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Isaca CRISC Dumps

Page: 1 / 175
Total 1745 questions

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following BEST reduces the probability of laptop theft?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Acceptable use policy

C.

Data encryption

D.

Asset tag with GPS

Question 2

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor's public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization's incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor's responsibilities are defined in the contract.

Question 3

Which of the following is the MOST effective way 10 identify an application backdoor prior to implementation'?

Options:

A.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Source code review

D.

Vulnerability analysis

Question 4

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

Question 5

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

Options:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization's IT risk and information security policies.

Question 6

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge for a risk practitioner during a merger of two organizations?

Options:

A.

Variances between organizational risk appetites

B.

Different taxonomies to categorize risk scenarios

C.

Disparate platforms for governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) systems

D.

Dissimilar organizational risk acceptance protocols

Question 7

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Implementing technical control over the assets

C.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

D.

Scheduling periodic audits

Question 8

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

Options:

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

Question 9

Which of the following should an organization perform to forecast the effects of a disaster?

Options:

A.

Develop a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Define recovery time objectives (RTO).

C.

Analyze capability maturity model gaps.

D.

Simulate a disaster recovery.

Question 10

A service organization is preparing to adopt an IT control framework to comply with the contractual requirements of a new client. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Negotiating terms of adoption

B.

Understanding the timeframe to implement

C.

Completing a gap analysis

D.

Initiating the conversion

Question 11

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?

Options:

A.

Utilizing data loss prevention (DLP) technology

B.

Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet

C.

Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage

D.

Developing training and awareness campaigns

Question 12

An organization's IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

Question 13

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when an organization wants to reduce likelihood in order to reduce a risk level?

Options:

A.

Monitor risk controls.

B.

Implement preventive measures.

C.

Implement detective controls.

D.

Transfer the risk.

Question 14

Which of the following BEST indicates the condition of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Number of risk register entries

B.

Number of controls

C.

Level of financial support

D.

Amount of residual risk

Question 15

An organization has been experiencing an increasing number of spear phishing attacks Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to mitigate the risk associated with these attacks?

Options:

A.

Update firewall configuration

B.

Require strong password complexity

C.

implement a security awareness program

D.

Implement two-factor authentication

Question 16

Which of the following practices BEST mitigates risk related to enterprise-wide ethical decision making in a multi-national organization?

Options:

A.

Customized regional training on local laws and regulations

B.

Policies requiring central reporting of potential procedure exceptions

C.

Ongoing awareness training to support a common risk culture

D.

Zero-tolerance policies for risk taking by middle-level managers

Question 17

Options:

A.

Business information security officer

B.

Service level manager

C.

Business process manager

D.

Data center operations manager

Question 18

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization's information security policy.

C.

validate the organization's data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

Question 19

Which of the following will BEST ensure that controls adequately support business goals and objectives?

Options:

A.

Using the risk management process

B.

Enforcing strict disciplinary procedures in case of noncompliance

C.

Reviewing results of the annual company external audit

D.

Adopting internationally accepted controls

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST effective against external threats to an organizations confidential information?

Options:

A.

Single sign-on

B.

Data integrity checking

C.

Strong authentication

D.

Intrusion detection system

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of regularly presenting the project risk register to the project steering committee?

Options:

A.

To allocate budget for resolution of risk issues

B.

To determine if new risk scenarios have been identified

C.

To ensure the project timeline is on target

D.

To track the status of risk mitigation actions

Question 22

An organization's risk practitioner learns a new third-party system on the corporate network has introduced vulnerabilities that could compromise corporate IT systems. What should the risk practitioner do

FIRST?

Options:

A.

Confirm the vulnerabilities with the third party

B.

Identify procedures to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

C.

Notify information security management.

D.

Request IT to remove the system from the network.

Question 23

An application owner has specified the acceptable downtime in the event of an incident to be much lower than the actual time required for the response team to recover the application. Which of the following should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Invoke the disaster recovery plan during an incident.

B.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis of alternatives available

C.

Implement redundant infrastructure for the application.

D.

Reduce the recovery time by strengthening the response team.

Question 24

Owners of technical controls should be PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring the controls are:

Options:

A.

Mapped to the corresponding business areas.

B.

Aligned with corporate security policies.

C.

Effectively implemented and maintained.

D.

Designed based on standards and frameworks.

Question 25

An organization's stakeholders are unable to agree on appropriate risk responses. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Identify a risk transfer option.

C.

Reassess risk scenarios.

D.

Benchmark with similar industries.

Question 26

A Software as a Service (SaaS) provider has determined that the risk of a client's sensitive data being compromised is low. Which of the following is the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Implement additional controls to address the risk

B.

Accept the risk based on the provider's risk assessment

C.

Review the provider's independent audit results

D.

Ensure the contract includes breach notification requirements

Question 27

Which of the following provides the BEST level of assurance to an organization that its vendors' controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Control matrix documentation

B.

Vendor security reports

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

An independent third-party audit

Question 28

Who should be accountable for monitoring the control environment to ensure controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security monitoring operations

C.

Impacted data owner

D.

System owner

Question 29

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization's knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization's culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

Question 30

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Question 31

The PRIMARY goal of conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) as part of an overall continuity planning process is to:

Options:

A.

obtain the support of executive management.

B.

map the business processes to supporting IT and other corporate resources.

C.

identify critical business processes and the degree of reliance on support services.

D.

document the disaster recovery process.

Question 32

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

Options:

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

Question 33

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 34

A business manager wants to leverage an existing approved vendor solution from another area within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend allowing the new usage based on prior approval.

B.

Request a new third-party review.

C.

Request revalidation of the original use case.

D.

Assess the risk associated with the new use case.

Question 35

The PRIMARY advantage of implementing an IT risk management framework is the:

Options:

A.

establishment of a reliable basis for risk-aware decision making.

B.

compliance with relevant legal and regulatory requirements.

C.

improvement of controls within the organization and minimized losses.

D.

alignment of business goals with IT objectives.

Question 36

Which of the following is the BEST way to maintain a current list of organizational risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Automate workflow for risk status updates.

B.

Perform regular reviews of key controls.

C.

Conduct periodic risk reviews with stakeholders.

D.

Conduct compliance reviews.

Question 37

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a cloud service provider. The provider's controls are inadequate for the organization's level of risk tolerance. As a result, the organization has internally implemented additional backup and recovery controls. Which risk response has been adopted?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

Question 38

Which of the following is MOST helpful in verifying that the implementation of a risk mitigation control has been completed as intended?

Options:

A.

An updated risk register

B.

Risk assessment results

C.

Technical control validation

D.

Control testing results

Question 39

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization's data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action for a risk practitioner when reviewing the results of control performance monitoring?

Options:

A.

Evaluate changes to the organization's risk profile.

B.

Validate whether the controls effectively mitigate risk.

C.

Confirm controls achieve regulatory compliance.

D.

Analyze appropriateness of key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 41

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying gaps between the current and desired state of the IT risk environment?

Options:

A.

Analyzing risk appetite and tolerance levels

B.

Assessing identified risk and recording results in the risk register

C.

Evaluating risk scenarios and assessing current controls

D.

Reviewing guidance from industry best practices and standards

Question 42

To ensure key risk indicators (KRIs) are effective and meaningful, the KRIs should be aligned to:

Options:

A.

A control framework

B.

Industry standards

C.

Capability maturity targets

D.

Business processes

Question 43

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

Options:

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

Question 44

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization's risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

Question 45

Following a business continuity planning exercise, an organization decides to accept an identified risk associated with a critical business system. Which of the following should be done next?

Options:

A.

Document the decision-making process and considerations used

B.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) to assess the impact of the risk

C.

Develop a disaster recovery plan (DRP) and business continuity plan (BCP) to ensure resiliency

D.

Develop a control to reduce the level of the risk

Question 46

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover a business continuity awareness Ira nine, program for all employees of the organization?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Segregation of duties

C.

Communication plan

D.

Critical asset inventory

Question 47

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when determining controls necessary for a highly critical information system?

Options:

A.

The number of threats to the system

B.

The organization's available budget

C.

The number of vulnerabilities to the system

D.

The level of acceptable risk to the organization

Question 48

Which of the following is the FIRST step in managing the security risk associated with wearable technology in the workplace?

Options:

A.

Identify the potential risk.

B.

Monitor employee usage.

C.

Assess the potential risk.

D.

Develop risk awareness training.

Question 49

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?

Options:

A.

To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored

B.

To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes

C.

To promote a risk-aware culture among staff

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 50

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to create risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

To assist with risk identification

B.

To determine risk tolerance

C.

To determine risk appetite

D.

To assist in the development of risk responses

Question 51

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

To assign control ownership of risk

B.

To provide a centralized view of risk

C.

To identify opportunities to transfer risk

D.

To mitigate organizational risk

Question 52

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 53

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

Question 54

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 55

Which of the following is the MOST important course of action to foster an ethical, risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Implement a fraud detection and prevention framework.

B.

