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Insurance Licensing Virginia-Life-Annuities-and-Health-Insurance Dumps

Virginia Life, Annuities, and Health Insurance Examination Series 11-01 Questions and Answers

Question 1

If an insurer pays an individual health insurance claim during a policy’s grace period:

Options:

A.

The deductible is waived

B.

A 10% service fee is charged

C.

The policy is canceled automatically at the end of the grace period

D.

The amount of unpaid premium may be subtracted from the reimbursement

Question 2

An insured has a $35,000 whole life insurance policy with the full $16,000 cash value available. The amount of insurance available to the insured under the extended term insurance nonforfeiture option of this policy is:

Options:

A.

$16,000

B.

$19,000

C.

$35,000

D.

$51,000

Question 3

When there is a misstatement of age by an applicant for a disability income policy:

Options:

A.

Any amount payable will be the amount of coverage the premium would have purchased at the insured’s correct age.

B.

The insurer is not liable for any claims made during the period before correction of the insured’s age.

C.

The company will cancel the policy immediately upon discovery of the misstatement of age.

D.

The policy will be void from its inception because of the insured’s misrepresentation.

Question 4

(An example of a beneficiary designation by class is:)

Options:

A.

All children of the insured

B.

A specified parent of the insured

C.

A named shareholder of a corporation

D.

The estate of the insured

Question 5

How much tax is withheld from funds that are transferred directly from one IRA to another IRA?

Options:

A.

15%

B.

None

Question 6

Which of the following statements regarding the renewal of a Medicare supplement policy is in accordance with Virginia regulations?

Options:

A.

Each policy is guaranteed to be renewable.

B.

Each policy is subject to an annual administrative fee to be paid prior to renewal.

C.

An individual must obtain an annual physical which meets specific health requirements to have the policy renewed.

D.

An individual has the option to renew the policy as long as the maximum annual coverage has not been met the previous year.

Question 7

(All employer-sponsored qualified retirement plans are generally required to open participation to any employee age 21 or over with a minimum of how many years of service?)

Options:

A.

1 year

B.

3 years

C.

5 years

D.

7 years

Question 8

If an individual health contract is issued on a conditionally renewable basis, the insurer has a right to refuse renewal:

Options:

A.

For any reason stated or unstated

B.

For specific reasons stated in the contract only

C.

Because of changes in the covered individual’s health status

D.

When losses for the policy period exceed premiums

Question 9

The injury or damage sustained by the insured is called:

Options:

A.

A claim

B.

A peril

C.

A loss

D.

An accident

Question 10

If a claim payment is delayed under a health policy, the insurer must pay:

Options:

A.

The claim proceeds ONLY

B.

Interest on the proceeds ONLY

C.

The claim proceeds plus interest

D.

A $1,000 penalty

Question 11

(All of the following statements about an adjustable life insurance policy are true EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

The policyowner may change the plan of coverage.

B.

It is designed to meet changing insurance needs.

C.

Evidence of insurability may be required when the amount of insurance is increased.

D.

The policyowner is not permitted to take policy loans even if the policy has a cash value.

Question 12

Which benefit is usually excluded from major medical plan coverage?

Options:

A.

Hospital expense

B.

Custodial care

C.

Physicians’ visits

D.

Surgical expense

Question 13

What is a condition for which medical advice or treatment was recommended by or received from a provider of health care service within six months preceding the effective date of an individual long-term care policy?

Options:

A.

Covered illness

B.

Pre-existing condition

C.

Long-term care condition

D.

Pre-determined risk

Question 14

Employer-paid premiums for qualified long-term care insurance are:

Options:

A.

Included in an employee’s gross income

B.

Deductible as a business expense

C.

Deductible on an employee’s federal income tax return

D.

Reimbursed by the employee

Question 15

(Life insurance death proceeds are generally:)

Options:

A.

Exempt from federal income tax

B.

Deemed to be a transfer for value

C.

Subject to the cost recovery rule

D.

