Weekend Special - 75% Discount Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: w75best

Insurance Licensing InsNV_Health02 Dumps

NV Accident and Health Questions and Answers

Question 1

A producer who makes misleading policy comparisons for the purpose of inducing an insured to surrender an existing policy is guilty of:

Options:

A.

rebating

B.

coercion

C.

twisting

D.

defamation

Question 2

In a typical HMO arrangement, what is the primary role of the primary care provider?

Options:

A.

To coordinate routine care and referrals under the plan’s rules

B.

To sell insurance policies to other patients

C.

To guarantee that all out-of-network care is covered

D.

To determine the insurer’s investment return

Question 3

According to Nevada law, an authorized insurer is BEST defined as:

Options:

A.

any insurer with minimum assets as required by this state

B.

an insurer with a certificate of authority issued by the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)

C.

an insurer with a certificate of authority issued by the Insurance Commissioner of Nevada

D.

an insurer authorized under a certificate of authority issued by the Governor of Nevada

Question 4

Which statement best describes a group life conversion privilege?

Options:

A.

It allows an insured leaving the group to obtain individual coverage without evidence of insurability, subject to the policy terms.

B.

It allows the employer to convert all employees into beneficiaries.

C.

It guarantees that the group premium will never increase.

D.

It transfers the employee’s group policy cash value to a retirement account.

Question 5

Which statement best describes a preferred provider organization (PPO)?

Options:

A.

It requires all care to be obtained only from government hospitals.

B.

It generally provides greater benefits when members use participating providers but may allow nonnetwork care at a reduced benefit level.

C.

It pays only a fixed daily hospital benefit.

D.

It has no deductible, coinsurance, or utilization-management features.

Question 6

The Misstatement of Age provision in an Accident and Health policy allows an insurance company to take which of the following actions if an insured has understated the insured ' s age on the policy application?

Options:

A.

Increase the premium

B.

Adjust the benefits

C.

Lapse the coverage

D.

Cancel the policy

Question 7

Under federal law, a tax exempt Health Savings Account can only be opened for an individual who is:

Options:

A.

covered by a qualified High Deductible Health Plan

B.

covered by Long Term Care Insurance

C.

entitled to Medicare benefits

D.

eligible to be claimed as a dependent on another person ' s tax return

Question 8

The Nevada Insurance Commissioner may revoke the license of any licensed producer who:

Options:

A.

is found liable by final judgment in a civil case

B.

fails to file an annual financial report with the Division of Insurance

C.

fails to notify the Commissioner of a change of address within forty-eight hours

D.

misappropriates monies belonging to policyholders

Question 9

In a cross-purchase buy-sell agreement funded by life insurance, who typically owns the policy on each business owner?

Options:

A.

The business entity owns every policy.

B.

Each owner owns policies on the other owners.

C.

The insured owner’s children own the policy.

D.

The producer owns the policy until death occurs.

Question 10

Which type of health insurance is designed primarily to reimburse medical expenses such as hospital, surgical, and physician charges?

Options:

A.

Medical expense insurance

B.

Disability income insurance

C.

Accidental death insurance

D.

Credit life insurance

Question 11

Which statement is true of a variable life insurance policy?

Options:

A.

The policyowner bears no investment risk.

B.

The cash value is held only in the insurer’s general account.

C.

The cash value may fluctuate with separate-account investment performance.

D.

The policy is always a temporary term policy.

Question 12

An insured who owns a Disability Income policy forgot to pay the premium due on July 1. If the insured files a disability claim on July 31, the insurance company will MOST likely:

Options:

A.

deny the claim

B.

pay the claim but deduct the unpaid premium

C.

reinstate the policy and then pay the claim

D.

cancel the policy and return all premiums paid

Question 13

Medicaid is best described as:

Options:

A.

A federal retirement program funded only by payroll taxes

B.

A joint federal-state program that provides medical assistance to eligible individuals

C.

A private insurance policy sold by producers

D.

A Medicare supplement insurance plan

Question 14

One key distinction between producers and Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF) is producers:

Options:

A.

can recommend a health plan for a consumer

B.

can explain insurance terms like copayments and deductibles

C.

can answer questions regarding program eligibility

D.

are compensated monetarily

Question 15

An incorporated licensee who seeks to do business under a fictitious name is required to file a document about the name with the:

Options:

A.

National Association of Health Underwriters

B.

Nevada Insurance Commissioner

C.

National Association of Insurance and Financial Advisors

D.

Nevada Attorney General ' s office

Question 16

A client needs a $250,000 death benefit for exactly 20 years to protect a home mortgage. The client wants the lowest practical initial premium and does not need cash-value accumulation. Which policy is most appropriate?

Options:

A.

Whole life insurance

B.

Level term life insurance

C.

Variable life insurance

D.

Universal life insurance

Question 17

Which premium-payment mode usually results in the lowest total annual premium cost for the policyowner?

Options:

A.

Monthly

B.

Quarterly

C.

Semiannual

D.

Annual

Question 18

A producer aggrieved by any regulation or order of the Insurance Commissioner may request:

Options:

A.

an administrative hearing

B.

injunctive relief through the Secretary of State

C.

legislative review of the case

D.

peer review of the case

Question 19

A life policy lapses because a premium was not paid. To reinstate the policy, the insurer will generally require all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Evidence of insurability

B.

Payment of overdue premiums with interest

C.

A new medical examination in every case

D.

Reinstatement within the policy’s permitted time limit

Question 20

An Outline of Coverage for Medicare Supplement policies must be provided to a prospective insured at which of the following times?

Options:

A.

When the policy is delivered

B.

At the time of application

C.

When the premium is paid

D.

At the time a claim is submitted

Question 21

A policyowner names two children as beneficiaries “per stirpes.” If one child dies before the insured but leaves children, how are that deceased child’s share and the surviving child’s share handled?