Ensure the alignment of the organization's policies and standards to the defined risk appetite.

C.

Establish an enterprise-wide ethics training and awareness program.

D.

Perform a comprehensive review of all applicable legislative frameworks and requirements.

Question 56

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Assigning a data owner

B.

Scheduling periodic audits

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 57

The BEST metric to demonstrate that servers are configured securely is the total number of servers:

Options:

A.

exceeding availability thresholds

B.

experiencing hardware failures

C.

exceeding current patching standards.

D.

meeting the baseline for hardening.

Question 58

For a large software development project, risk assessments are MOST effective when performed:

Options:

A.

before system development begins.

B.

at system development.

C.

at each stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

during the development of the business case.

Question 59

Which of the following would qualify as a key performance indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Aggregate risk of the organization

B.

Number of identified system vulnerabilities

C.

Number of exception requests processed in the past 90 days

D.

Number of attacks against the organization's website

Question 60

Which of the following provides the MOST mitigation value for an organization implementing new Internet of Things (loT) devices?

Options:

A.

Performing a vulnerability assessment on the loT devices

B.

Designing loT architecture with IT security controls from the start

C.

Implementing key risk indicators (KRIs) for loT devices

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 61

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

Question 62

Which of the following is MOST useful for measuring the existing risk management process against a desired state?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Risk management framework

C.

Capability maturity model

D.

Risk scenario analysis

Question 63

Senior management wants to increase investment in the organization's cybersecurity program in response to changes in the external threat landscape. Which of the following would BEST help to prioritize investment efforts?

Options:

A.

Analyzing cyber intelligence reports

B.

Engaging independent cybersecurity consultants

C.

Increasing the frequency of updates to the risk register

D.

Reviewing the outcome of the latest security risk assessment

Question 64

Which of the following BEST supports the communication of risk assessment results to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of high-risk areas

B.

Classification of risk profiles

C.

Periodic review of the risk register

D.

Assignment of risk ownership

Question 65

When developing risk scenario using a list of generic scenarios based on industry best practices, it is MOST imported to:

Options:

A.

Assess generic risk scenarios with business users.

B.

Validate the generic risk scenarios for relevance.

C.

Select the maximum possible risk scenarios from the list.

D.

Identify common threats causing generic risk scenarios

Question 66

The MOST important reason to aggregate results from multiple risk assessments on interdependent information systems is to:

Options:

A.

establish overall impact to the organization

B.

efficiently manage the scope of the assignment

C.

identify critical information systems

D.

facilitate communication to senior management

Question 67

What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?

Options:

A.

To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents

B.

To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures

C.

To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices

D.

To lower the organization's risk appetite and tolerance levels

Question 68

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a project team has accepted a risk outside the established risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Reject the risk acceptance and require mitigating controls.

B.

Monitor the residual risk level of the accepted risk.

C.

Escalate the risk decision to the project sponsor for review.

D.

Document the risk decision in the project risk register.

Question 69

Which of the following is the MOST important responsibility of a risk owner?

Options:

A.

Testing control design

B.

Accepting residual risk

C.

Establishing business information criteria

D.

Establishing the risk register

Question 70

Which of the following observations would be GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation status of management action plans?

Options:

A.

Management has not determined a final implementation date.

B.

Management has not completed an early mitigation milestone.

C.

Management has not secured resources for mitigation activities.

D.

Management has not begun the implementation.

Question 71

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:

Options:

A.

resources to monitor backups

B.

restoration monitoring reports

C.

backup recovery requests

D.

recurring restore failures

Question 72

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information to a risk owner when reviewing the progress of risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Key audit findings

B.

Treatment plan status

C.

Performance indicators

D.

Risk scenario results

Question 73

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization's firewall rule set?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

Question 74

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for updating an organization's risk register?

Options:

A.

Results of the latest risk assessment

B.

Results of a risk forecasting analysis

C.

A review of compliance regulations

D.

Findings of the most recent audit

Question 75

Which of the following should be considered when selecting a risk response?

Options:

A.

Risk scenarios analysis

B.

Risk response costs

C.

Risk factor awareness

D.

Risk factor identification

Question 76

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

Question 77

Which of the following BEST indicates that security requirements have been incorporated into the system development life cycle (SDLC)?

Options:

A.

Comprehensive security training of developers

B.

Validated security requirements and design documents

C.

Completed user acceptance testing (UAT)

D.

Compliance with laws and regulatory requirements

Question 78

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization's systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

Question 79

Who should be responsible for strategic decisions on risk management?

Options:

A.

Chief information officer (CIO)

B.

Executive management team

C.

Audit committee

D.

Business process owner

Question 80

Which of the following activities is PRIMARILY the responsibility of senior management?

Options:

A.

Bottom-up identification of emerging risks

B.

Categorization of risk scenarios against a standard taxonomy

C.

Prioritization of risk scenarios based on severity

D.

Review of external loss data

Question 81

Which of the following is the BEST evidence that a user account has been properly authorized?

Options:

A.

An email from the user accepting the account

B.

Notification from human resources that the account is active

C.

User privileges matching the request form

D.

Formal approval of the account by the user's manager

Question 82

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit of involving stakeholders in the selection of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Improving risk awareness

B.

Obtaining buy-in from risk owners

C.

Leveraging existing metrics

D.

Optimizing risk treatment decisions

Question 83

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

Question 84

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

Question 85

An organization recently implemented an automated interface for uploading payment files to its banking system to replace manual processing. Which of the following elements of the risk register is MOST appropriate for the risk practitioner to update to reflect the improved control?

Options:

A.

Risk scenarios

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Risk impact

D.

Risk likelihood

Question 86

An IT risk practitioner has been tasked to engage key stakeholders to assess risk for key IT risk scenarios. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this activity?

Options:

A.

Establishing the available risk mitigation budget

B.

Verifying the relevance of risk ratings

C.

Demonstrating compliance to regulatory bodies

D.

Assessing IT risk management culture

Question 87

An IT risk threat analysis is BEST used to establish

Options:

A.

risk scenarios

B.

risk maps

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk ownership.

Question 88

An organization requires a third party for processing customer personal data. Which of the following is the BEST approach when sharing data over a public network?

Options:

A.

Include a nondisclosure agreement (NDA) for personal data in the contract.

B.

Implement a digital rights protection tool to monitor data.

C.

Use a virtual private network (VPN) to communicate data.

D.

Transfer a read-only version of the data.

Question 89

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when determining if a specific control should be implemented?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Attribute analysis

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 90

Who is the BEST person to the employee personal data?

Options:

A.

Human resources (HR) manager

B.

System administrator

C.

Data privacy manager

D.

Compliance manager

Question 91

An organization is considering the adoption of an aggressive business strategy to achieve desired growth From a risk management perspective what should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Identify new threats resorting from the new business strategy

B.

Update risk awareness training to reflect current levels of risk appetite and tolerance

C.

Inform the board of potential risk scenarios associated with aggressive business strategies

D.

Increase the scale for measuring impact due to threat materialization

Question 92

When of the following standard operating procedure (SOP) statements BEST illustrates appropriate risk register maintenance?

Options:

A.

Remove risk that has been mitigated by third-party transfer

B.

Remove risk that management has decided to accept

C.

Remove risk only following a significant change in the risk environment

D.

Remove risk when mitigation results in residual risk within tolerance levels

Question 93

Which risk response strategy could management apply to both positive and negative risk that has been identified?

Options:

A.

Transfer

B.

Accept

C.

Exploit

D.

Mitigate

Question 94

A risk practitioner's BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

Aligned with risk management capabilities.

B.

Based on industry trends.

C.

Related to probable events.

D.

Mapped to incident response plans.

Question 95

A new policy has been published to forbid copying of data onto removable media. Which type of control has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Preventive

B.

Detective

C.

Directive

D.

Deterrent

Question 96

A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:

Options:

A.

identification.

B.

treatment.

C.

communication.

D.

assessment

Question 97

A control process has been implemented in response to a new regulatory requirement, but has significantly reduced productivity. Which of the following is the BEST way to resolve this concern?

Options:

A.

Absorb the loss in productivity.

B.

Request a waiver to the requirements.

C.

Escalate the issue to senior management

D.

Remove the control to accommodate business objectives.

Question 98

Which of the following BEST provides an early warning that network access of terminated employees is not being revoked in accordance with the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Updating multi-factor authentication

B.

Monitoring key access control performance indicators

C.

Analyzing access control logs for suspicious activity

D.

Revising the service level agreement (SLA)

Question 99

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

Options:

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

Question 100

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

Question 101

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

Options:

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

Question 102

Which of the following attributes of a key risk indicator (KRI) is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Repeatable

B.

Automated

C.

Quantitative

D.

Qualitative

Question 103

Which of the following will BEST communicate the importance of risk mitigation initiatives to senior management?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Balanced scorecard

C.

Industry standards

D.

Heat map

Question 104

An audit reveals that there are changes in the environment that are not reflected in the risk profile. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Review the risk identification process.

