minimum assets as required by this state
an insurer with a certificate of authority issued by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)
an insurer with a certificate of authority issued by the Insurance Commissioner of Nevada
an insurer authorized under a certificate of authority issued by the Governor of Nevada
Answer:
CExplanation:
An authorized insurer is an insurer that holds a certificate of authority issued by the Nevada Insurance Commissioner and remains authorized to transact insurance in the state. The certificate of authority is the formal approval allowing the insurer to conduct the kinds of insurance business for which it has been approved.
Having sufficient assets may be one consideration in an insurer’s application and ongoing financial regulation, but assets alone do not make an insurer authorized. The National Association of Insurance Commissioners develops model laws, standards, and regulatory resources; it does not issue Nevada certificates of authority. The Governor of Nevada likewise does not issue insurance certificates of authority.
This distinction is central to Nevada insurance regulation. Authorized, or admitted, insurers are subject to Nevada’s ongoing solvency oversight, market-conduct regulation, rate and form requirements where applicable, examinations, and other statutory obligations. Nonadmitted insurers may be used only through the surplus-lines process or another applicable statutory exception.
A producer must understand whether an insurer is authorized before placing ordinary insurance business. Selling or placing insurance with an unauthorized insurer outside a lawful exception can create serious regulatory consequences.
Study Guide references/topics: authorized insurers; admitted insurers; certificates of authority; insurer regulation; NRS 680A.020 .
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Which statement best describes a group life conversion privilege?
Options:
It allows an insured leaving the group to obtain individual coverage without evidence of insurability, subject to the policy terms.
It allows the employer to convert all employees into beneficiaries.
It guarantees that the group premium will never increase.
It transfers the employee’s group policy cash value to a retirement account.
Answer:
AExplanation:
A group life conversion privilege allows an insured whose group coverage terminates to obtain an individual life insurance policy without providing new evidence of insurability, provided the person applies and pays the required premium within the conversion period. The privilege is valuable because a person leaving employment may have become less insurable since original enrollment. Conversion allows continued life coverage despite a change in health, although the individual policy’s premium is generally based on the insurer’s conversion rates and may be higher than the group rate.
The group master policy and applicable law control the conversion period, maximum conversion amount, and type of individual policy available. The individual policy may not be identical to the group coverage. A producer should explain that the former employee has a limited window to act and should review alternative coverage options promptly.
Conversion differs from portability. Portability allows an insured to continue group-style coverage under certain terms, while conversion results in a new individual policy. The protection during the conversion period is also significant: Nevada group-life law provides a death benefit if the insured dies during the conversion period before the individual policy becomes effective, in the amount that could have been converted.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Group Life Insurance; Conversion Privilege; Portability; Termination of Group Coverage; NRS 688B.120–688B.130.
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Which statement best describes a preferred provider organization (PPO)?
Options:
It requires all care to be obtained only from government hospitals.
It generally provides greater benefits when members use participating providers but may allow nonnetwork care at a reduced benefit level.
It pays only a fixed daily hospital benefit.
It has no deductible, coinsurance, or utilization-management features.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A preferred provider organization, or PPO, contracts with a network of preferred providers who agree to provide services under negotiated payment arrangements. Members generally receive the highest level of benefit and lowest out-of-pocket cost when they use participating providers. Many PPOs also permit use of nonnetwork providers, but the member normally pays more through a higher deductible, higher coinsurance, balance billing exposure, or reduced reimbursement.
A PPO differs from a traditional HMO because it commonly provides more flexibility in choosing providers and may not require a primary-care referral for specialist care. However, the tradeoff may be higher premiums, higher cost sharing, and more complex reimbursement rules. A PPO is still managed care; it may use prior authorization, utilization review, formularies, and network rules.
A producer should explain provider-network access, emergency-care rules, deductible and coinsurance amounts, out-of-network payment limitations, and whether a provider is actually participating at the time of enrollment. The phrase “you can see any doctor” can be misleading if nonnetwork care is covered at a lower level or exposes the insured to significant unpaid charges.
References/topics from the Study Guide: PPO; Managed Care; Provider Networks; In-Network and Out-of-Network Benefits; Cost Sharing.
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The Misstatement of Age provision in an Accident and Health policy allows an insurance company to take which of the following actions if an insured has understated the insured ' s age on the policy application?
Options:
Increase the premium
Adjust the benefits
Lapse the coverage
Cancel the policy
Answer:
BExplanation:
A Misstatement of Age provision corrects the benefit amount when the insured’s age was inaccurately stated at application. If the insured understated age, the premium paid was lower than the premium that should have been paid for the correct age. Rather than canceling coverage or retroactively demanding a different premium, the insurer adjusts the benefit to the amount the premium actually paid would have purchased at the correct age. Choice B is therefore correct. This approach preserves the policy while placing both parties in the financial position contemplated by the policy’s age-based premium schedule. The provision does not automatically increase premiums, lapse coverage, or permit cancellation merely because the age was misstated. It is a standard uniform individual accident and health policy provision intended to resolve an administrative error fairly and predictably. The same principle applies in the opposite direction: if age was overstated and excess premium was paid, benefits may be adjusted upward to the amount the paid premium would have purchased at the actual age. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Uniform Individual Accident and Health Policy Provisions; Misstatement of Age.
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Under federal law, a tax exempt Health Savings Account can only be opened for an individual who is:
Options:
covered by a qualified High Deductible Health Plan
covered by Long Term Care Insurance
entitled to Medicare benefits
eligible to be claimed as a dependent on another person ' s tax return
Answer:
AExplanation:
A Health Savings Account is available only to an eligible individual, and a central eligibility requirement is coverage under a qualified High Deductible Health Plan. Therefore, choice A is correct. The individual also generally must not have disqualifying other health coverage, be enrolled in Medicare, or be claimable as another person’s tax dependent. Long-term care insurance does not itself establish HSA eligibility. Medicare enrollment generally prevents new HSA contributions, although the account balance may still be used for qualified expenses under applicable tax rules. An HSA offers tax-favored contributions, tax-deferred growth, and tax-free distributions for qualified medical expenses when statutory requirements are met. The HDHP must satisfy annual federal deductible and out-of-pocket limits, which are adjusted periodically. The IRS states that eligible individuals must have HDHP coverage and no disqualifying health coverage to make HSA contributions. See IRS HSA guidance . Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Health Savings Accounts; High Deductible Health Plans.