Subject to the interest first rule

Question 16

When may a person insured under a group term insurance policy exercise the conversion option?

Options:

A.

Never, because group life insurance does not have a conversion privilege

B.

Anytime while insurable and still a member of the insured group

C.

Within 31 days after the person has terminated employment

D.

Anytime after the group contract has existed for five years

Question 17

(If an agent misleads a potential insured as to the terms of a policy, it may be considered:)

Options:

A.

Defamation

B.

Unfair discrimination

C.

Misrepresentation

D.

Coercion

Question 18

All of the following factors may be considered in individual health insurance underwriting EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Age

B.

Religion

C.

Sex

D.

Occupation

Question 19

(Agreements made by terminally ill persons to sell their life insurance policies at a discount in order to pay medical expenses are called:)

Options:

A.

Repurchase agreements

B.

Viatical settlements

C.

Nonforfeitures

D.

Living wills

Question 20

All of the following are underwriting criteria for individual life insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Gender

B.

Religion

C.

Occupation

D.

Ability to pay premiums

Question 21

A tax cost typically associated with death is:

Options:

A.

Life insurance proceeds tax

B.

Excise tax

C.

Federal estate tax

D.

State sales tax

Question 22

(Information regarding an individual's credit standing is contained in:)

Options:

A.

An agent's report

B.

A consumer report

C.

An attending physician's report

D.

An index bureau report

Question 23

An insurance agent who fails to handle premiums received in a trustworthy manner may be guilty of:

Options:

A.

Restraint of business

B.

Violation of the financial responsibility law

C.

Failure to supervise representatives

D.

Failure to act as a fiduciary

Question 24

Long-term care insurance policies may exclude coverage for all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

War and acts of war

B.

Alcohol and drug dependency

C.

Self-inflicted injury

D.

Senile dementia

Question 25

Disability resulting from which one of the following occurrences would be EXCLUDED under a disability income insurance policy providing ONLY nonoccupational coverage?

Options:

A.

The insured is injured while diving into a neighbor's swimming pool

B.

The insured is injured in an auto accident while on vacation

C.

The insured is injured in a commuter train crash while riding to work

D.

The insured trips while at work and breaks a leg

Question 26

An insurance contract that identifies individuals by relationship to a particular organization is called:

Options:

A.

Contributory insurance

B.

Group insurance

C.

Health insurance

D.

COBRA coverage

Question 27

An example of a comprehensive health policy is:

Options:

A.

A major medical policy

B.

A dental policy

C.

A vision policy

D.

A workers' compensation policy

Question 28

Monthly life annuity benefit payments received from a tax-sheltered annuity (TSA) are:

Options:

A.

Tax free to all recipients

B.

Tax free until the investment is recovered

C.

Taxed as ordinary income in the year received

D.

Tax free to the annuitant but taxable to the beneficiary

Question 29

Which of the following is commonly used to structure the payment of liability insurance settlements, lottery winnings, and other large sums?

Options:

A.

A modified endowment contract

B.

An individual retirement account

C.

A 403(b) tax-sheltered annuity

D.

An immediate annuity

Question 30

Which of the following terms may NOT be used in the advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance?

Options:

A.

Reductions

B.

Exclusions

C.

Pre-existing conditions

D.

Unlimited Benefits

Question 31

Needs analysis is a method of life insurance planning which:

Options:

A.

Identifies the needs of an individual and the individual’s dependents

B.

Eliminates the need for estimating future interest and inflation rates

C.

Requires the team effort of the agent and home office underwriter

D.

Ignores Social Security benefit payments

Question 32

Which is true about the conversion privilege in term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The policyowner may convert to another term policy of the insured’s choice

B.

The policyowner may convert to permanent life insurance on an attained age basis without evidence of insurability

C.

The policyowner may convert to an annuity at attained age rates only if evidence of insurability is provided

D.