B.

Inform the risk scenario owners.

C.

Create a risk awareness communication plan.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 105

Which of the following risk management practices BEST facilitates the incorporation of IT risk scenarios into the enterprise-wide risk register?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRls) are developed for key IT risk scenarios

B.

IT risk scenarios are assessed by the enterprise risk management team

C.

Risk appetites for IT risk scenarios are approved by key business stakeholders.

D.

IT risk scenarios are developed in the context of organizational objectives.

Question 106

As pan of business continuity planning, which of the following is MOST important to include m a business impact analysis (BlA)?

Options:

A.

An assessment of threats to the organization

B.

An assessment of recovery scenarios

C.

industry standard framework

D.

Documentation of testing procedures

Question 107

Which of the following BEST reduces the risk associated with the theft of a laptop containing sensitive information?

Options:

A.

Cable lock

B.

Data encryption

C.

Periodic backup

D.

Biometrics access control

Question 108

Which of the following would BEST enable a risk-based decision when considering the use of an emerging technology for data processing?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Threat assessment

C.

Resource skills matrix

D.

Data quality assurance plan

Question 109

The PRIMARY purpose of vulnerability assessments is to:

Options:

A.

provide clear evidence that the system is sufficiently secure.

B.

determine the impact of potential threats.

C.

test intrusion detection systems (IDS) and response procedures.

D.

detect weaknesses that could lead to system compromise.

Question 110

Which of the following BEST enables detection of ethical violations committed by employees?

Options:

A.

Transaction log monitoring

B.

Access control attestation

C.

Periodic job rotation

D.

Whistleblower program

Question 111

Which of the following would provide the MOST comprehensive information for communicating current levels of IT-related risk to executive management?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk dashboard

D.

Risk action plans

Question 112

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

Question 113

Which of the following BEST supports the integration of IT risk management into an organization's strategic planning?

Options:

A.

Clearly defined organizational goals and objectives

B.

Incentive plans that reward employees based on IT risk metrics

C.

Regular organization-wide risk awareness training

D.

A comprehensive and documented IT risk management plan

Question 114

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to aggregate risk assessment results from different business units?

Options:

A.

To improve communication of risk to senior management

B.

To compare risk profiles across the business units

C.

To allocate budget for risk management resources

D.

To determine overall impact to the organization

Question 115

Which of the following is the BEST way for an organization to enable risk treatment decisions?

Options:

A.

Allocate sufficient funds for risk remediation.

B.

Promote risk and security awareness.

C.

Establish clear accountability for risk.

D.

Develop comprehensive policies and standards.

Question 116

Which of the blowing is MOST important when implementing an organization s security policy?

Options:

A.

Obtaining management support

B.

Benchmarking against industry standards

C.

Assessing compliance requirements

D.

Identifying threats and vulnerabilities

Question 117

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk of sensitive personal data leakage from a software development environment?

Options:

A.

Tokenized personal data only in test environments

B.

Data loss prevention tools (DLP) installed in passive mode

C.

Anonymized personal data in non-production environments

D.

Multi-factor authentication for access to non-production environments

Question 118

Which of these documents is MOST important to request from a cloud service

provider during a vendor risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreement (NDA)

B.

Independent audit report

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 119

The MAIN purpose of a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

document the risk universe of the organization.

B.

promote an understanding of risk across the organization.

C.

enable well-informed risk management decisions.

D.

identify stakeholders associated with risk scenarios.

Question 120

Malware has recently affected an organization. The MOST effective way to resolve this situation and define a comprehensive risk treatment plan would be to perform:

Options:

A.

a gap analysis

B.

a root cause analysis.

C.

an impact assessment.

D.

a vulnerability assessment.

Question 121

A risk practitioner learns that the organization s industry is experiencing a trend of rising security incidents. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the relevance of the evolving threats.

B.

Review past internal audit results.

C.

Respond to organizational security threats.

D.

Research industry published studies.

Question 122

Which of the following is the MOST important information to be communicated during security awareness training?

Options:

A.

Management's expectations

B.

Corporate risk profile

C.

Recent security incidents

D.

The current risk management capability

Question 123

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to change control in business application development over the complete life cycle?

Options:

A.

Emphasis on multiple application testing cycles

B.

Lack of an integrated development environment (IDE) tool

C.

Introduction of requirements that have not been approved

D.

Bypassing quality requirements before go-live

Question 124

Which of the following is MOST helpful when prioritizing action plans for identified risk?

Options:

A.

Comparing risk rating against appetite

B.

Obtaining input from business units

C.

Determining cost of controls to mitigate risk

D.

Ranking the risk based on likelihood of occurrence

Question 125

A root because analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly hired IT system administrators Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?

Options:

A.

HR training director

B.

Business process owner

C.

HR recruitment manager

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 126

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

Question 127

An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data minimization

B.

Accountability

C.

Accuracy

D.

Purpose limitation

Question 128

An organization has just started accepting credit card payments from customers via the corporate website. Which of the following is MOST likely to increase as a result of this new initiative?

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Residual risk

Question 129

Which of the following is the BEST approach for an organization in a heavily regulated industry to comprehensively test application functionality?

Options:

A.

Use production data in a non-production environment

B.

Use masked data in a non-production environment

C.

Use test data in a production environment

D.

Use anonymized data in a non-production environment

Question 130

Who is BEST suited to provide objective input when updating residual risk to reflect the results of control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Internal auditor

D.

Compliance manager

Question 131

Reviewing which of the following provides the BEST indication of an organizations risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk sharing strategy

B.

Risk transfer agreements

C.

Risk policies

D.

Risk assessments

Question 132

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

Question 133

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

Question 134

Which of the following is the MOST important benefit of key risk indicators (KRIs)'

Options:

A.

Assisting in continually optimizing risk governance

B.

Enabling the documentation and analysis of trends

C.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements

D.

Providing an early warning to take proactive actions

Question 135

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

Question 136

A risk practitioner notices that a particular key risk indicator (KRI) has remained below its established trigger point for an extended period of time. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Recommend a re-evaluation of the current threshold of the KRI.

B.

Notify management that KRIs are being effectively managed.

C.

Update the risk rating associated with the KRI In the risk register.

D.

Update the risk tolerance and risk appetite to better align to the KRI.

Question 137

Which of the following would be the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the effectiveness of the IT asset management process?

Options:

A.

Percentage of unpatched IT assets

B.

Percentage of IT assets without ownership

C.

The number of IT assets securely disposed during the past year

D.

The number of IT assets procured during the previous month

Question 138

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

Question 139

Which of the following is MOST useful when communicating risk to management?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Audit report

C.

Risk map

D.

Maturity model

Question 140

An organization is reviewing a contract for a Software as a Service (SaaS) sales application with a 99.9% uptime service level agreement (SLA). Which of the following BEST describes ownership of availability risk?

Options:

A.

The risk is shared by both organizations.

B.

The liability for the risk is owned by the cloud provider.

C.

The risk is transferred to the cloud provider.

D.

The liability for the risk is owned by the sales department.

Question 141

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's

BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

Question 142

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

Question 143

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?

Options:

A.

Using an aggregated view of organizational risk

B.

Ensuring relevance to organizational goals

C.

Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including

D.

Trend analysis of risk metrics

Question 144

Which of the following is PRIMARILY a risk management responsibly of the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing risk treatment plans

B.

Validating the status of risk mitigation efforts

C.

Establishing risk policies and standards

D.

Conducting independent reviews of risk assessment results

Question 145

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

Question 146

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of developing information security metrics?

Options:

A.

Raising security awareness

B.

Enabling continuous improvement

C.

Identifying security threats

D.

Ensuring regulatory compliance

Question 147

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Question 148

An organization with a large number of applications wants to establish a security risk assessment program. Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when determining the frequency of risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Feedback from end users

B.

Results of a benchmark analysis

C.

Recommendations from internal audit

D.

Prioritization from business owners

Question 149

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

Question 150

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Monitoring risk responses

B.

Applying risk treatments

C.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

D.

Implementing internal controls

Question 151

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

Question 152

The risk associated with a high-risk vulnerability in an application is owned by the:

Options:

A.

security department.

B.

business unit

C.

vendor.

D.

IT department.

Question 153

Calculation of the recovery time objective (RTO) is necessary to determine the:

Options:

A.

time required to restore files.

B.

point of synchronization

C.

priority of restoration.

D.

annual loss expectancy (ALE).

Question 154

An application runs a scheduled job that compiles financial data from multiple business systems and updates the financial reporting system. If this job runs too long, it can delay financial reporting. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Implement database activity and capacity monitoring.

B.

Ensure the business is aware of the risk.

C.

Ensure the enterprise has a process to detect such situations.

D.

Consider providing additional system resources to this job.

Question 155

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

Options:

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

Question 156

Which key performance efficiency IKPI) BEST measures the effectiveness of an organization's disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Number of service level agreement (SLA) violations

B.

Percentage of recovery issues identified during the exercise

C.