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The Nevada Insurance Commissioner may revoke the license of any licensed producer who:
Options:
is found liable by final judgment in a civil case
fails to file an annual financial report with the Division of Insurance
fails to notify the Commissioner of a change of address within forty-eight hours
misappropriates monies belonging to policyholders
Answer:
DExplanation:
Misappropriating money belonging to policyholders is a direct and serious ground for license revocation. A producer commonly receives premiums, return premiums, claim funds, or other property in the course of insurance business. Those funds must be handled honestly, promptly, and in accordance with the producer’s fiduciary responsibilities. Using, converting, improperly withholding, or diverting that money violates Nevada producer-licensing law.
The Commissioner may refuse to issue, suspend, revoke, or refuse to renew a producer’s license and may impose administrative fines or other disciplinary action for specified misconduct. Misappropriation is specifically identified as conduct warranting discipline because it threatens consumers and undermines the integrity of the insurance marketplace.
A civil judgment alone does not automatically establish a licensing-revocation ground under the wording of this question. Likewise, reporting requirements and address-change obligations may lead to administrative consequences when violated, but the question asks for the clear statutory cause for revocation. Misappropriation of policyholder money is the most direct and legally significant answer.
Producers should maintain accurate premium records, promptly remit funds, segregate money when required, and never treat policyholder or insurer funds as personal assets.
Study Guide references/topics: producer fiduciary duties; prohibited practices; license denial, suspension, and revocation; NRS 683A.451 .
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In a cross-purchase buy-sell agreement funded by life insurance, who typically owns the policy on each business owner?
Options:
The business entity owns every policy.
Each owner owns policies on the other owners.
The insured owner’s children own the policy.
The producer owns the policy until death occurs.
Answer:
BExplanation:
In a cross-purchase buy-sell agreement, each business owner purchases, owns, and is beneficiary of life insurance on the other owner or owners. If one owner dies, the surviving owner receives the policy proceeds and uses them to purchase the deceased owner’s business interest from the estate or designated successor. The arrangement provides liquidity and a predetermined method for transferring ownership, helping the business continue without forcing a sale of assets or requiring the surviving owner to obtain financing at a difficult time.
An entity-purchase agreement differs because the business itself owns policies on each owner and uses the proceeds to redeem the deceased owner’s interest. The number of policies can be an important distinction. With two owners, a cross-purchase arrangement usually requires two policies. With several owners, each may need policies on all other owners, which can become administratively complex.
The agreement should be drafted and reviewed by qualified legal and tax professionals. The insurance policy alone does not create the buy-sell obligation; the written agreement establishes the purchase terms, valuation method, triggering events, and funding mechanism. The producer’s role is to help identify appropriate funding, not to draft legal agreements.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Buy-Sell Agreements; Cross-Purchase Plans; Entity-Purchase Plans; Business Continuation; Life Insurance Funding.
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Which type of health insurance is designed primarily to reimburse medical expenses such as hospital, surgical, and physician charges?
Options:
Medical expense insurance
Disability income insurance
Accidental death insurance
Credit life insurance
Answer:
AExplanation:
Medical expense insurance is designed to reimburse or pay covered health-care expenses arising from illness or injury. These expenses may include hospital room and board, surgical services, physician services, diagnostic testing, outpatient treatment, prescription drugs, and other covered medical care. Benefits are subject to the policy’s deductible, copayment, coinsurance, network rules, exclusions, benefit limits, and medical-necessity standards.
Disability income insurance serves a different purpose. It replaces a portion of the insured’s earned income when the insured becomes disabled under the policy definition. It does not ordinarily reimburse hospital or physician bills. Accidental death insurance pays a benefit upon qualifying accidental death and does not serve as general medical coverage. Credit life insurance is designed to help satisfy a debt when the debtor dies.
An examination question may describe a policy as basic hospital, surgical, physician expense, major medical, comprehensive major medical, or managed care. Each is within the broader medical-expense category, although benefits and delivery systems differ. The producer should help clients understand the distinction between coverage for medical bills and coverage for lost income. A client can need both forms of protection because medical expenses and inability to earn income are separate financial risks.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medical Expense Insurance; Hospital Expense; Surgical Expense; Major Medical; Disability Income Insurance.
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Which statement is true of a variable life insurance policy?
Options:
The policyowner bears no investment risk.
The cash value is held only in the insurer’s general account.
The cash value may fluctuate with separate-account investment performance.
The policy is always a temporary term policy.
Answer:
CExplanation:
Variable life insurance is permanent life insurance with cash values invested in separate-account investment options. Because the value of those investments can rise or fall, the policyowner bears the investment risk. The policy’s cash value may fluctuate based on market performance, and the death benefit may vary above a guaranteed minimum amount, subject to policy provisions. The insurer does not guarantee the investment performance of the separate account.
Variable life insurance differs from whole life, where the insurer’s general account supports guaranteed cash values and fixed premiums. It also differs from universal life, which emphasizes flexible premiums and adjustable death-benefit structures. Variable universal life combines flexible-premium features with separate-account investment options. All such products must be described accurately because the potential for growth is accompanied by potential loss.
Because variable life is a security as well as an insurance product, a producer generally needs appropriate securities registration and authorization in addition to life insurance licensing. Suitability is especially important. The product may be appropriate only for a consumer with a long time horizon, tolerance for market volatility, and a need for permanent life insurance. It should not be sold as a guaranteed investment or as equivalent to a fixed life policy.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Variable Life Insurance; Separate Accounts; General Accounts; Securities Registration; Investment Risk; Suitability.