The policyowner may obtain additional term insurance at issue age rates without evidence of insurability

Question 33

In addition to the applicant, who signs an application for health insurance?

Options:

A.

The applicant’s spouse

B.

The applicant’s dependents

C.

The inspection company representative

D.

The agent

Question 34

Paying the insured a portion of the agent's commission as an inducement to purchase insurance is an unfair trade practice called:

Options:

A.

Rebating

B.

Twisting

C.

Consortium

D.

Refunding

Question 35

The unwritten authority of an agent to perform incidental acts necessary to fulfill the purpose of the agency agreement is:

Options:

A.

Implied authority

B.

Mandated authority

C.

Express authority

D.

Nonexistent

Question 36

Which medical care benefits are emphasized in HMO plans?

Options:

A.

Alternative medicine

B.

Preventive care

C.

Emergency care

D.

Home health care

Question 37

All of the following statements about universal life insurance are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

A mortality charge is subtracted from the cash value accumulations each month

B.

The policy stipulates the amount that will be used for company expenses

C.

Death benefits are taxed as ordinary income

D.

Policy loans affect the amount of interest credited to the policy cash value

Question 38

In disability income insurance, when it can be shown that an individual would NOT suffer a substantial loss of income upon becoming disabled, an insurer will usually:

Options:

A.

Issue coverage at a standard rate

B.

Issue coverage at a preferred rate

C.

Issue coverage at a minimum rate

D.

Decline to issue coverage

Question 39

An unpaid policy loan may terminate a life insurance contract when the amount of the loan plus accrued interest exceeds the:

Options:

A.

Accumulated dividends

B.

Premiums paid

C.

Total cash value

D.

Face amount

Question 40

All changes and corrections made to an application for health insurance by an agent must be initialed by the:

Options:

A.

Agent

B.

Applicant

C.

Applicant’s physician

D.

Insurance company underwriter

Question 41

Which type of health insurance helps to pay for the cost of care in cases where hospitalization is not required but the individuals are unable to care for themselves?

Options:

A.

Medicare

B.

Long-term care

C.

Major medical

D.

Disability income

Question 42

Most individuals become eligible for Medicare at age:

Options:

A.

59

B.

62

C.

65

D.

70

Question 43

An agreement attached to a health insurance policy which alters either the terms of the policy or the coverage is called:

Options:

A.

A limit clause

B.

An attachment

C.

An insuring clause

D.

A rider

Question 44

False advertising regarding insurance policies would be found in all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Past dividends paid on a policy being exaggerated

B.

Benefits under a policy being misrepresented

C.

An insurance policy being represented as a share of stock

D.

Policy benefits being compared with a competitor's

Question 45

A health maintenance organization (HMO) member receives all preventive and routine medical care from the:

Options:

A.

Primary care physician

B.

Medical director

C.

Routine care physician

D.

Provider association

Question 46

(Which one of the following life insurance settlement options guarantees that benefits will be paid on a life-long basis to two or more people?)

Options:

A.

Life income with refund

B.

Life income with period certain

C.

Joint and survivor

D.

Life income only

Question 47

All of the following are advantages of whole life insurance EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Policy loans may be available

B.

Long-term protection is provided

C.

The initial cost of coverage is lower than for an equivalent amount of term insurance

D.

There is a cash value if the policy is terminated after a sufficient period of time

Question 48

Under IRS rules, a company normally may do all of the following with funds in a qualified retirement plan EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Invest in shares of common stocks

B.

Make allocations to participating shareholder-employees

C.

Distribute vested funds to employees who leave

D.

Repossess the funds for business purposes

Question 49

Which one of the following would entitle the beneficiary to receive benefits under accidental death and dismemberment insurance coverage?

Options:

A.

Death caused by a heart attack

B.

Death caused by a commercial airline crash

C.

Death caused by a stroke

D.

Death caused by suicide

Question 50

An insurance company that agrees to accept all or a portion of a risk covered by another insurance company is:

Options:

A.