Number of total systems recovered within tie recovery point objective (RPO)

D.

Percentage of critical systems recovered within tie recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 157

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

Options:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

Question 158

A risk practitioner has been notified that an employee sent an email in error containing customers' personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Report it to the chief risk officer.

B.

Advise the employee to forward the email to the phishing team.

C.

follow incident reporting procedures.

D.

Advise the employee to permanently delete the email.

Question 159

A risk practitioner is organizing risk awareness training for senior management. Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in the training session?

Options:

A.

The organization's strategic risk management projects

B.

Senior management roles and responsibilities

C.

The organizations risk appetite and tolerance

D.

Senior management allocation of risk management resources

Question 160

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

Question 161

Which of the following is the MOST important driver of an effective enterprise risk management (ERM) program?

Options:

A.

Risk policy

B.

Risk committee

C.

Risk culture

D.

Risk management plan

Question 162

An organization has decided to use an external auditor to review the control environment of an outsourced service provider. The BEST control criteria to evaluate the provider would be based on:

Options:

A.

a recognized industry control framework

B.

guidance provided by the external auditor

C.

the service provider's existing controls

D.

The organization's specific control requirements

Question 163

Which of We following is the MOST effective control to address the risk associated with compromising data privacy within the cloud?

Options:

A.

Establish baseline security configurations with the cloud service provider.

B.

Require the cloud prowler 10 disclose past data privacy breaches.

C.

Ensure the cloud service provider performs an annual risk assessment.

D.

Specify cloud service provider liability for data privacy breaches in the contract

Question 164

When reporting to senior management on changes in trends related to IT risk, which of the following is MOST important?

Options:

A.

Materiality

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Maturity

D.

Transparency

Question 165

Options:

A.

Recovery point objective (RPO) of 48 hours

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO) of 48 hours

C.

Mean time between failures (MTBF) of 48 hours

D.

Mean time to recover (MTTR) of 48 hours

Question 166

The BEST way to justify the risk mitigation actions recommended in a risk assessment would be to:

Options:

A.

align with audit results.

B.

benchmark with competitor s actions.

C.

reference best practice.

D.

focus on the business drivers

Question 167

A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization's operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Patch the operating system immediately

B.

Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability

C.

Invoke the organization's incident response plan

D.

Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization's IT environment

Question 168

Which element of an organization's risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Question 169

A risk action plan has been changed during the risk mitigation effort. Which of the following is MOST important for the risk practitioner to verify?

Options:

A.

Impact of the change on inherent risk

B.

Approval for the change by the risk owner

C.

Business rationale for the change

D.

Risk to the mitigation effort due to the change

Question 170

Implementing which of the following controls would BEST reduce the impact of a vulnerability that has been exploited?

Options:

A.

Detective control

B.

Deterrent control

C.

Preventive control

D.

Corrective control

Question 171

A deficient control has been identified which could result in great harm to an organization should a low frequency threat event occur. When communicating the associated risk to senior management the risk practitioner should explain:

Options:

A.

mitigation plans for threat events should be prepared in the current planning period.

B.

this risk scenario is equivalent to more frequent but lower impact risk scenarios.

C.

the current level of risk is within tolerance.

D.

an increase in threat events could cause a loss sooner than anticipated.

Question 172

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when using artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Question 173

Which of the following is the MOST important factor to consider when determining whether to approve a policy exception request?

Options:

A.

Volume of exceptions

B.

Lack of technical resources

C.

Cost of noncompliance

D.

Time required to implement controls

Question 174

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) for monitoring the user access management process?

Options:

A.

Proportion of end users having more than one account

B.

Percentage of accounts disabled within the service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Proportion of privileged to non-privileged accounts

D.

Percentage of accounts that have not been activated

Question 175

A public online information security training course is available to an organization's staff. The online course contains free-form discussion fields. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the organization's risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The form may be susceptible to SQL injection attacks.

B.

Data is not encrypted in transit to the site.

C.

Proprietary corporate information may be disclosed.

D.

Staff nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) are not in place.

Question 176

When developing a response plan to address security incidents regarding sensitive data loss, it is MOST important

Options:

A.

revalidate current key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

revise risk management procedures.

C.

review the data classification policy.

D.

revalidate existing risk scenarios.

Question 177

A risk practitioner is assisting with the preparation of a report on the organization s disaster recovery (DR) capabilities. Which information would have the MOST impact on the overall recovery profile?

Options:

A.

The percentage of systems meeting recovery target times has increased.

B.

The number of systems tested in the last year has increased.

C.

The number of systems requiring a recovery plan has increased.

D.

The percentage of systems with long recovery target times has decreased.

Question 178

When updating the risk register after a risk assessment, which of the following is MOST important to include?

Options:

A.

Historical losses due to past risk events

B.

Cost to reduce the impact and likelihood

C.

Likelihood and impact of the risk scenario

D.

Actor and threat type of the risk scenario

Question 179

Within the risk management space, which of the following activities could be

delegated to a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

Risk oversight

B.

Control implementation

C.

Incident response

D.

User access reviews

Question 180

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

Question 181

What is the GREATEST concern with maintaining decentralized risk registers instead of a consolidated risk register?

Options:

A.

Aggregated risk may exceed the enterprise's risk appetite and tolerance.

B.

Duplicate resources may be used to manage risk registers.

C.

Standardization of risk management practices may be difficult to enforce.

D.

Risk analysis may be inconsistent due to non-uniform impact and likelihood scales.

Question 182

Which of the following is MOST important when identifying an organization's risk exposure associated with Internet of Things (loT) devices?

Options:

A.

Defined remediation plans

B.

Management sign-off on the scope

C.

Manual testing of device vulnerabilities

D.

Visibility into all networked devices

Question 183

Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure ongoing control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Establishing policies and procedures

B.

Periodically reviewing control design

C.

Measuring trends in control performance

D.

Obtaining management control attestations

Question 184

Which of the following is the result of a realized risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Technical event

B.

Threat event

C.

Vulnerability event

D.

Loss event

Question 185

Which of the following helps ensure compliance with a nonrepudiation policy requirement for electronic transactions?

Options:

A.

Digital signatures

B.

Encrypted passwords

C.

One-time passwords

D.

Digital certificates

Question 186

The BEST use of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to provide:

Options:

A.

Early indication of increasing exposure to a specific risk.

B.

Lagging indication of major information security incidents.

C.

Early indication of changes to required risk response.

D.

Insight into the performance of a monitored process.

Question 187

The risk associated with inadvertent disclosure of database records from a public cloud service provider (CSP) would MOST effectively be reduced by:

Options:

A.

encrypting the data

B.

including a nondisclosure clause in the CSP contract

C.

assessing the data classification scheme

D.

reviewing CSP access privileges

Question 188

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

Question 189

Which of the following is MOST important to the effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIS)?

Options:

A.

Updating the threat inventory with new threats

B.

Automating log data analysis

C.

Preventing the generation of false alerts

D.

Determining threshold levels

Question 190

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with business end users developing their own applications on end user spreadsheets and database programs?

Options:

A.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

B.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

C.

There is a lack of technology recovery options.

D.

The applications are not captured in the risk profile.

Question 191

Which of the following findings of a security awareness program assessment would cause the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The program has not decreased threat counts.

B.

The program has not considered business impact.

C.

The program has been significantly revised

D.

The program uses non-customized training modules.

Question 192

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that identified risk is efficiently managed?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the maturity of the control environment

B.

Regularly monitoring the project plan

C.

Maintaining a key risk indicator for each asset in the risk register

D.

Periodically reviewing controls per the risk treatment plan

Question 193

During a risk assessment, a risk practitioner learns that an IT risk factor is adequately mitigated by compensating controls in an associated business process. Which of the following would enable the MOST effective management of the residual risk?

Options:

A.

Schedule periodic reviews of the compensating controls' effectiveness.

B.

Report the use of compensating controls to senior management.

C.

Recommend additional IT controls to further reduce residual risk.

D.

Request that ownership of the compensating controls is reassigned to IT

Question 194

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when assessing risk associated with the adoption of emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Organizational strategy

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Business requirements

Question 195

A control for mitigating risk in a key business area cannot be implemented immediately. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action when a compensating control needs to be applied?

Options:

A.

Obtain the risk owner's approval.

B.

Record the risk as accepted in the risk register.

C.

Inform senior management.

D.

update the risk response plan.

Question 196

An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?

Options:

A.

Chief information security officer

B.

Business process owner

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

IT controls manager

Question 197

An organization's capability to implement a risk management framework is PRIMARILY influenced by the:

Options:

A.

guidance of the risk practitioner.

B.

competence of the staff involved.

C.

approval of senior management.

D.

maturity of its risk culture.

Question 198

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

Question 199

Because of a potential data breach, an organization has decided to temporarily shut down its online sales order system until sufficient controls can be implemented. Which risk treatment has been selected?

Options:

A.

Avoidance

B.

Acceptance

C.

Mitigation

D.