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An insured who owns a Disability Income policy forgot to pay the premium due on July 1. If the insured files a disability claim on July 31, the insurance company will MOST likely:
Options:
deny the claim
pay the claim but deduct the unpaid premium
reinstate the policy and then pay the claim
cancel the policy and return all premiums paid
Answer:
BExplanation:
The policy remains in force during its contractual grace period after a premium becomes due. For individual accident and health policies, the required grace period generally depends on premium mode: seven days for weekly premiums, ten days for monthly premiums, and 31 days for other premium modes. A claim occurring within the applicable grace period is not automatically denied simply because the premium has not yet been paid. Instead, the insurer may pay the covered claim and deduct the overdue premium from the amount otherwise payable. Therefore, choice B is the best answer. Reinstatement is unnecessary because the policy has not yet lapsed while the grace period is still running. Cancellation and return of all prior premiums would be inconsistent with the purpose of the grace-period provision. The question tests the difference between a late premium during grace and a lapsed policy after grace expires. Once grace expires without payment, coverage can lapse; if coverage later is reinstated, loss coverage may be subject to reinstatement provisions and limitations. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Grace Period; Disability Income Insurance.
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Medicaid is best described as:
Options:
A federal retirement program funded only by payroll taxes
A joint federal-state program that provides medical assistance to eligible individuals
A private insurance policy sold by producers
A Medicare supplement insurance plan
Answer:
BExplanation:
Medicaid is a joint federal-state medical-assistance program serving eligible individuals and families under income, resource, categorical, residency, and other program rules. The federal government establishes broad requirements and provides funding, while each state administers its program within federal parameters. Nevada administers Medicaid through its state health and human-services structure and contracted delivery systems. Eligibility and benefits can vary by category and may change with law and program administration.
Medicaid is not the same as Medicare. Medicare is principally a federal social-insurance program associated with age 65 or older, certain disabilities, and end-stage renal disease or other qualifying conditions. Medicaid is generally means tested, although eligibility is determined by detailed program standards and should never be assumed from income alone. Some people may qualify for both Medicare and Medicaid; these individuals are often referred to as dual-eligible beneficiaries.
A producer should avoid giving legal or public-benefit eligibility advice beyond the scope of insurance licensing. The proper role is to identify the program accurately, explain how private coverage may coordinate where applicable, and direct a consumer to the appropriate state agency or benefits specialist for an eligibility determination.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Medicaid; Medicare; Dual Eligibility; Government-Sponsored Health Programs; Nevada Public Health Benefits.
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One key distinction between producers and Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF) is producers:
Options:
can recommend a health plan for a consumer
can explain insurance terms like copayments and deductibles
can answer questions regarding program eligibility
are compensated monetarily
Answer:
AExplanation:
A licensed producer may recommend a health plan for a consumer because the producer is authorized to sell, solicit, and negotiate insurance. That authority permits the producer to discuss coverage choices in a personalized manner, explain how plan provisions apply to the consumer’s situation, and recommend a particular policy or plan when appropriate.
An Exchange Enrollment Facilitator is certified to help consumers enroll in qualified health plans through the Exchange. The EEF role is designed to provide impartial enrollment assistance, application support, and general program information. However, an EEF may not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. That restriction prevents an EEF from functioning as an insurance producer or steering a consumer toward a particular carrier or plan.
Explaining general terminology, such as deductibles, copayments, and eligibility rules, can be part of enrollment assistance and is not the defining distinction. Compensation is also not the key answer because the legal distinction turns on insurance authority, not simply whether a person receives payment. A Nevada EEF also may not concurrently hold a producer license.
Study Guide references/topics: Exchange Enrollment Facilitators; producer authority; solicitation and negotiation; NRS Chapter 695J .
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An incorporated licensee who seeks to do business under a fictitious name is required to file a document about the name with the:
Options:
National Association of Health Underwriters
Nevada Insurance Commissioner
National Association of Insurance and Financial Advisors
Nevada Attorney General ' s office
Answer:
BExplanation:
An incorporated insurance licensee using a name other than its true legal name must obtain approval and file the required fictitious-name documentation with the Nevada Insurance Commissioner. This ensures that insurance business is conducted under a name that has been reviewed, recorded, and can be connected to the actual licensed person or entity responsible for the transaction. It supports consumer protection, regulatory oversight, complaint handling, and enforcement of licensing laws.
Nevada’s producer-licensing law requires an applicant or licensee wishing to use a name other than the true name shown on the license to submit a request for approval and file with the Commissioner a certified copy of the applicable certificate. The purpose is not merely administrative. A producer may not use a trade, assumed, or fictitious name in a way that could conceal the responsible licensee or mislead an insurance consumer.
The Attorney General, NAHU, and NAIFA do not approve fictitious names used by Nevada insurance licensees. The Nevada Division of Insurance, acting through the Commissioner, is the proper regulatory authority.
Study Guide references/topics: Nevada producer licensing; use of true or fictitious names; regulatory authority of the Commissioner; NRS 683A.301 .
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A client needs a $250,000 death benefit for exactly 20 years to protect a home mortgage. The client wants the lowest practical initial premium and does not need cash-value accumulation. Which policy is most appropriate?
Options:
Whole life insurance
Level term life insurance
Variable life insurance
Universal life insurance
Answer:
BExplanation:
Level term life insurance is the appropriate recommendation because it provides a stated death benefit for a stated period, such as 20 years. It is designed for temporary protection where the financial need has a known end date—for example, the remaining duration of a mortgage, a child’s dependency period, or a short-to-medium-term income-replacement need. The premium is generally level for the selected term period, while the death benefit remains level if the policy stays in force.
Whole life insurance provides permanent protection and cash-value accumulation, but its premium is ordinarily higher because the insurer expects coverage to continue for the insured’s lifetime. Universal life offers flexible premiums and adjustable death-benefit structures, but it is not the simplest match when the client’s purpose is fixed, time-limited mortgage protection. Variable life has investment risk because policy values depend on separate-account performance and is not selected merely to obtain low-cost temporary coverage.