An excess and surplus lines insurer

B.

A fraternal association

C.

A reinsurance company

D.

A captive company

Question 51

(An individual purchased an annuity contract with $100,000 received in settlement of a lawsuit. No further purchase payments are permitted and benefit payments are to start in 17 years. The contract is:)

Options:

A.

An individual life annuity

B.

An individual retirement annuity (IRA)

C.

A retirement annuity

D.

A single premium deferred annuity

Question 52

In long-term care insurance, ADLs normally include:

Options:

A.

Age, sex, income, and occupation

B.

Physicians, surgeons, dentists, and optometrists

C.

Spouse, children, parents, and siblings

D.

Dressing, eating, bathing, and mobility

Question 53

All of the following statements about life annuities are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They provide for the systematic liquidation of a principal sum

B.

Benefit payments start after the annuitant's death

C.

They are a form of insurance since risk sharing is involved

D.

They can protect against outliving one's financial resources

Question 54

(How many lives are normally insured by a survivorship life insurance policy?)

Options:

A.

One

B.

Two

C.

Three

D.

Four

Question 55

(Who receives dividends in a mutual insurance company?)

Options:

A.

Policyholders

B.

Shareholders

C.

Beneficiaries

D.

Producers

Question 56

In long-term care insurance, the guarantee of insurability option provides the insured with the ability to:

Options:

A.

Purchase additional insurance at a later date

B.

Replace the policy at any time with one from a different insurer

C.

Extend coverage under the policy for the insured’s lifetime

D.

Keep the same premium for the entire contract period

Question 57

(What is the maximum percentage of total employee payroll that an employer may contribute to a profit-sharing plan?)

Options:

A.

25%

B.

28%

C.

30%

D.

33%

Question 58

Which is true about ownership of a deferred annuity contract?

Options:

A.

All of the participants in a group contract are part-owners

B.

Ownership rights are neither transferable nor assignable

C.

An owner may be the annuitant or the beneficiary or neither

D.

An owner’s rights take effect when the benefit payment phase begins

Question 59

The information which gives an insurer necessary personal data regarding an individual and helps determine whether the individual can be insured under an individual health insurance policy is contained in the:

Options:

A.

Enrollment form

B.

Policy schedule

C.

Application

D.

Agent’s statement

Question 60

The information which gives an insurer necessary personal data regarding an individual and helps determine whether the individual can be insured under an individual health insurance policy is contained in the:

Options:

A.

Enrollment form

B.

Policy schedule

C.

Application

D.

Agent's statement

Question 61

A spendthrift clause in a life insurance policy would have NO effect if the beneficiary receives the proceeds as:

Options:

A.

Fixed amount installments

B.

Fixed period installments

C.

Interest-only payments

D.

One lump sum payment

Question 62

When a health insurance policy provision is in conflict with the statutes of Virginia, it is:

Options:

A.

Declared void and removed from the policy

B.

Used as is until the policy renewal date

C.

Amended to conform to the minimum statutory requirements

D.

Amended to conform to the maximum statutory requirements

Question 63

The employer who receives and holds the insurance policy is known as the:

Options:

A.

Group director

B.

Benefit coordinator

C.

Master policyholder

D.

Policy beneficiary

Question 64

What is a situation or condition that increases the likelihood of an insured loss occurring?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Peril

C.

Exposure

D.

Risk

Question 65

(In which situation could the agent of an insurer be personally liable?)

Options:

A.

When the agent acts with an insurer’s oral but unwritten authority

B.

When the agent performs an act that is prohibited in the agency contract

C.

When the agent uses misleading sales material provided by the insurer

D.

Never, under any circumstances

Question 66

An individual or business entity conducting business under an assumed or fictitious name must notify the Bureau of Insurance either at the time the license application is filed or:

Options:

A.

Within 30 calendar days from the date the name is adopted

B.

Within 60 calendar days from when the first policy is sold under the assumed name

C.

At the time of license renewal

D.