Transfer

Question 200

Due to a change in business processes, an identified risk scenario no longer requires mitigation. Which of the following is the MOST important reason the risk should remain in the risk register?

Options:

A.

To support regulatory requirements

B.

To prevent the risk scenario in the current environment

C.

To monitor for potential changes to the risk scenario

D.

To track historical risk assessment results

Question 201

Which of the following is MOST important to communicate to senior management during the initial implementation of a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Risk ownership

C.

Best practices

D.

Desired risk level

Question 202

Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action if the risk associated with a new technology is found to be increasing?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate current controls.

B.

Revise the current risk action plan.

C.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

D.

Implement additional controls.

Question 203

Which of the following is the BEST approach to use when creating a comprehensive set of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Derive scenarios from IT risk policies and standards.

B.

Map scenarios to a recognized risk management framework.

C.

Gather scenarios from senior management.

D.

Benchmark scenarios against industry peers.

Question 204

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

Question 205

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

Question 206

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason an organization would engage an independent reviewer to assess its IT risk management program?

Options:

A.

To ensure IT risk management is focused on mitigating emerging risk

B.

To confirm that IT risk assessment results are expressed in quantitative terms

C.

To evaluate threats to the organization's operations and strategy

D.

To identify gaps in the alignment of IT risk management processes and strategy

Question 207

Which of the following would BEST help an enterprise prioritize risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Industry best practices

B.

Placement on the risk map

C.

Degree of variances in the risk

D.

Cost of risk mitigation

Question 208

The PRIMARY goal of a risk management program is to:

Options:

A.

facilitate resource availability.

B.

help ensure objectives are met.

C.

safeguard corporate assets.

D.

help prevent operational losses.

Question 209

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason that risk management is important in project management?

Options:

A.

It helps identify and mitigate potential issues that could derail projects.

B.

It helps to ensure project acceptance by end users.

C.

It reduces the risk associated with potential project scope creep.

D.

It facilitates agreement and collaboration on project goals among stakeholders.

Question 210

Which of the following is MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries.

B.

Identification of risk events.

C.

Impact on critical assets.

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events.

Question 211

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner when determining the effectiveness of IT controls?

Options:

A.

Configuration updates do not follow formal change control.

B.

Operational staff perform control self-assessments.

C.

Controls are selected without a formal cost-benefit

D.

analysis-Management reviews security policies once every two years.

Question 212

The maturity of an IT risk management program is MOST influenced by:

Options:

A.

the organization's risk culture

B.

benchmarking results against similar organizations

C.

industry-specific regulatory requirements

D.

expertise available within the IT department

Question 213

Which of the following is the MOST important for an organization to have in place to ensure IT asset protection?

Options:

A.

Procedures for risk assessments on IT assets

B.

An IT asset management checklist

C.

An IT asset inventory populated by an automated scanning tool

D.

A plan that includes processes for the recovery of IT assets

Question 214

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with local legislation because it has a higher priority.

B.

Conduct a risk assessment and develop mitigation options.

C.

Terminate the current cloud contract and migrate to a local cloud provider.

D.

Accept the risk because foreign legislation does not apply to the organization.

Question 215

Which of the following is MOST important to the successful development of IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Internal and external audit reports

C.

Threat and vulnerability analysis

D.

Control effectiveness assessment

Question 216

An organization needs to send files to a business partner to perform a quality control audit on the organization’s record-keeping processes. The files include personal information on theorganization's customers. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to mitigate privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Obfuscate the customers’ personal information.

B.

Require the business partner to delete personal information following the audit.

C.

Use a secure channel to transmit the files.

D.

Ensure the contract includes provisions for sharing personal information.

Question 217

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of IT policies? The number of:

Options:

A.

IT policy exceptions granted.

B.

Senior management approvals.

C.

Key technology controls covered by IT policies.

D.

Processes covered by IT policies.

Question 218

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect sensitive data from administrators within a public cloud?

Options:

A.

Use an encrypted tunnel lo connect to the cloud.

B.

Encrypt the data in the cloud database.

C.

Encrypt physical hard drives within the cloud.

D.

Encrypt data before it leaves the organization.

Question 219

Which of the following BEST helps to identify significant events that could impact an organization?

Options:

A.

Control analysis

B.

Vulnerability analysis

C.

Scenario analysis

D.

Heat map analysis

Question 220

Which of the following BEST facilitates the mitigation of identified gaps between current and desired risk environment states?

Options:

A.

Develop a risk treatment plan.

B.

Validate organizational risk appetite.

C.

Review results of prior risk assessments.

D.

Include the current and desired states in the risk register.

Question 221

Who should be responsible for approving the cost of controls to be implemented for mitigating risk?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Risk owner

C.

Control owner

D.

Control implementer

Question 222

Senior management has asked the risk practitioner for the overall residual risk level for a process that contains numerous risk scenarios. Which of the following should be provided?

Options:

A.

The sum of residual risk levels for each scenario

B.

The loss expectancy for aggregated risk scenarios

C.

The highest loss expectancy among the risk scenarios

D.

The average of anticipated residual risk levels

Question 223

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement when implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) system?

Options:

A.

Identifying users who have access

B.

Selecting an encryption solution

C.

Defining the data retention period

D.

Determining the value of data

Question 224

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

Question 225

A risk practitioner is performing a risk assessment of recent external advancements in quantum computing. Which of the following would pose the GREATEST concern for the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The organization has incorporated blockchain technology in its operations.

B.

The organization has not reviewed its encryption standards.

C.

The organization has implemented heuristics on its network firewall.

D.

The organization has not adopted Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) for its operations.

Question 226

What is senior management's role in the RACI model when tasked with reviewing monthly status reports provided by risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountable

B.

Informed

C.

Responsible

D.

Consulted

Question 227

Which of the following is BEST used to aggregate data from multiple systems to identify abnormal behavior?

Options:

A.

Cyber threat intelligence

B.

Anti-malware software

C.

Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

D.

SIEM systems

Question 228

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?

Options:

A.

To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization

B.

To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls

C.

To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements

D.

To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register

Question 229

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

Question 230

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

Question 231

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team's deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

Question 232

To minimize the risk of a potential acquisition being exposed externally, an organization has selected a few key employees to be engaged in the due diligence process. A member of the due diligence team realizes a close acquaintance is a high-ranking IT professional at a subsidiary of the company about to be acquired. What is the BEST course of action for this team member?

Options:

A.

Enforce segregation of duties.

B.

Disclose potential conflicts of interest.

C.

Delegate responsibilities involving the acquaintance.

D.

Notify the subsidiary's legal team.

Question 233

Which of the following is MOST critical when designing controls?

Options:

A.

Involvement of internal audit

B.

Involvement of process owner

C.

Quantitative impact of the risk

D.

Identification of key risk indicators

Question 234

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's MOST important responsibility in managing risk acceptance that exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Verify authorization by senior management.

B.

Increase the risk appetite to align with the current risk level

C.

Ensure the acceptance is set to expire over lime

D.

Update the risk response in the risk register.

Question 235

In an organization where each division manages risk independently, which of the following would BEST enable management of risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

A standardized risk taxonomy

B.

A list of control deficiencies

C.

An enterprise risk ownership policy

D.

An updated risk tolerance metric

Question 236

An organization is moving its critical assets to the cloud. Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to include in the service level agreement (SLA)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of standard supplier uptime

B.

Average time to respond to incidents

C.

Number of assets included in recovery processes

D.

Number of key applications hosted

Question 237

Which of the following outcomes of disaster recovery planning is MOST important to enable the initiation of necessary actions during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Definition of disaster recovery plan (DRP) scope and key stakeholders

B.

Recovery time and maximum acceptable data loss thresholds

C.

A checklist including equipment, location of data backups, and backup sites

D.

A list of business areas and critical functions subject to risk analysis

Question 238

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 239

After an annual risk assessment is completed, which of the following would be MOST important to communicate to stakeholders?

Options:

A.

A decrease in threats

B.

A change in the risk profile

C.

An increase in reported vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in identified risk scenarios

Question 240

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of updating the risk register to include outcomes from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

It maintains evidence of compliance with risk policy.

B.

It facilitates timely risk-based decisions.

C.

It validates the organization's risk appetite.

D.

It helps to mitigate internal and external risk factors.

Question 241

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

Question 242

What is the BEST information to present to business control owners when justifying costs related to controls?

Options:

A.

Loss event frequency and magnitude

B.

The previous year's budget and actuals

C.

Industry benchmarks and standards

D.

Return on IT security-related investments

Question 243

An organization has decided to commit to a business activity with the knowledge that the risk exposure is higher than the risk appetite. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's MOST important action related to this decision?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation

B.

Change the level of risk appetite

C.

Document formal acceptance of the risk

D.

Reject the business initiative

Question 244

An organizations chief technology officer (CTO) has decided to accept the risk associated with the potential loss from a denial-of-service (DoS) attack. In this situation, the risk practitioner's BEST course of action is to:

Options:

A.

identify key risk indicators (KRls) for ongoing monitoring

B.

validate the CTO's decision with the business process owner

C.

update the risk register with the selected risk response

D.

recommend that the CTO revisit the risk acceptance decision.

