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Insurance Licensing Life-Producer Dumps

Maryland Life Producer Exam (Series 20-27) Questions and Answers

Question 1

One feature that distinguishes a continuous premium whole life policy from a limited payment whole life policy is:

Options:

A.

The length of time premiums will be paid

B.

The settlement options available

C.

The mortality table from which premiums are calculated

D.

The form in which dividends are paid

Question 2

When a wage earner dies, the surviving family members may have all of the following expenses EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Final expenses

B.

Unemployment tax liabilities

C.

Family living expenses

D.

Death taxes

Question 3

Which activity requires an individual to be licensed as an adviser, rather than as a producer?

Options:

A.

Giving advice on policy coverages to an insured

B.

Charging a fee for contracted insurance advisory services

C.

Receiving commissions from an insurance company

D.

Binding insurance coverage with licensed insurers

Question 4

(Which of the following best describes a renewable term life insurance policy?)

Options:

A.

It is always terminated at the end of the term period.

B.

It will convert to a whole life contract after the end of the term period.

C.

It is renewable after evidence of insurability but at the same premium.

D.

It is renewable without evidence of insurability, but with the premium based on attained age.

Question 5

Which of the following statements about participating life insurance is true?

Options:

A.

Policyowners may be entitled to receive dividends.

B.

Policyowners are assessed monthly for losses.

C.

The insured must be the policyowner.

D.

The insurer must be a stock company.

Question 6

Anything of value given to produce a contract is the definition of:

Options:

A.

A grant

B.

A codicil

C.

A consideration

D.

A covenant

Question 7

All of the following are reasons for a business organization to purchase key person life insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The loss of leadership resulting from the key person’s death

B.

The reduction of profits resulting from the key person’s death

C.

The loss of new business resulting from the key person’s death

D.

The increased pension liability resulting from the key person’s death

Question 8

Publishing a derogatory article about the financial condition of an insurer that is false and calculated to injure the insurer is an example of:

Options:

A.

Defamation

B.

Intimidation

C.

Extortion

D.

Coercion

Question 9

All of the following are true of managing general agents EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

It is unlawful to act as a managing general agent without a license

B.

Once issued, a managing general agent’s license must be renewed every two years

C.

A managing general agent must have a valid written contract with an insurance company

D.

A managing general agent is primarily a representative of the insured

Question 10

A life insurance policy becomes incontestable after it has been in force for:

Options:

A.

30 days

B.

6 months

C.

2 years

D.

3 years

Question 11

To have "an insurable interest" in the life of another person, an individual must have a reasonable expectation of:

Options:

A.

Gaining economically by the death of the other person

B.

Continuing on good terms with the other person

C.

Benefiting from the other person’s continued life

D.

Seeing the other person survive to normal life expectancy

Question 12

Which life annuity contract feature provides that benefit payments will continue for a minimum number of years regardless of when the annuitant dies?

Options:

A.

Cost recovery

B.

Period certain

C.

Cash refund

D.

Installment refund

Question 13

An order from the Commissioner MUST include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Its effective date

B.

Its purpose

C.

The grounds on which it is based

D.

The signature of the Governor

Question 14

The designation of a beneficiary by class in a life insurance policy means that:

Options:

A.

The policy must be a form of business life insurance

B.

A primary beneficiary cannot be designated in the policy

C.

Individual beneficiaries are not specified by name

D.

The beneficiaries are unrelated to the insured

Question 15

Which contract offers flexible deposits, deferred taxation, a guaranteed minimum interest rate, and death proceeds equal to the cash value?

Options:

A.

An adjustable whole life insurance policy

B.

Available deferred annuity

C.

A flexible premium fixed annuity

D.

A universal life insurance policy

Question 16

An applicant for life insurance must be informed that testing for Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) infection is used to help determine:

Options:

A.

The type of policy that will be issued

B.

The effective date and term of coverage

C.

Whether an insurable interest exists

D.

The insurability of the proposed insured

Question 17

A transaction in which an existing annuity contract is terminated and a new one is issued is called:

Options:

A.

Conversion

B.

Continuation

C.

Replacement

D.

Reinstatement

Question 18

Under which of the following circumstances may a class designation of beneficiary in life insurance be used?

Options:

A.

To name the insured’s children as beneficiaries without naming them individually

B.

To donate insurance proceeds to a specific organization or charity

C.

To set up a trust fund for the insured’s children

D.

To name a specific beneficiary to receive the proceeds on behalf of a group

Question 19

The amount received for a life insurance policy in a viatical settlement is:

Options:

A.

Equal to the sum of all premiums paid

B.

Equal to the death benefit

C.

Greater than the death benefit

D.

Less than the death benefit

Question 20

(If all beneficiaries die before the insured dies, the proceeds of a life insurance policy will be paid to:)

Options:

A.

The insured’s creditors

B.

A beneficiary named by the court

C.

The insured’s estate

D.

The beneficiary’s estate

Question 21

Which federal government agency enforces the securities laws enacted by Congress?

Options:

A.

The Variable Investment Commission

B.

The Securities Investment Commission

C.

The Securities and Exchange Commission

D.

The National Securities Regulatory Commission

Question 22

One purpose of the notice relating to information practices is to:

Options:

A.

Request specific information from the applicant

B.

Provide the personal information to the applicant as it is being gathered

C.

Describe to the applicant the methods used in gathering information

D.

Allow the applicant to prohibit collection of certain information

Question 23

Which of the following reinforces the rule that ambiguities in insurance contracts should be interpreted in favor of the policyholder?

Options:

A.

Representation

B.

Reasonable expectations

C.

Retention

D.