30 days before the assumed name is no longer being used

Question 67

Who has the right to change the beneficiary of a health policy with a revocable beneficiary designation?

Options:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The beneficiary

C.

The insurer

D.

The agent

Question 68

All of the following statements about tax-sheltered annuities (TSAs) are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They are also known as 403(b) plans.

B.

Accumulation payments often come from voluntary salary reductions.

C.

The annuitant may have an individual account or contract.

D.

The investment gain each year is included in the participant's gross income.

Question 69

No existing agent’s license will be revoked until:

Options:

A.

The agent has been afforded a right to a hearing on the charges

B.

At least three violations have been incurred

C.

A jury has decided upon such action

D.

A cease and desist order has been issued

Question 70

How long does an agent have to report administrative actions by other states to the Bureau of Insurance?

Options:

A.

10 days

B.

15 days

C.

30 days

D.

60 days

Question 71

An individual may receive a penalty-free premature distribution from a traditional IRA for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The individual becomes disabled

B.

The individual incurs excessive medical expenses

C.

The individual purchases a first home

D.

The individual files bankruptcy

Question 72

Medical expense Plan A pays up to $4,000. Plan B pays up to $3,000. If a person covered under both plans incurs $6,000 in expenses and Plan A is primary, which is true under the coordination of benefits provision?

Options:

A.

Plan A pays up to $6,000.

B.

Plan A pays up to $3,000 and Plan B pays up to $3,000.

C.

Plan A pays an adjusted percentage and Plan B pays the remainder.

D.

Plan A pays up to $4,000 and Plan B pays up to $2,000.

Question 73

If an individual's occupation is considered to be illegal:

Options:

A.

It must be stated as such on a health insurance application.

B.

It may require a waiver on a disability income insurance policy.

C.

It may result in a denial of a disability income claim.

D.

It results in a substandard rating on a health insurance policy.

Question 74

An agent convicted of a felony must report the conviction to the Commission:

Options:

A.

Within 15 calendar days

B.

Within 30 calendar days

C.

Within 45 calendar days

D.

On the next license renewal date

Question 75

The preventive medical care benefit sometimes provided in a Medicare supplement policy covers:

Options:

A.

Home health care

B.

Skilled nursing care

C.

Hospitalization

D.

Annual physical exams

Question 76

In general practice, which one of the following is true of the powers of the Bureau of Insurance with respect to access to an agent’s business records?

Options:

A.

Records can only be accessed by an order of a state court

B.

Authorization must come from the National Association of Insurance Commissioners (NAIC)

C.

Records must be produced upon the request of the Bureau of Insurance

D.

The Bureau of Insurance has no right to access an agent’s business records because of privacy considerations

Question 77

A stock insurance company is wholly owned by its:

Options:

A.

Policyholders

B.

Shareholders

C.

Executive officers

D.

Board of Directors

Question 78

Which is a lawful cause for cancellation of an individual long-term care insurance policy by the insurer?

Options:

A.

Nonpayment of premium

B.

Medicaid eligibility

C.

Insurer insolvency

D.

Nuisance claims

Question 79

(During the contestable period, an insurer may rescind a life insurance policy for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:)

Options:

A.

Misstatement of age in the application

B.

Material misrepresentation in the application

C.

Fraud in the purchase of the policy

D.

Material concealment in the purchase of the policy

Question 80

A coordination of benefits provision is included in group health insurance to reduce:

Options:

A.

Dependent coverage

B.

Duplication of coverage

C.

Probationary periods

D.

Waiting periods

Question 81

All of the following statements about independent agents are true EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

They are responsible for their own expenses.

B.

They are employees of an insurer.

C.

Their compensation is based on what they sell.

D.

They own their renewal business.

Question 82

Claims settlement practices of insurers are regulated by:

Options:

A.

The Internal Revenue Service

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

Claims adjusters

D.