Question 245

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Question 246

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Question 247

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an independent review of a risk management process?

Options:

A.

Accuracy of risk tolerance levels

B.

Consistency of risk process results

C.

Participation of stakeholders

D.

Maturity of the process

Question 248

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to establish the root cause of an IT security incident?

Options:

A.

Prepare a report for senior management.

B.

Assign responsibility and accountability for the incident.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Avoid recurrence of the incident.

Question 249

An organization has provided legal text explaining the rights and expected behavior of users accessing a system from geographic locations that have strong privacy regulations. Which of the following control types has been applied?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Directive

C.

Preventive

D.

Compensating

Question 250

Which stakeholder is MOST important to include when defining a risk profile during me selection process for a new third party application'?

Options:

A.

The third-party risk manager

B.

The application vendor

C.

The business process owner

D.

The information security manager

Question 251

An organization has operations in a location that regularly experiences severe weather events. Which of the following would BEST help to mitigate the risk to operations?

Options:

A.

Prepare a cost-benefit analysis to evaluate relocation.

B.

Prepare a disaster recovery plan (DRP).

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA) for an alternate location.

D.

Develop a business continuity plan (BCP).

Question 252

Which of the following is MOST important to determine as a result of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Process ownership

B.

Risk appetite statement

C.

Risk tolerance levels

D.

Risk response options

Question 253

A global organization has implemented an application that does not address all privacy requirements across multiple jurisdictions. Which of the following risk responses has the organization adopted with regard to privacy requirements?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance

B.

Risk transfer

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk acceptance

Question 254

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform ongoing risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Emerging risk must be continuously reported to management.

B.

New system vulnerabilities emerge at frequent intervals.

C.

The risk environment is subject to change.

D.

The information security budget must be justified.

Question 255

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

Question 256

An organization's IT department wants to complete a proof of concept (POC) for a security tool. The project lead has asked for approval to use the production data for testing purposes as it will yield the best results. Which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Accept the risk of using the production data to ensure accurate results.

B.

Assess the risk of using production data for testing before making a decision.

C.

Benchmark against what peer organizations are doing with POC testing environments.

D.

Deny the request, as production data should not be used for testing purposes.

Question 257

Which of the following is the GREATEST impact of implementing a risk mitigation strategy?

Options:

A.

Improved alignment with business goals.

B.

Reduction of residual risk.

C.

Increased costs due to control implementation.

D.

Decreased overall risk appetite.

Question 258

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

Question 259

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

Question 260

Which of the following is the BEST method to ensure a terminated employee's access to IT systems is revoked upon departure from the organization?

Options:

A.

Login attempts are reconciled to a list of terminated employees.

B.

A list of terminated employees is generated for reconciliation against current IT access.

C.

A process to remove employee access during the exit interview is implemented.

D.

The human resources (HR) system automatically revokes system access.

Question 261

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

Question 262

Which of the following will BEST help in communicating strategic risk priorities?

Options:

A.

Heat map

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Balanced Scorecard

D.

Risk register

Question 263

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with inappropriate classification of data?

Options:

A.

Inaccurate record management data

B.

Inaccurate recovery time objectives (RTOs)

C.

Lack of accountability for data ownership

D.

Users having unauthorized access to data

Question 264

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting a root cause analysis following an incident?

Options:

A.

To reduce incident response times defined in SLAs

B.

To satisfy senior management expectations for incident response

C.

To ensure risk has been reduced to acceptable levels

D.

To minimize the likelihood of future occurrences

Question 265

An incentive program is MOST likely implemented to manage the risk associated with loss of which organizational asset?

Options:

A.

Employees

B.

Data

C.

Reputation

D.

Customer lists

Question 266

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager to exclude an in-scope system from a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Postpone the risk assessment.

B.

Facilitate the exception process.

C.

Accept the manager's request.

D.

Reject the manager's request.

Question 267

What is the PRIMARY role of the application owner when changes are being introduced into an existing environment?

Options:

A.

Determining possible losses due to downtime during the changes

B.

Updating control procedures and documentation

C.

Approving the proposed changes based on impact analysis

D.

Notifying owners of affected systems after the changes are implemented

Question 268

A chief information officer (CIO) has identified risk associated with shadow systems being maintained by business units to address specific functionality gaps in the organization'senterprise resource planning (ERP) system. What is the BEST way to reduce this risk going forward?

Options:

A.

Align applications to business processes.

B.

Implement an enterprise architecture (EA).

C.

Define the software development life cycle (SDLC).

D.

Define enterprise-wide system procurement requirements.

Question 269

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

Question 270

The GREATEST benefit of including low-probability, high-impact events in a risk assessment is the ability to:

Options:

A.

develop a comprehensive risk mitigation strategy

B.

develop understandable and realistic risk scenarios

C.

identify root causes for relevant events

D.

perform an aggregated cost-benefit analysis

Question 271

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

Question 272

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's PRIMARY focus when tasked with ensuring organization records are being retained for a sufficient period of time to meet legal obligations?

Options:

A.

Data duplication processes

B.

Data archival processes

C.

Data anonymization processes

D.

Data protection processes

Question 273

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

Question 274

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT step after learning of an incident that has affected a competitor?

Options:

A.

Activate the incident response plan.

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Develop risk scenarios.

Question 275

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 276

Which of the following is necessary to enable an IT risk register to be consolidated with the rest of the organization’s risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk taxonomy

B.

Risk response

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk ranking

Question 277

The MOST important reason to monitor key risk indicators (KRIs) is to help management:

Options:

A.

identity early risk transfer strategies.

B.

lessen the impact of realized risk.

C.

analyze the chain of risk events.

D.

identify the root cause of risk events.

Question 278

When documenting a risk response, which of the following provides the STRONGEST evidence to support the decision?

Options:

A.

Verbal majority acceptance of risk by committee

B.

List of compensating controls

C.

IT audit follow-up responses

D.

A memo indicating risk acceptance

Question 279

Which process is MOST effective to determine relevance of threats for risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability assessment

B.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 280

Which of the following indicates an organization follows IT risk management best practice?

Options:

A.

The risk register template uses an industry standard.

B.

The risk register is regularly updated.

C.

All fields in the risk register have been completed.

D.

Controls are listed against risk entries in the register.

Question 281

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when continuously monitoring the performance of a client-facing application?

Options:

A.

Objectives are confirmed with the business owner.

B.

Control owners approve control changes.

C.

End-user acceptance testing has been conducted.

D.

Performance information in the log is encrypted.

Question 282

When an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) has a reciprocal agreement, which of the following risk treatment options is being applied?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Mitigation

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

Question 283

The BEST way for an organization to ensure that servers are compliant to security policy is

to review:

Options:

A.

change logs.

B.

configuration settings.

C.

server access logs.

D.

anti-malware compliance.

Question 284

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

Options:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization's risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization's vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

Question 285

When reviewing management's IT control self-assessments, a risk practitioner noted an ineffective control that links to several low residual risk scenarios. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Assess management's risk tolerance.

B.

Recommend management accept the low-risk scenarios.

C.

Propose mitigating controls

D.

Re-evaluate the risk scenarios associated with the control

Question 286

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 287

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

Question 288

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining the value of an asset during the risk identification process?

Options:

A.

The criticality of the asset

B.

The monetary value of the asset

C.

The vulnerability profile of the asset

D.

The size of the asset's user base

Question 289

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for prioritizing risk mitigation?

Options:

A.

Cost of risk mitigation

B.

Asset criticality

C.

Acceptable risk level

D.

Business impact assessment

Question 290

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

Options:

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

Question 291

Which of the following describes the relationship between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite is completely independent of risk tolerance.

B.

Risk tolerance is used to determine risk appetite.

C.

Risk appetite and risk tolerance are synonymous.

D.

Risk tolerance may exceed risk appetite.

Question 292

Options:

A.

Risk tolerance

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk capacity

Question 293

Options:

A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

Question 294

Which of the following is a crucial component of a key risk indicator (KRI) to ensure appropriate action is taken to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Management intervention

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Board commentary

D.

Escalation triggers

Question 295

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes in the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Monitor key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Monitor key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Interview the risk owner.

D.

Conduct a gap analysis

Question 296

Reviewing historical risk events is MOST useful for which of the following processes within the risk management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Risk monitoring

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk aggregation

D.

Risk assessment

Question 297

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

Options:

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

Question 298

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to ensure once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk owner has validated outcomes.

B.

The risk register has been updated.

C.

The control objectives are mapped to risk objectives.

D.

The requirements have been achieved.

Question 299

A chief risk officer (CRO) has asked to have the IT risk register integrated into the enterprise risk management (ERM) process. Which of the following will BEST facilitate the reporting of IT risk at the enterprise level?

Options:

A.

Aggregating the IT risk scenarios into a maturity benchmark value

B.

Using an IT risk heat map to depict likelihood and impact

C.