Retrocession

Question 24

The purpose of regulation of insurance advertising is to do all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Establish minimum standards of conduct

B.

Prevent unfair competition among insurers

C.

Maintain a low profile for insurance products

D.

Present an accurate description of insurance to the public

Question 25

The needs approach in life insurance is most useful in determining:

Options:

A.

Which types of individuals the producer should attempt to meet

B.

The amount of life insurance to be recommended to a client

C.

Which companies offer the best array of life insurance products

D.

The most appropriate method for prospecting new clients

Question 26

Which concept states that the insured is entitled to the coverage under a policy that a sensible and prudent buyer would expect it to provide?

Options:

A.

Indemnity

B.

Comity

C.

Reasonable expectations

D.

Subrogation

Question 27

A producer who attempts to intimidate a prospective insured is guilty of:

Options:

A.

Defamation

B.

Coercion

C.

Twisting

D.

Discrimination

Question 28

A valid contract requires all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Offer and acceptance

B.

Competent parties

C.

Consideration

D.

Written evidence

Question 29

A policy of life insurance may NOT be delivered unless the policy has a:

Options:

A.

Legible and brief description of the policy on the first page

B.

Notary seal

C.

Premium coupon book

D.

Financial statement of the life insurance company

Question 30

All of the following are exclusions or restrictions sometimes found in life insurance policies EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Suicide

B.

Accidental death

C.

Aviation

D.

War

Question 31

A producer who makes an incomplete comparison of policies to encourage an insured to cancel a contract of another insurer and purchase a new one is guilty of:

Options:

A.

Rebating

B.

Coercion

C.

Twisting

D.

Defamation

Question 32

Which one of the following life insurance policies is written to insure two or more individuals with the face amount payable upon the death of the first insured?

Options:

A.

Modified life

B.

Joint and survivorship

C.

Convertible term

D.

Joint life

Question 33

(If Kim applies for a life insurance policy on Kim’s own life and names Chris to receive the death benefit:)

Options:

A.

Kim is the insured and the beneficiary.

B.

Kim is the policyowner and the applicant.

C.

Chris is the policyowner and the insured.

D.

Chris is the applicant and the beneficiary.

Question 34

An insurer may refuse to underwrite a particular insurance applicant for a reason based wholly on:

Options:

A.

Medical condition

B.

Race

C.

Gender

D.

Creed

Question 35

In the event of a death claim under a life insurance policy, what happens to the amount of any existing policy loan?

Options:

A.

It is deducted from the face amount of the policy together with any interest due.

B.

The beneficiary has an obligation to pay the amount to the insurance company.

C.

It represents a primary claim against the estate of the insured.

D.

It is canceled, and the beneficiary receives the face amount of the policy.

Question 36

Which contract offers flexible deposits, deferred taxation, a guaranteed minimum interest rate, and death proceeds equal to the cash value?

Options:

A.

An adjustable whole life insurance policy

B.

An available deferred annuity

C.

A flexible premium fixed annuity

D.

A universal life insurance policy

Question 37

How often must insurance licensees subject to continuing education meet the educational requirements?

Options:

A.

Each year

B.

Every two years

C.

Every three years

D.

There is no requirement

Question 38

The annual addition to an employee's account in a qualified retirement plan:

Options:

A.

Can be any amount as determined by the employer from year to year

B.

Must be the same dollar amount for every full-time employee

C.

Cannot exceed maximum limits set by the Internal Revenue Service

D.

Usually reflects the employee's individual work performance each year

Question 39

The owner’s cost basis in a non-qualified deferred annuity is usually equal to the:

Options:

A.

Opportunity cost

B.

Total premiums paid

C.

Guaranteed cash value

D.

Actual cash value

Question 40

When delivering a life insurance policy, a producer’s responsibilities may include all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Explaining a non-standard rating

B.

Reviewing policy riders

C.

Collecting the premium payment

D.

Cashing the insured’s premium check

Question 41

All of the following are underwriting criteria for individual life insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Gender

B.

Religion

C.

Occupation

D.

Ability to pay premiums

Question 42

Which of the following statements about the contestability of a life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

The policy cannot be contested by the insurer once it is paid for and issued

B.

The policy can be contested by the insurer only during the first two years of the contract

C.

The policy can be contested by the insurer at all times

D.

The policy can be contested only if the insured is convicted of a felony

Question 43

(If a producer misleads or fails to adequately disclose the title and true nature of a policy offered to a potential insured, it may be considered:)

Options:

A.

Defamation

B.

Unfair discrimination

C.

Misrepresentation

D.

Coercion

Question 44

Fixed annuities credit interest at a rate no lower than the:

Options:

A.

Expected renewal interest rate

B.

Contract guaranteed rate

C.

Current prime rate

D.

Front-end load rate

Question 45

The penalty tax incurred for premature distributions from an IRA is:

Options:

A.

5%

B.

10%

C.

20%

D.

50%

Question 46

The income benefits distributed during the payout phase of an annuity contract are normally payable to:

Options:

A.

The owner

B.

The beneficiary

C.

The nominator

D.

The annuitant

Question 47

Which one of the following statements about the automatic premium loan (APL) provision in a life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

It is a required provision that provides for the purchase of additional insurance at guaranteed rates

B.

It provides for a series of bank loans to finance the purchase of split-dollar life insurance

C.

It waives policy premiums if the policyowner becomes totally and permanently disabled

D.

It provides for a policy loan to pay any premium not paid by the end of the grace period

Question 48

An insurance producer's license may be suspended or revoked by:

Options:

A.

The appointing insurer

B.

The continuing education course provider

C.

The Maryland Insurance Administration

D.

The Attorney General

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Total 90 questions