State insurance departments

Question 83

An individual purchased a life annuity ten-years certain with benefits paid monthly. What would the beneficiary receive if the annuitant died one day after receiving the 119th monthly benefit payment?

Options:

A.

Nothing at all

B.

120 benefit payments

C.

One benefit payment

D.

Benefit payments for life

Question 84

Pension and profit-sharing plan investment growth is not taxable as current income. Who benefits from this tax advantage?

Options:

A.

The employer

B.

The plan fiduciary

C.

The employees participating in the plan

D.

The Internal Revenue Service

Question 85

What type of insurance pays a lump sum benefit if an insured loses sight in both eyes?

Options:

A.

Hospital expense

B.

Accidental death and dismemberment

C.

Major medical

D.

Medical expense

Question 86

Before being tested for HIV, a health insurance applicant must:

Options:

A.

Pay for the test

B.

Sign a consent form

C.

Provide evidence of insurability

D.

Sign a waiver of treatment

Question 87

Under which one of the following life insurance policies does the protection extend to age 100, while the premiums are paid for a shorter period of time?

Options:

A.

Endowment

B.

Continuous premium whole life

C.

Limited payment whole life

D.

Yearly renewable term

Question 88

Needs analysis is a method of life insurance planning which:

Options:

A.

Identifies the needs of an individual and the individual's dependents

B.

Eliminates the need for estimating future interest and inflation rates

C.

Requires the team effort of the agent and home office underwriter

D.

Ignores Social Security benefit payments

Question 89

The term independent agent means that the:

Options:

A.

Agent's office is located away from the insurer's home office

B.

Agent does NOT require support from the insurer

C.

Agent may represent more than one insurer

D.

Agent represents a foreign insurer

Question 90

In health insurance, the insured must furnish written proof of loss to the insurer within:

Options:

A.

15 days of the occurrence of the loss

B.

30 days of the occurrence of the loss

C.

60 days of the occurrence of the loss

D.

90 days of the occurrence of the loss

Question 91

The insurance with other insurers provision in an individual health insurance policy allows an insurer to pay benefits to the insured on a pro-rata basis when the:

Options:

A.

Policy is within 31 days of the renewal date

B.

Policy has entered into the grace period for premium payment

C.

Insurer was not notified prior to the claim that the insured has other health coverage

D.

Insured has submitted claims in excess of $2,000 during the policy year

Question 92

Which of the following statements about the contestability of a life insurance policy is true?

Options:

A.

The policy cannot be contested by the insurer once it is paid for and issued

B.

The policy can be contested by the insurer only during the first two years of the contract

C.

The policy can be contested by the insurer at all times

D.

The policy can be contested only if the insured is convicted of a felony

Question 93

If a long-term care insurance policy is canceled, which benefit would reimburse the insured with a portion of the premiums paid?

Options:

A.

Inflation protection

B.

Return of premium

C.

Right to return

D.

Incontestibility

Question 94

The prevention and correction of dental and oral irregularities through the use of mechanical corrective devices is called:

Options:

A.

Orthodontics

B.

Endodontics

C.

Periodontics

D.

Prosthodontics

Question 95

Who is a contingent beneficiary to a life insurance policy?

Options:

A.

The person who receives the policy proceeds if no beneficiary has been named

B.

The person who receives the policy proceeds if the primary beneficiary dies before the insured

C.

The person who pays the premium if the insured becomes disabled

D.

The lender in whose favor a collateral assignment has been made

Question 96

Policy loan provisions may be found in all of the following life insurance policies EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Twenty payment life

B.

Five year life

C.

Whole life

D.

Universal life

Question 97

When the employer pays the premium, covered individuals normally receive tax-free benefits under all of the following group health plans EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Disability income

B.

Major medical

C.

Dental

D.

Health maintenance organization

Question 98

All of the following are common features found in health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Wellness programs

B.

Discounts on local health spa memberships

C.

Twenty-four hour access to emergency care

D.

Outpatient medical services

Question 99

(The owner's cost basis in a non-qualified deferred annuity is usually equal to the:)

Options:

A.