Using the same risk taxonomy across the organization

D.

Providing a summary of open IT risk-related audit findings

Question 300

Which of the following BEST enables effective IT control implementation?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Documented procedures

C.

Information security policies

D.

Information security standards

Question 301

After the implementation of internal of Things (IoT) devices, new risk scenarios were identified. What is the PRIMARY reason to report this information to risk owners?

Options:

A.

To reevaluate continued use to IoT devices

B.

The add new controls to mitigate the risk

C.

The recommend changes to the IoT policy

D.

To confirm the impact to the risk profile

Question 302

Which of The following is the MOST comprehensive input to the risk assessment process specific to the effects of system downtime?

Options:

A.

Business continuity plan (BCP) testing results

B.

Recovery lime objective (RTO)

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

results Recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 303

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

Question 304

Which organization is implementing a project to automate the purchasing process, including the modification of approval controls. Which of the following tasks is lie responsibility of the risk practitioner*?

Options:

A.

Verify that existing controls continue to properly mitigate defined risk

B.

Test approval process controls once the project is completed

C.

Update the existing controls for changes in approval processes from this project

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted control processes

Question 305

An organization has allowed several employees to retire early in order to avoid layoffs Many of these employees have been subject matter experts for critical assets Which type of risk is MOST likely to materialize?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality breach

B.

Institutional knowledge loss

C.

Intellectual property loss

D.

Unauthorized access

Question 306

Which of the following would be the BEST way to help ensure the effectiveness of a data loss prevention (DLP) control that has been implemented to prevent the loss of credit card data?

Options:

A.

Testing the transmission of credit card numbers

B.

Reviewing logs for unauthorized data transfers

C.

Configuring the DLP control to block credit card numbers

D.

Testing the DLP rule change control process

Question 307

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

Question 308

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

Options:

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

Question 309

Who is MOST appropriate to be assigned ownership of a control

Options:

A.

The individual responsible for control operation

B.

The individual informed of the control effectiveness

C.

The individual responsible for resting the control

D.

The individual accountable for monitoring control effectiveness

Question 310

An organization has raised the risk appetite for technology risk. The MOST likely result would be:

Options:

A.

increased inherent risk.

B.

higher risk management cost

C.

decreased residual risk.

D.

lower risk management cost.

Question 311

Which of the following BEST enables a proactive approach to minimizing the potential impact of unauthorized data disclosure?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Data backups

C.

Incident response plan

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 312

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

Question 313

When testing the security of an IT system, il is MOST important to ensure that;

Options:

A.

tests are conducted after business hours.

B.

operators are unaware of the test.

C.

external experts execute the test.

D.

agreement is obtained from stakeholders.

Question 314

When of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) to determine the effectiveness of en intrusion prevention system (IPS)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of system uptime

B.

Percentage of relevant threats mitigated

C.

Total number of threats identified

D.

Reaction time of the system to threats

Question 315

Which of the following s MOST likely to deter an employee from engaging in inappropriate use of company owned IT systems?

Options:

A.

A centralized computer security response team

B.

Regular performance reviews and management check-ins

C.

Code of ethics training for all employees

D.

Communication of employee activity monitoring

Question 316

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

Question 317

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

Options:

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

Question 318

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

Question 319

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy

B.

Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices

C.

Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls

D.

Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program

Question 320

Which of the following techniques is MOST helpful when quantifying the potential loss impact of cyber risk?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Penetration testing

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Security assessment

Question 321

Risk management strategies are PRIMARILY adopted to:

Options:

A.

take necessary precautions for claims and losses.

B.

achieve acceptable residual risk levels.

C.

avoid risk for business and IT assets.

D.

achieve compliance with legal requirements.

Question 322

Which of the following methods is the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of automated information security controls prior to going live?

Options:

A.

Testing in a non-production environment

B.

Performing a security control review

C.

Reviewing the security audit report

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

Question 323

Which of the following would be of GREATEST assistance when justifying investment in risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Total cost of ownership

B.

Resource dependency analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Business impact analysis

Question 324

When developing a risk awareness training program, which of the following training topics would BEST facilitate a thorough understanding of risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Mapping threats to organizational objectives

B.

Reviewing past audits

C.

Analyzing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Identifying potential sources of risk

Question 325

An IT project risk was identified during a monthly steering committee meeting. Which of the following roles is BEST positioned to approve the risk mitigation response?

Options:

A.

Product owner

B.

IT manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

Project coordinator

Question 326

Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?

Options:

A.

Number of projects going live without a security review

B.

Number of employees completing project-specific security training

C.

Number of security projects started in core departments

D.

Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers

Question 327

A poster has been displayed in a data center that reads. "Anyone caught taking photographs in the data center may be subject to disciplinary action." Which of the following control types has been implemented?

Options:

A.

Corrective

B.

Detective

C.

Deterrent

D.

Preventative

Question 328

A bank recently incorporated Blockchain technology with the potential to impact known risk within the organization. Which of the following is the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine whether risk responses are still adequate.

B.

Analyze and update control assessments with the new processes.

C.

Analyze the risk and update the risk register as needed.

D.

Conduct testing of the control that mitigate the existing risk.

Question 329

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a vulnerability remediation program is the number of:

Options:

A.

vulnerability scans.

B.

recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

vulnerabilities remediated,

D.

new vulnerabilities identified.

Question 330

An organization is considering allowing users to access company data from their personal devices. Which of the following is the MOST important factor when assessing the risk?

Options:

A.

Classification of the data

B.

Type of device

C.

Remote management capabilities

D.

Volume of data

Question 331

Which of the following is MOST likely to be identified from an information systems audit report?

Options:

A.

Resiliency

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Data ownership

D.

Vulnerabilities

Question 332

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

Question 333

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

Question 334

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management's risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

Question 335

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

Question 336

An organization has established a single enterprise-wide risk register that records high-level risk scenarios. The IT risk department has created its own register to record more granular scenarios applicable to IT. Which of the following is the BEST way to ensure alignment between these two registers?

Options:

A.

Map the granular risk scenarios to the high-level risk register items.

B.

List application and server vulnerabilities in the IT risk register.

C.

Identify overlapping risk scenarios between the two registers.

D.

Maintain both high-level and granular risk scenarios in a single register.

Question 337

To reduce the risk introduced when conducting penetration tests, the BEST mitigating control would be to:

Options:

A.

require the vendor to sign a nondisclosure agreement

B.

clearly define the project scope.

C.

perform background checks on the vendor.

D.

notify network administrators before testing

Question 338

Which of the following events is MOST likely to trigger the need to conduct a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

An incident resulting in data loss

B.

Changes in executive management

C.

Updates to the information security policy

D.

Introduction of a new product line

Question 339

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

Options:

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

Question 340

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when establishing an organization's risk management methodology?

Options:

A.

Business context

B.

Risk tolerance level

C.

Resource requirements

D.

Benchmarking information

Question 341

The PRIMARY purpose of using control metrics is to evaluate the:

Options:

A.

amount of risk reduced by compensating controls.

B.

amount of risk present in the organization.

C.

variance against objectives.

D.

number of incidents.

Question 342

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to report on changes or trends related to an organization's IT risk profile?

Options:

A.

To benchmark against a risk management framework

B.

To predict external regulatory changes

C.

To adapt to emerging threats

D.

To reduce the cost of performing control activities

Question 343

An organization is participating in an industry benchmarking study that involves providing customer transaction records for analysis Which of the following is the MOST important control to ensure the privacy of customer information?

Options:

A.

Nondisclosure agreements (NDAs)

B.

Data anonymization

C.

Data cleansing

D.

Data encryption

Question 344

Key risk indicators (KRIs) are MOST useful during which of the following risk management phases?

Options:

A.

Monitoring

B.

Analysis

C.

Identification

D.

Response selection

Question 345

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of a control monitoring program?

Options:

A.

Time between control failure and failure detection

B.

Number of key controls as a percentage of total control count

C.

Time spent on internal control assessment reviews

D.

Number of internal control failures within the measurement period

Question 346

A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low. Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform their own risk assessment

B.

Implement additional controls to address the risk.

C.

Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment

D.

Perform an independent audit of the third party.

Question 347

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

Options:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

Question 348

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 349

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

Question 350

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence of a control's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

A risk and control self-assessment

B.

Senior management's attestation

C.

A system-generated testing report

D.

detailed process walk-through

Question 351

Periodically reviewing and updating a risk register with details on identified risk factors PRIMARILY helps to:

Options:

A.

minimize the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment.

B.

aggregate risk scenarios identified across different business units.

C.

build a threat profile of the organization for management review.

D.

provide a current reference to stakeholders for risk-based decisions.

Question 352

Which of the following BEST balances the costs and benefits of managing IT risk*?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing and addressing risk in line with risk appetite. Eliminating risk through preventive and detective controls

B.

Considering risk that can be shared with a third party

C.

Evaluating the probability and impact of risk scenarios

Question 353

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to present an annual risk management update to the board''

Options:

A.