The producer should confirm that the term period aligns with the mortgage obligation and explain that coverage normally ends at the term’s expiration unless the policy is renewed, converted, or otherwise continued under its provisions.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Types of Life Insurance; Term Life Insurance; Needs Analysis; Mortgage Protection.
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Which premium-payment mode usually results in the lowest total annual premium cost for the policyowner?
Options:
Monthly
Quarterly
Semiannual
Annual
Answer:
DExplanation:
Annual premium payment generally produces the lowest total cost over the policy year because the insurer receives the full annual premium at the beginning of the coverage period. Monthly, quarterly, and semiannual payment modes are convenient for budgeting, but they commonly include an additional charge or produce a higher total annual premium. The difference reflects the insurer’s additional administrative expense and the fact that the insurer receives portions of the premium later.
Premium mode does not change the policy’s face amount, underwriting classification, or contractual benefits. It changes only the schedule and total cost of paying the premium. A producer should present all available modes clearly and explain the actual amount due under each option. A consumer with predictable annual cash flow may prefer annual mode to reduce total cost, while a consumer who needs more frequent payments may choose a higher-cost mode to preserve affordability and avoid lapse.
This issue is distinct from the grace period. The grace period protects the policyowner after a premium due date by allowing a limited time to make payment before coverage lapses. Premium mode establishes how frequently the regular premium is due; it does not eliminate the policyowner’s obligation to pay.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Premium Payment; Premium Modes; Grace Period; Policy Lapse; Life Insurance Contract Provisions.
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A producer aggrieved by any regulation or order of the Insurance Commissioner may request:
Options:
an administrative hearing
injunctive relief through the Secretary of State
legislative review of the case
peer review of the case
Answer:
AExplanation:
A producer who is aggrieved by a regulation or order of the Nevada Insurance Commissioner may request an administrative hearing. Nevada law requires the Commissioner to hold a hearing upon a proper written application from a person aggrieved by an act, failure to act, report, rule, regulation, or order related to the business of insurance, subject to statutory timing and procedural requirements.
The request is a due-process mechanism. It gives the affected producer an opportunity to state the grounds for relief, present evidence, challenge the factual or legal basis of the regulatory action, and create an administrative record. The application must generally be filed with the Division within 60 days after the person knew or reasonably should have known of the action, unless another law establishes a different period.
The Secretary of State does not provide the administrative remedy described in this question. Legislative review and peer review are not the standard appeal mechanisms for an individual Commissioner action. Judicial review may become available after the administrative process, but the immediate remedy tested here is the request for an administrative hearing.
Study Guide references/topics: Commissioner authority; hearings; producer rights; administrative due process; NRS 679B.310 .
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A life policy lapses because a premium was not paid. To reinstate the policy, the insurer will generally require all of the following EXCEPT:
Options:
Evidence of insurability
Payment of overdue premiums with interest
A new medical examination in every case
Reinstatement within the policy’s permitted time limit
Answer:
CExplanation:
Reinstatement restores a lapsed life insurance policy to active status if the policyowner satisfies the policy’s requirements. Those requirements generally include applying for reinstatement within the permitted period, providing evidence of insurability satisfactory to the insurer, and paying overdue premiums plus interest. The exact reinstatement period and underwriting requirements are controlled by the policy and applicable law.
A new medical examination is not required in every case. The insurer may request medical information or an examination when needed to evaluate the applicant’s current insurability, but it is not an automatic universal requirement. The key examination principle is that evidence of insurability is required, not that a physical examination must always occur. Reinstatement is often preferable to purchasing a new policy because the existing policy may have more favorable premium rates, accumulated cash value, or a prior issue age. However, the policyowner must understand that contestability and certain exclusions may begin again with respect to the reinstatement.
A producer should explain the difference between reinstatement and renewal. Reinstatement restores a policy that lapsed; renewal continues or extends a policy under its existing terms. Neither should be assumed available without reviewing the contract.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Reinstatement Provision; Policy Lapse; Evidence of Insurability; Premium Payment; NRS 688A.130.
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An Outline of Coverage for Medicare Supplement policies must be provided to a prospective insured at which of the following times?
Options:
When the policy is delivered
At the time of application
When the premium is paid
At the time a claim is submitted
Answer:
BExplanation:
A Medicare Supplement insurer must provide an Outline of Coverage to the applicant at the time the application is presented. The outline is a consumer-disclosure document designed to summarize the policy’s principal benefits, premiums, limitations, exclusions, and other important features before the applicant makes a final purchasing decision.
The outline is not the insurance contract itself. The policy contains the full contractual rights and obligations, but the outline allows an applicant to compare Medicare Supplement plans in a clear and standardized format. It helps the consumer understand how the policy works with Original Medicare and whether it duplicates other existing coverage.
If the issued policy differs from the coverage described in the original outline, the insurer must provide a substitute outline describing the policy actually issued when delivering it. That later document does not change the initial requirement: the first outline is provided at application.
The premium-payment date and claim-submission date occur too late to serve the purpose of pre- sale disclosure. The key examination concept is timing: applicants receive the Outline of Coverage before purchasing the Medicare Supplement policy.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Supplement insurance; consumer disclosures; Outline of Coverage; NAC 687B.250 .
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A policyowner names two children as beneficiaries “per stirpes.” If one child dies before the insured but leaves children, how are that deceased child’s share and the surviving child’s share handled?
Options:
The surviving child receives all proceeds.
The deceased child’s share passes to the insurer.
The deceased child’s descendants receive that child’s share.
The estate of the deceased child automatically receives all proceeds.
Answer:
CExplanation:
A per stirpes beneficiary designation means “by the branch” or “by the bloodline.” If a named beneficiary dies before the insured, that beneficiary’s descendants take the deceased beneficiary’s share. In this question, the deceased child’s children receive the share that would have gone to their parent, while the surviving child receives that child’s own share. This preserves each family branch’s intended portion of the life insurance proceeds.