Opportunity cost

B.

Total premiums paid

C.

Guaranteed cash value

D.

Actual cash value

Question 100

Which is true about disability buy-sell insurance policies?

Options:

A.

The policyowner may not be the beneficiary

B.

The insurer pays the benefits to the disabled individual

C.

The policy proceeds are normally received income tax-free

D.

The premiums are tax-deductible

Question 101

All of the following are unfair trade practices EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Misrepresentation

B.

Fraudulent advertising

C.

Illegal inducement

D.

Reinsurance

Question 102

Unless an insured has made fraudulent statements on the application for individual health coverage, subsequent claims may not be denied under the provision for:

Options:

A.

Legal actions

B.

Time limit on certain defenses

C.

Grace period

D.

Time payment of claims

Question 103

What kind of rider may be added to an individual disability income insurance policy to increase benefits during periods of price inflation?

Options:

A.

Inflation guard

B.

Cost of living

C.

Price escalation

D.

Wage protection

Question 104

To discourage malingering and false claims for disability, an insurer:

Options:

A.

Raises premiums for insureds who have more than one policy with the same insurer

B.

May refuse any disability claim due to cancer, heart disease, stroke or spinal conditions

C.

Sets limits on the amount of benefits an insured can collect from two disability policies with the same insurer

D.

May refuse all disability claims when the insured has been hospitalized for fewer than seven days

Question 105

Which life insurance policy provision has the potential to reduce the death benefit?

Options:

A.

Accelerated benefit

B.

Disability premium waiver

C.

Spendthrift clause

D.

Conversion privilege

Question 106

Preferred provider organizations (PPOs) encourage patients to use specified hospitals by:

Options:

A.

Making public service announcements

B.

Offering outpatient diagnostic coverage

C.

Extending days of hospitalization coverage

D.

Offering greater coinsurance percentages

Question 107

Which annuity would provide benefit payments for five years to the beneficiary if the annuitant died five years after the benefit payments began?

Options:

A.

A reversionary annuity

B.

A life annuity with ten years certain

C.

A five-year annuity certain

D.

A twenty-year temporary annuity

Question 108

A life insurance agent is normally responsible for all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Delivering newly issued policies to applicants

B.

Notifying the company if a new policy will replace an existing policy

C.

Approving policies for issue on behalf of the insurer

D.

Collecting the initial premium from the applicant

Question 109

All of the following factors are used to determine insurability when underwriting an individual health insurance application EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Age

B.

Weight

C.

Occupation

D.

Religious preference

Question 110

One characteristic of flexible premium life insurance is that payment of the premium can be altered at the option of:

Options:

A.

The policyowner

B.

The contingent beneficiary

C.

The insurer, if the Consumer Price Index has risen at least 10% over the past year

D.

The insurer, if the prime interest rate falls below 6%

Question 111

A function performed by both the life insurance agent and the home office underwriter is:

Options:

A.

Finding new clients

B.

Evaluating risks

C.

Collecting premiums

D.

Reviewing a client’s coverage periodically

Question 112

Whole life insurance policies guarantee all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The nonforfeiture values

B.

The policy loan values

C.

The dividend scale

D.

The settlement option values

Question 113

Which of the following is required to hold an appointment with the insurance company it represents?

Options:

A.

An insured

B.

An employee of the insurer

C.

A consultant

D.

An agent

Question 114

Which one of the following statements about the accidental death benefit rider in life insurance is true?

Options:

A.

It requires the payment of an additional premium

B.

It is part of every life insurance policy

C.

It is available only to preferred risks

D.

It increases the amount of nonforfeiture benefits

Question 115

Keogh plans are also known as:

Options:

A.

Section 457 plans

B.

HR 10 plans

C.

403(b) plans

D.