Options:

A.

The surviving child receives all proceeds.

B.

The deceased child’s share passes to the insurer.

C.

The deceased child’s descendants receive that child’s share.

D.

The estate of the deceased child automatically receives all proceeds.

Question 22

Which of the following statements is correct about the Coordination of Benefits provision?

Options:

A.

It prohibits an insurer from selling a health policy to an applicant who already has similar coverage.

B.

It prevents an insured covered by two health plans from making a profit on a covered loss.

C.

It allows an insured to change insurers without losing benefits.

D.

It permits an insurer to defer paying a claim for a work-related injury until Workers ' Compensation Benefits have expired.

Question 23

Under a typical coordination-of-benefits rule, a child is covered under both parents’ group health plans. Which plan is generally primary when the parents are married and neither plan contains an exception?

Options:

A.

The plan of the parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year

B.

The plan with the highest deductible

C.

The plan that began most recently

D.

The plan selected by the child each year

Question 24

Which of the following statements is generally CORRECT about a major medical policy?

Options:

A.

It provides benefits for in-hospital expenses only, subject to policy limits.

B.

It contains more limitations than a Basic Hospital, Medical, or Surgical policy.

C.

It contains a 30-day Elimination period for losses due to sickness.

D.

It provides benefits for reasonable and necessary medical expenses, subject to policy limits.

Question 25

Which person is generally eligible to establish and contribute to a health savings account (HSA)?

Options:

A.

A person enrolled in any health plan with no deductible

B.

A person covered by a qualified high-deductible health plan and meeting other eligibility requirements

C.

A person enrolled in Medicare Part A

D.

A person claimed as another taxpayer’s dependent

Question 26

What is the minimum age requirement for a natural person applying for a resident Nevada producer license?

Options:

A.

16 years old

B.

18 years old

C.

21 years old

D.

25 years old

Question 27

If coverage has stayed in force with the same insurance company, what is the maximum number of years for which reconstructive surgery (mastectomy) benefits must be provided?

Options:

A.

1

B.

3

C.

5

D.

7

Question 28

In order for a health insurance producer to be an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator (EEF), the producer:

Options:

A.

can receive commissions from the company in addition to the compensation as a facilitator

B.

can receive both commission and compensation as a facilitator

C.

must surrender the producer ' s license and apply for an Exchange Enrollment Facilitator license

D.

can offer advice to consumers resulting in the " steering " of the selection of coverage

Question 29

Under a Medicare Supplement policy that is issued in response to a direct solicitation, a policyowner may return the policy to the insurance company for a full premium refund within a MAXIMUM of how many days?

Options:

A.

Ten

B.

Thirty

C.

Forty-five

D.

Sixty

Question 30

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about the Medicaid program?

Options:

A.

It provides medical assistance for participants who are blind.

B.

Participants must be at least 55 years of age.

C.

It is supplemented by Medicare for persons 62 years of age or older.

D.

The program is administered at the federal level.

Question 31

An insured has a $1,000 deductible and then pays 20% of covered medical expenses, while the insurer pays 80%. What is the insured’s 20% share called?

Options:

A.

Copayment

B.

Coinsurance

C.

Elimination period

D.

Stop-loss benefit

Question 32

Which of the following benefits are usually EXCLUDED or limited under a Long Term Care policy?

Options:

A.

Hospice care

B.

Home health care

C.

Skilled nursing

D.

Addictive behavior rehabilitation

Question 33

Most insurance companies use the usual, customary, and reasonable (UCR) charges to:

Options:

A.

reimburse the employee for expenses charged by the medical facilities

B.

reimburse physicians for excess expense

C.

pay dollars direct to the employers for health insurance

D.

limit the insurance company claims liability

Question 34

A Major Medical policy insured is injured in an auto collision during a police chase. The occupants in the police car are killed. The insured is convicted of reckless driving and manslaughter. If the insured files a claim, the insurance company will MOST likely take which of the following actions?

Options:

A.

Pay full benefits

B.

Pay partial benefits

C.

Deny the claim only

D.

Deny the claim and return the premiums paid

Question 35

Which of the following statements is CORRECT about Business Overhead Expense insurance?

Options:

A.

It can be obtained only by corporations.

B.

It covers eligible expenses for staff, rent, and utilities.

C.

It reimburses the policyowner for loss of income.

D.

It covers eligible expenses for staff only.

Question 36

What is the primary purpose of a waiver-of-premium rider on a life insurance policy?

Options:

A.

It eliminates all future policy loans.

B.

It waives required premiums if the insured becomes totally disabled as defined by the rider.

C.

It guarantees a higher death benefit every year.

D.

It converts term insurance automatically into whole life insurance.

Question 37

For which of the following losses would an insurance company MOST likely pay benefits under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?

Options:

A.

Loss of life due to a heart attack

B.

Loss of eyesight due to an accidental injury

C.

Loss of the spleen due to an accidental injury

D.

Partial paralysis due to a stroke

Question 38

Which of the following persons is NOT required to be licensed by the Nevada Insurance Commissioner?

Options:

A.

An adjuster’s employee who assists in the investigation and settlement of insurance claims

B.

A person who procures insurance for an insured

C.

A salaried insurance company employee who performs clerical and administrative work

D.

A salaried insurance agency clerk who also receives commissions on applications the clerk processes

Question 39

R, a self-employed stockbroker, becomes totally disabled on January 1 and receives $1,500 a month for the next twelve months from her own Individual Disability Income policy, for which she had paid the premium. How much of this income is subject to federal income tax?

Options:

A.

$18,000

B.

$12,800

C.

$9,000

D.

$0

Page: 1 / 13
Total 130 questions