A per capita designation works differently. Under a per capita arrangement, surviving members of a named class generally share equally, and a deceased beneficiary’s descendants do not automatically take the deceased beneficiary’s share unless the designation or policy language provides otherwise. The precise result always depends on the policy designation, applicable law, and any contingent- beneficiary provisions.
Beneficiary designations should be reviewed after divorce, marriage, birth, death, adoption, or other major changes. A producer should not provide legal advice about estate planning, but should encourage the policyowner to obtain professional legal guidance when the designation involves trusts, minors, estates, complex family arrangements, or special-needs planning.
The test point is straightforward: per stirpes preserves the deceased beneficiary’s branch; per capita distributes among the surviving members of the class.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Beneficiary Designations; Per Stirpes; Per Capita; Primary and Contingent Beneficiaries; Estate Planning Basics.
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Which of the following statements is correct about the Coordination of Benefits provision?
Options:
It prohibits an insurer from selling a health policy to an applicant who already has similar coverage.
It prevents an insured covered by two health plans from making a profit on a covered loss.
It allows an insured to change insurers without losing benefits.
It permits an insurer to defer paying a claim for a work-related injury until Workers ' Compensation Benefits have expired.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Coordination of Benefits, commonly called COB, applies when an insured is covered by more than one health plan. It establishes the order in which plans pay and limits the combined payment so the insured does not receive more than the amount of the covered expense. Choice B is correct because COB prevents a profit from duplicate health coverage while still allowing the insured to receive the benefits to which the insured is entitled. One plan is identified as primary and pays first under its policy terms. The secondary plan then considers the unpaid covered balance, subject to its own coordination provisions and limits. COB does not prohibit a person from owning more than one health policy, does not guarantee uninterrupted benefits when changing insurers, and does not authorize a general delay of a workers’ compensation claim until benefits expire. Workers’ compensation coordination depends on the applicable policy and governing law. On the examination, distinguish COB from nonduplication of benefits and from other insurance clauses; COB specifically allocates payment responsibility among multiple health plans. Study Guide References/Topics: Group Health Insurance; Coordination of Benefits; Other Insurance Provisions.
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Under a typical coordination-of-benefits rule, a child is covered under both parents’ group health plans. Which plan is generally primary when the parents are married and neither plan contains an exception?
Options:
The plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year
The plan with the highest deductible
The plan that began most recently
The plan selected by the child each year
Answer:
AExplanation:
Coordination of benefits, or COB, establishes the order in which multiple health plans pay when an insured is covered by more than one plan. For a dependent child covered by both married parents’ group health plans, the common “birthday rule” generally makes primary the plan of the parent whose birthday occurs earlier in the calendar year. The rule compares the month and day of birth, not the year. If both birthdays are the same, the plan that has covered the parent longer is generally primary.
The primary plan pays first according to its own policy terms. The secondary plan then considers the remaining eligible expense and may pay an additional amount, subject to its coordination-of-benefits provision. COB is intended to prevent duplicate recovery exceeding the actual covered expense while still allowing the insured to receive the benefit of multiple coverages.
Special rules can apply in divorce, custody, court-order, active-versus-retired employee, Medicare, and other situations. The producer should never assume that one generic rule governs every family arrangement. Plan documents and applicable law control. For examination purposes, the birthday rule is the standard answer when the parents are married and no special circumstance is stated.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Coordination of Benefits; Primary and Secondary Coverage; Birthday Rule; Group Health Insurance; Dependent Coverage.
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Which of the following statements is generally CORRECT about a major medical policy?
Options:
It provides benefits for in-hospital expenses only, subject to policy limits.
It contains more limitations than a Basic Hospital, Medical, or Surgical policy.
It contains a 30-day Elimination period for losses due to sickness.
It provides benefits for reasonable and necessary medical expenses, subject to policy limits.
Answer:
DExplanation:
Major medical insurance is designed to provide broad protection against substantial medical expenses. It commonly covers hospital, surgical, physician, diagnostic, and other medically necessary services, subject to deductibles, coinsurance, exclusions, and stated policy limits. Therefore, choice D is correct. A major medical policy is not limited to in-hospital expenses; that description is more characteristic of basic hospital coverage. It also is generally broader—not more limited—than a basic hospital, medical, or surgical policy. A 30-day elimination period is associated more closely with disability income insurance and does not define major medical coverage. The phrase “reasonable and necessary” is important because it allows the insurer to evaluate whether a service was medically appropriate and whether the charge falls within the policy’s payment standard. Major medical policies are comprehensive, but they are not unlimited: coverage remains subject to deductibles, coinsurance, exclusions, maximum benefits, network terms, and utilization requirements. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Major Medical Expense Insurance; Medical Expense Coverage.
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Which person is generally eligible to establish and contribute to a health savings account (HSA)?
Options:
A person enrolled in any health plan with no deductible
A person covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan and meeting other eligibility requirements
A person enrolled in Medicare Part A
A person claimed as another taxpayer’s dependent
Answer:
BExplanation:
An HSA is generally available to an eligible individual who is covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan, commonly called an HDHP, and who meets the other federal eligibility requirements. The account is owned by the individual, not the employer or insurer. Contributions may be made by the individual, an employer, or another person, subject to annual contribution limits. Qualified distributions used for eligible medical expenses are generally tax advantaged under federal rules.
Eligibility is not based solely on having a high deductible. The health plan must meet the federal HDHP requirements for the applicable year. In addition, an individual generally cannot be enrolled in Medicare, cannot be claimed as another person’s tax dependent, and cannot have disqualifying other health coverage. Because federal limits and requirements can change, the producer should not provide individualized tax advice and should refer the consumer to current IRS guidance or a qualified tax professional.