Section 2503(c) trusts

Question 116

(In cases where there are ambiguities in a contract of adhesion, courts will typically interpret the contract according to the:)

Options:

A.

reasonable expectations of the party which offered the contract

B.

reasonable expectations of the weaker party to the contract

C.

technical meaning of the contract as it was written

D.

decision of an arbitrator appointed by the insurer

Question 117

(Which group forms the membership of the Medical Information Bureau?)

Options:

A.

Consumers

B.

Insurance agents

C.

Insurance companies

D.

Physicians

Question 118

A disability income insurance policy typically provides coverage for disabilities resulting from:

Options:

A.

Accidents only

B.

Sickness only

C.

Both accidents and sickness

D.

Occupational accidents only

Question 119

Twisting is an unfair trade practice defined as:

Options:

A.

Persuading an insured, to the insured's detriment, to switch policies

B.

Encouraging a policyholder to replace a surrendered policy

C.

Encouraging an applicant to purchase insurance by offering a discount

D.

Making false statements on an application for insurance

Question 120

(The Virginia Life, Accident and Sickness Insurance Guaranty Association was established to protect consumers in the event of an insurer’s:)

Options:

A.

Insolvency

B.

Demutualization

C.

Merger with another company

D.

Sale of part of the company

Question 121

An agent who misrepresents a life insurance policy in the Commonwealth of Virginia:

Options:

A.

Has no problem if the misrepresented information is about a competitor's product

B.

Has committed an illegal act

C.

May be prohibited from representing similar products for 30 days

D.

May be required to take an additional 30 hours of continuing education

Question 122

At the request of a small group medical plan policyholder the insurer must disclose all of the following EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

The insurer’s right to increase premium rates

B.

The insurer’s expenses

C.

The renewability provisions

D.

All available benefits

Question 123

The overall authority of an insurance agent includes:

Options:

A.

Imposed authority

B.

Absolute authority

C.

Implied authority

D.

Residual authority

Question 124

Pre-existing conditions include conditions of health that:

Options:

A.

Are never insurable under any circumstances or degree of severity

B.

Must exist before an applicant can be accepted by an insurer

C.

Have been medically treated or diagnosed prior to the effective date of coverage

D.

Develop after the effective date of the policy but before the expiration of the time limit on certain defenses

Question 125

The premium for a children’s rider on a life insurance policy:

Options:

A.

Automatically increases each year

B.

Increases with the birth or adoption of additional children

C.

Remains the same regardless of the number of children

D.

Is based upon the age of the parents

Question 126

When must an agent provide an outline of coverage to an applicant for long-term care insurance?

Options:

A.

At the time of the initial solicitation

B.

At the time of application

C.

At the time of delivery

D.

At the time of the first premium payment

Question 127

To determine whether unfair trade practices have been violated, who has the power to examine a licensee's books and records?

Options:

A.

The Bureau of Insurance

B.

The National Association of Insurance Commissioners

C.

The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation

D.

The Virginia Insurance Guaranty Association

Question 128

Which of the following is an advantage of term life insurance?

Options:

A.

The cost is about the same as whole life insurance

B.

It will be cost-effective in the long term if it is maintained to age 65 and beyond

C.

It provides insurance protection on a permanent basis

D.

The initial premium is lower than for an equivalent amount of whole life insurance

Question 129

Premiums for Medicare supplement plans may be determined by all of the following methods EXCEPT:

Options:

A.

Attained age rating

B.

Community rating

C.

Issue age rating

D.

Experience rating

Question 130

(Which of the following is one characteristic of a SIMPLE IRA plan?)

Options:

A.

Employees are mandatory contributors

B.

Employers do not have filing requirements

C.

Employees are vested after 10 years of service

D.

Employers must have a minimum of 500 employees to participate

Question 131

Nearly all citizens of the U.S.A., regardless of age, are eligible for Medicare Part B if they are:

Options:

A.

Retired permanently

B.

Eligible for Medicare Part A

C.

Uninsurable through commercial insurers

D.

"Fully insured" under Social Security

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Total 150 questions