An HSA differs from a flexible spending arrangement because unused HSA funds generally remain with the account owner and may carry forward. It also differs from health insurance itself; the HSA is a tax-advantaged account used alongside an eligible health plan.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Health Savings Accounts; High-Deductible Health Plans; Consumer-Directed Health Plans; Tax-Advantaged Medical Accounts.
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What is the minimum age requirement for a natural person applying for a resident Nevada producer license?
Options:
16 years old
18 years old
21 years old
25 years old
Answer:
BExplanation:
A natural person applying for a resident Nevada producer license must be at least 18 years old. Age is only one part of the licensing standard. Before approving a resident producer application, the Commissioner must also find that the applicant has not committed an act that would justify refusal, suspension, or revocation of a license; has paid the applicable fees; and has passed the required examination for the requested line of authority unless an examination exemption applies.
A life and health producer must hold the appropriate line or lines of authority before selling, soliciting, or negotiating those classes of insurance. Nevada separately identifies life insurance and accident-and-health insurance as producer authorities. A producer must also comply with renewal, continuing education, appointment, recordkeeping, and reporting requirements as applicable.
A business organization may also be licensed as a producer, but it must designate a properly licensed natural person who is authorized to transact business on its behalf and is responsible for the organization’s compliance with Nevada insurance laws and regulations. Licensing is therefore not merely a test-passing event; it is an ongoing regulatory responsibility.
For examination purposes, remember the basic resident-producer requirements: age 18 or older, proper application, fees, good character and eligibility, and examination success unless exempt.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Nevada Producer Licensing; Resident Producer Requirements; Lines of Authority; License Application; NRS 683A.251.
If coverage has stayed in force with the same insurance company, what is the maximum number of years for which reconstructive surgery (mastectomy) benefits must be provided?
Options:
1
3
5
7
Answer:
BExplanation:
If reconstructive surgery is begun within three years after a mastectomy, the amount of benefits for that surgery must equal the amount provided by the policy at the time of the mastectomy. Therefore, the tested maximum period is three years.
Nevada requires a policy that covers mastectomy to provide commensurate coverage for reconstruction of the breast on which the mastectomy was performed, surgery and reconstruction of the other breast to create symmetry, prostheses, and treatment of physical complications of all stages of mastectomy, including lymphedema. The attending physician and patient determine the appropriate care.
The three-year rule protects an insured from losing the original level of reconstruction benefits merely because reconstruction is delayed. If surgery begins more than three years after the mastectomy, benefits are governed by the policy terms, conditions, and exclusions in effect at the time reconstructive surgery begins.
This question does not ask how long all reconstruction coverage disappears. It tests the period during which the policy must preserve the benefit amount available at the time of mastectomy.
Study Guide references/topics: mastectomy coverage; reconstructive surgery; breast reconstruction; mandated health benefits; NRS 689B.0375 .
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In order for a health insurance producer to be an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF), the producer:
Options:
can receive commissions from the company in addition to the compensation as a facilitator
can receive both commission and compensation as a facilitator
must surrender the producer ' s license and apply for an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator license
can offer advice to consumers resulting in the " steering " of the selection of coverage
Answer:
CExplanation:
A person may not concurrently hold a Nevada producer license and an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator certificate. Therefore, a health insurance producer who wishes to become an EEF must surrender the producer authority and apply for certification as an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator.
An EEF assists consumers with enrollment in qualified health plans offered through the Exchange. The role is designed to provide objective enrollment help, application assistance, and general information. An EEF may not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance. The EEF also may not receive consideration from a health insurance issuer or insurer in connection with enrollment and may not receive remuneration arising from EEF activities from a licensed producer, insurance consultant, surplus lines broker, or insurer.
For that reason, a producer cannot receive commissions while acting as an EEF, cannot collect both commission and EEF compensation in the manner described, and cannot steer a consumer toward a particular coverage choice. Producers and EEFs have different legal roles, compensation structures, and consumer-protection limitations.
Study Guide references/topics: Exchange Enrollment Facilitators; producer licensing; prohibited acts; compensation; NRS 695J.210 .
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Under a Medicare Supplement policy that is issued in response to a direct solicitation, a policyowner may return the policy to the insurance company for a full premium refund within a MAXIMUM of how many days?
Options:
Ten
Thirty
Forty-five
Sixty
Answer:
BExplanation:
A Medicare Supplement policy issued in response to direct solicitation may be returned for a full premium refund within 30 days. This is commonly called a free-look or right-to-return period. It gives the policyowner time to examine the policy after delivery and decide whether the coverage is suitable.
Direct solicitation presents a heightened consumer-protection concern because the purchaser may not have received the same personal explanation and comparison assistance available in a face-to-face sale. The 30-day period allows the consumer to review benefits, exclusions, premiums, Medicare coordination, replacement implications, and suitability without financial penalty.
The policyowner should return the policy within the required period and follow the insurer’s return instructions. Once timely returned, the insurer must refund the premium in accordance with the applicable rule. The free-look right does not mean that every policy can be cancelled at any time for a complete refund; it is a specific statutory or regulatory rescission period following delivery.
Ten, 45, and 60 days are common distractors because various insurance rules use different deadlines. For Medicare Supplement direct-solicitation policies, the tested maximum period is 30 days.
Study Guide references/topics: Medicare Supplement insurance; direct solicitation; free-look period; consumer protections; Nevada Medicare Supplement regulations .
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the Medicaid program?
Options:
It provides medical assistance for participants who are blind.
Participants must be at least 55 years of age.
It is supplemented by Medicare for persons 62 years of age or older.
The program is administered at the federal level.
Answer:
AExplanation:
Medicaid is a means-tested public medical assistance program for eligible low-income individuals and families. Eligibility may include persons who are blind, disabled, aged, pregnant, children, or otherwise within an eligible category under federal and state rules. Therefore, choice A is correct. There is no universal minimum age of 55 for Medicaid eligibility; eligibility is based principally on financial and categorical requirements. Medicaid is also not simply a program supplemented by Medicare at age 62. Medicare eligibility is generally associated with age 65 or qualifying disability or disease status, while Medicaid may assist certain eligible persons with limited income and resources, including some Medicare beneficiaries. Medicaid is jointly financed by federal and state governments but is administered by the states within federal standards. In Nevada, the state administers the program through its designated health and human-services structure. Examination questions commonly test the distinction between Medicare as social insurance and Medicaid as needs-based medical assistance. Study Guide References/Topics: Social Insurance Programs; Medicaid; Federal-State Health Programs.
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An insured has a $1,000 deductible and then pays 20% of covered medical expenses, while the insurer pays 80%. What is the insured’s 20% share called?
Options:
Copayment
Coinsurance
Elimination period
Stop-loss benefit
Answer:
BExplanation:
Coinsurance is the percentage of covered expenses that the insured shares with the insurer after the deductible has been satisfied. In this question, the insured pays 20% and the insurer pays 80%; this is commonly described as 80/20 coinsurance. The deductible is separate. It is the amount the insured must pay before the insurer begins sharing covered expenses, subject to any services that the policy covers before the deductible.
A copayment is a fixed dollar amount paid for a covered service, such as a stated amount for a physician visit or prescription. It is not normally expressed as a percentage. An elimination period is a waiting period in disability-income insurance before benefits begin. A stop-loss feature, also called an out-of-pocket maximum in many plans, limits the insured’s covered cost sharing after a stated maximum has been reached, subject to plan rules.
Understanding these terms is essential when comparing health plans. A plan may have a lower premium but a higher deductible, greater coinsurance, or a larger out-of-pocket maximum. Producers must clearly explain the consumer’s potential financial responsibility and must not imply that the insurer pays every medical expense once a policy is issued.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Major Medical Insurance; Deductibles; Coinsurance; Copayments; Out-of-Pocket Maximums.
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Which of the following benefits are usually EXCLUDED or limited under a Long Term Care policy?
Options:
Hospice care
Home health care
Skilled nursing
Addictive behavior rehabilitation
Answer:
DExplanation:
Long-term care insurance is intended to provide benefits for qualified services needed because of chronic illness, cognitive impairment, or inability to perform activities of daily living. Typical covered settings and services include skilled nursing facilities, home health care, and hospice care, subject to the policy’s benefit triggers, elimination period, daily or monthly limits, and plan of care requirements. Therefore, choice D is correct. Treatment or rehabilitation for addictive behavior is commonly excluded or restricted because it is not ordinarily a qualifying l ong-term care service under the policy’s chronic-care purpose. Long-term care insurance is not the same as comprehensive medical insurance, disability income insurance, or substance-use treatment coverage. Before benefits become payable, the insured usually must be certified as chronically ill, often based on inability to perform at least two activities of daily living or severe cognitive impairment. Policies may cover institutional care, assisted living, adult day care, respite care, and home-based services, but each benefit is subject to contractual definitions and limits. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Long-Term Care Insurance; Long-Term Care Exclusions and Benefit Triggers.
Most insurance companies use the usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) charges to:
Options:
reimburse the employee for expenses charged by the medical facilities
reimburse physicians for excess expense
pay dollars direct to the employers for health insurance
limit the insurance company claims liability
Answer:
DExplanation:
Usual, customary, and reasonable charges are payment standards used to determine the portion of a medical charge that a health insurer recognizes as eligible for reimbursement. Choice D is correct because UCR standards limit the insurer’s claim liability to an amount considered appropriate for the service in the relevant geographic area. “Usual” refers to the fee commonly charged by a particular provider; “customary” refers to fees generally charged by comparable providers in the area; and “reasonable” considers the circumstances and complexity of the service. If a provider’s charge exceeds the plan’s allowed amount, the insurer may pay only the UCR amount, and the patient may remain responsible for the difference unless a network agreement or other policy provision prevents balance billing. UCR does not mean that insurers reimburse excess charges, pay funds to employers, or reimburse every amount billed by a medical facility. This concept is tested as a cost-control mechanism within medical expense coverage and should be distinguished from deductibles, coinsurance, copayments, and maximum benefit limits. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Medical Expense Insurance; Usual, Customary, and Reasonable Charges.
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A Major Medical policy insured is injured in an auto collision during a police chase. The occupants in the police car are killed. The insured is convicted of reckless driving and manslaughter. If the insured files a claim, the insurance company will MOST likely take which of the following actions?
Options:
Pay full benefits
Pay partial benefits
Deny the claim only
Deny the claim and return the premiums paid
Answer:
AExplanation:
Major medical coverage pays covered medical expenses resulting from accidental injury or sickness, subject to the policy’s stated exclusions and limitations. The facts establish reckless and criminal conduct, but they do not establish an intentional self-inflicted injury or identify a policy exclusion that removes coverage. Therefore, choice A is the best answer: the insurer will pay the covered benefits according to the policy. Insurance examination questions require careful separation of criminal conduct from intentional injury. Reckless driving and a resulting conviction do not automatically mean that the insured intended to injure himself. A health insurer may deny a claim only when a valid policy exclusion, limitation, misrepresentation defense, or other contract basis applies. The insurer does not reduce benefits merely to “partial benefits” because of the conviction, and it does not return all premiums after denying a properly covered accidental-injury claim. The controlling analysis is the policy language, including exclusions for intentional self-inflicted injury, war, occupational losses, or other listed circumstances. Study Guide References/Topics: Policy Provisions, Clauses, and Riders; Major Medical Insurance; Exclusions and Limitations.
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Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Business Overhead Expense insurance?
Options:
It can be obtained only by corporations.
It covers eligible expenses for staff, rent, and utilities.
It reimburses the policyowner for loss of income.
It covers eligible expenses for staff only.
Answer:
BExplanation:
Business Overhead Expense insurance reimburses a business for specified ongoing operating expenses when a business owner becomes disabled. Eligible expenses commonly include employee salaries, rent, utilities, office expenses, and other ordinary fixed costs identified in the policy. Accordingly, choice B is correct. The purpose is business continuity: it helps keep the office or practice operating during the owner’s disability rather than replacing the owner’s personal income. A disability income policy, not Business Overhead Expense insurance, is the product intended to replace an individual’s lost earned income. The coverage is not restricted to corporations; it may be appropriate for sole proprietors, partners, and owners of closely held businesses, depending on underwriting and policy eligibility. It also is not limited to staff expenses alone, because rent, utilities, and other contractually covered overhead are central components of the protection. Benefits are generally limited by the actual covered overhead incurred and the policy’s monthly benefit amount. Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Disability Income Insurance; Business Overhead Expense Coverage.
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What is the primary purpose of a waiver-of-premium rider on a life insurance policy?
Options:
It eliminates all future policy loans.
It waives required premiums if the insured becomes totally disabled as defined by the rider.
It guarantees a higher death benefit every year.
It converts term insurance automatically into whole life insurance.
Answer:
BExplanation:
A waiver-of-premium rider keeps qualifying life insurance coverage in force by waiving required premiums when the insured becomes totally disabled as defined in the rider. The rider protects against the risk that disability will interrupt income and make premium payments unaffordable. Once the rider’s requirements are satisfied, the insurer pays or waives the premium according to the policy terms, allowing the coverage and any applicable cash-value features to continue.
The definition of total disability, the waiting period, the age limitation, proof-of-disability requirements, and the duration of the waiver are contractual matters. The rider does not usually mean that premiums are waived for every illness, injury, or temporary work interruption. The insured must meet the stated definition and provide required evidence. Some riders also require that disability begin before a specified age.
This rider should not be confused with disability-income insurance. Disability income pays a periodic benefit to replace a portion of income. Waiver of premium does not provide an income payment; it protects the life policy from lapse due to qualifying disability. It also differs from a payor-benefit rider, which is commonly used with juvenile policies and protects the policy when the premium-paying adult dies or becomes disabled.
References/topics from the Study Guide: Waiver of Premium Rider; Total Disability; Disability Income; Payor Benefit Rider; Policy Continuation.
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For which of the following losses would an insurance company MOST likely pay benefits under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?
Options:
Loss of life due to a heart attack
Loss of eyesight due to an accidental injury
Loss of the spleen due to an accidental injury
Partial paralysis due to a stroke
Answer:
BExplanation:
Choice B is correct because accidental loss of eyesight is a standard covered dismemberment loss under most AD & D policies. These policies pay benefits for accidental death and for specifically listed losses, often including loss of life, both hands, both feet, one h and and one foot, sight in one or both eyes, hearing, speech, or specified paralysis. The loss must result directly from accidental bodily injury and occur within the policy’s required loss period. Death from a heart attack is generally illness-related rather than accidental. Loss of the spleen, even when caused by an accident, is not usually one of the specifically scheduled losses in a basic AD & D policy. Partial paralysis due to a stroke is caused by illness rather than accidental injury. AD & D policies are limited-benefit contracts, so the policy does not pay merely because an injury is serious; the loss must match the policy’s defined covered loss. The benefit amount varies according to the loss, with full principal sums often payable for death or loss of both eyes and smaller percentages for certain partial losses. Study Guide References/Topics: Types of Health Insurance Policies; Accidental Death and Dismemberment; Covered Losses.
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Which of the following persons is NOT required to be licensed by the Nevada Insurance Commissioner?
Options:
An adjuster’s employee who assists in the investigation and settlement of insurance claims
A person who procures insurance for an insured
A salaried insurance company employee who performs clerical and administrative work
A salaried insurance agency clerk who also receives commissions on applications the clerk processes
Answer:
CExplanation:
A salaried insurance company employee performing only clerical and administrative work is not required to hold an insurance producer license. The exemption applies when the employee does not sell, solicit, or negotiate insurance and is not compensated by commission based on insurance transactions.
Licensing is required for persons whose activities bring them into the regulated functions of insurance production, brokering, adjusting, or other licensed insurance activity. A person who procures insurance for an insured is acting in a producer or broker capacity and requires appropriate authority. An individual involved in investigating and settling claims may require an adjuster license depending on the duties performed. Likewise, an agency clerk who receives commissions related to processed applications is no longer functioning solely as a clerical employee; commission-based activity indicates involvement in the insurance transaction.
The distinction is based on the actual work performed, not merely the person’s job title. A company may call someone an assistant, representative, clerk, or customer-service employee, but the individual must be licensed if the person sells, solicits, negotiates, or otherwise performs regulated insurance functions.
Study Guide references/topics: producer licensing; licensing exemptions; clerical employees; sales, solicitation, and negotiation; NRS 683A.117 .
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R, a self-employed stockbroker, becomes totally disabled on January 1 and receives $1,500 a month for the next twelve months from her own Individual Disability Income policy, for which she had paid the premium. How much of this income is subject to federal income tax?
Options:
$18,000
$12,800
$9,000
$0
Answer:
DExplanation:
The correct answer is D, $0. Disability income benefits generally are not taxable to the insured when the insured personally paid the premiums with after-tax dollars. R paid the premium for her own individual disability income policy, so the $1,500 monthly benefit is excluded from federal taxable income. The total annual benefit is $18,000, but the fact that it totals $18,000 does not make it taxable. Tax treatment changes when an employer pays the premium and does not include that premium amount in the employee’s taxable income; in that case, disability benefits are generally taxable. Similarly, benefits can be taxable when premiums were paid through certain pre-tax arrangements. The central exam rule is: personally paid, after-tax disability premiums normally produce income-tax-free disability benefits. The Internal Revenue Service confirms that benefits from an accident or health policy are not taxable when the taxpayer paid the premiums. See IRS Publication 525 . Study Guide References/Topics: Taxation and Business Uses of Health Insurance; Disability Income Insurance; Tax Treatment of Disability Benefits.
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