A summary of risk response plans with validation results

B.

A report with control environment assessment results

C.

A dashboard summarizing key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

A summary of IT risk scenarios with business cases

Question 354

Options:

A.

Some risk remediation activities from the last assessment are still in progress.

B.

The risk scenarios have never been updated.

C.

The risk scenario development process was led by an external consultant.

D.

The number of risk scenarios is very high.

Question 355

Which of the following provides The MOST useful information when determining a risk management program's maturity level?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

A recently reviewed risk register

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

The organization's risk framework

Question 356

Senior management has requested a risk practitioner's guidance on whether

a new technical control requested by a business unit is worth the investment.

Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration before

providing input?

Options:

A.

The cost of the control relative to the value of risk mitigation

B.

The effectiveness of the control at reducing residual risk levels

C.

The likelihood of a successful attack based on current risk

D.

assessments

E.

The availabilitv of budgeted funds for risk mitigationMitination

Question 357

After undertaking a risk assessment of a production system, the MOST appropriate action is for the risk manager to:

Options:

A.

recommend a program that minimizes the concerns of that production system.

B.

inform the development team of the concerns, and together formulate risk reduction measures.

C.

inform the process owner of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them

D.

inform the IT manager of the concerns and propose measures to reduce them.

Question 358

Which of the following is MOST important to include when reporting the effectiveness of risk management to senior management?

Options:

A.

Changes in the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance levels

B.

Impact due to changes in external and internal risk factors

C.

Changes in residual risk levels against acceptable levels

D.

Gaps in best practices and implemented controls across the industry

Question 359

Which of the following is MOST likely to be impacted as a result of a new policy which allows staff members to remotely connect to the organization's IT systems via personal or public computers?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 360

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the lack of proper control monitoring?

Options:

A.

There is potential for an increase in audit findings

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs) may not be reliable

C.

The potential for risk realization is increased

D.

Control inefficiencies may go undetected

Question 361

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Question 362

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

Question 363

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

Question 364

The risk associated with an asset after controls are applied can be expressed as:

Options:

A.

a function of the cost and effectiveness of controls.

B.

the likelihood of a given threat.

C.

a function of the likelihood and impact.

D.

the magnitude of an impact.

Question 365

An organization has four different projects competing for funding to reduce overall IT risk. Which project should management defer?

as

Options:

A.

Project Charlie

B.

Project Bravo

C.

Project Alpha

D.

Project Delta

Question 366

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner's MOST important action upon learning that an IT control has failed?

Options:

A.

Implement a replacement control.

B.

Adjust residual risk rating.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Review compensating controls.

Question 367

An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Process owner

C.

Risk manager

D.

Internal auditor

Question 368

An organization has an internal control that requires all access for employees be removed within 15 days of their termination date. Which of the following should the risk practitioner use to monitor

adherence to the 15-day threshold?

Options:

A.

Operation level agreement (OLA)

B.

Service level agreement (SLA)

C.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 369

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner's approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 370

Which of the following stakeholders are typically included as part of a line of defense within the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Vendors

C.

Regulators

D.

Legal team

Question 371

Which of the following is the MOST important data source for monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Directives from legal and regulatory authorities

B.

Audit reports from internal information systems audits

C.

Automated logs collected from different systems

D.

Trend analysis of external risk factors

Question 372

Which of the following would be the GREATEST concern for an IT risk practitioner when an employees.....

Options:

A.

The organization's structure has not been updated

B.

Unnecessary access permissions have not been removed.

C.

Company equipment has not been retained by IT

D.

Job knowledge was not transferred to employees m the former department

Question 373

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

Question 374

Risk appetite should be PRIMARILY driven by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Enterprise security architecture roadmap

B.

Stakeholder requirements

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 375

Which of the following should be management's PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

Question 376

A business is conducting a proof of concept on a vendor’s AI technology. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Use of a non-production environment

B.

Regular security updates

C.

Third-party management plan

D.

Adequate vendor support

Question 377

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when evaluating plans for changes to IT services?

Options:

A.

Change testing schedule

B.

Impact assessment of the change

C.

Change communication plan

D.

User acceptance testing (UAT)

Question 378

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Question 379

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with redundant data in an organization's inventory system?

Options:

A.

Poor access control

B.

Unnecessary data storage usage

C.

Data inconsistency

D.

Unnecessary costs of program changes

Question 380

Which of the following is the MOST important foundational element of an effective three lines of defense model for an organization?

Options:

A.

A robust risk aggregation tool set

B.

Clearly defined roles and responsibilities

C.

A well-established risk management committee

D.

Well-documented and communicated escalation procedures

Question 381

An assessment of information security controls has identified ineffective controls. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Determine whether the impact is outside the risk appetite.

B.

Request a formal acceptance of risk from senior management.

C.

Report the ineffective control for inclusion in the next audit report.

D.

Deploy a compensating control to address the identified deficiencies.

Question 382

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

Question 383

Which of the following would be MOST helpful when estimating the likelihood of negative events?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis

B.

Threat analysis

C.

Risk response analysis

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 384

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Data owner

C.

System owner

D.

Application owner

Question 385

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization's risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

Question 386

For no apparent reason, the time required to complete daily processing for a legacy application is approaching a risk threshold. Which of the following activities should be performed FIRST?

Options:

A.

Temporarily increase the risk threshold.

B.

Suspend processing to investigate the problem.

C.

Initiate a feasibility study for a new application.

D.

Conduct a root-cause analysis.

Question 387

A management team is on an aggressive mission to launch a new product to penetrate new markets and overlooks IT risk factors, threats, and vulnerabilities. This scenario BEST demonstrates an organization's risk:

Options:

A.

management.

B.

tolerance.

C.

culture.

D.

analysis.

Question 388

An organization uses a vendor to destroy hard drives. Which of the following would BEST reduce the risk of data leakage?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to degauss the hard drives

B.

Implement an encryption policy for the hard drives.

C.

Require confirmation of destruction from the IT manager.

D.

Use an accredited vendor to dispose of the hard drives.

Question 389

A risk owner should be the person accountable for:

Options:

A.

the risk management process

B.

managing controls.

C.

implementing actions.

D.

the business process.

Question 390

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

Question 391

A newly enacted information privacy law significantly increases financial penalties for breaches of personally identifiable information (Pll). Which of the following will MOST likely outcome for an organization affected by the new law?

Options:

A.

Increase in compliance breaches

B.

Increase in loss event impact

C.

Increase in residual risk

D.

Increase in customer complaints

Question 392

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an anti-virus program?

Options:

A.

Frequency of anti-virus software updates

B.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

C.

Number of false positives detected over a period of time

D.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

Question 393

The PRIMARY reason a risk practitioner would be interested in an internal audit report is to:

Options:

A.

plan awareness programs for business managers.

B.

evaluate maturity of the risk management process.

C.

assist in the development of a risk profile.

D.

maintain a risk register based on noncompliance.

Question 394

A MAJOR advantage of using key risk indicators (KRIs) is that they:

Options:

A.

Identify scenarios that exceed defined risk appetite.

B.

Help with internal control assessments concerning risk appetite.

C.

Assess risk scenarios that exceed defined thresholds.

D.

Identify when risk exceeds defined thresholds.

Question 395

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

Question 396

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

Options:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

Question 397

A risk practitioner has identified that the organization's secondary data center does not provide redundancy for a critical application. Who should have the authority to accept the associated risk?

Options:

A.

Business continuity director

B.

Disaster recovery manager

C.

Business application owner

D.

Data center manager

Question 398

Options:

A.

Accept the residual risk due to the low likelihood of occurrence.

B.

Implement additional mitigation measures.

C.

Determine whether residual risk is within risk appetite.

D.

Adopt a new risk assessment method to avoid the residual risk.

Question 399

Which of the following is the MOST effective control to maintain the integrity of system configuration files?

Options:

A.

Recording changes to configuration files

B.

Implementing automated vulnerability scanning

C.

Restricting access to configuration documentation

D.

Monitoring against the configuration standard

Question 400

An audit reveals that several terminated employee accounts maintain access. Which of the following should be the FIRST step to address the risk?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment

B.

Disable user access.

C.

Develop an access control policy.

D.

Perform root cause analysis.

Question 401

A company has located its computer center on a moderate earthquake fault. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when establishing a contingency plan and an alternate processing site?

Options:

A.

The alternative site is a hot site with equipment ready to resume processing immediately.

B.

The contingency plan provides for backup media to be taken to the alternative site.

C.

The contingency plan for high priority applications does not involve a shared cold site.

D.

The alternative site does not reside on the same fault to matter how the distance apart.

Question 402

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

Question 403

Which of the following would be a weakness in procedures for controlling the migration of changes to production libraries?

Options:

A.

The programming project leader solely reviews test results before approving the transfer to production.

B.

Test and production programs are in distinct libraries.

C.

Only operations personnel are authorized to access production libraries.

D.

A synchronized migration of executable and source code from the test environment to the production environment is allowed.

Question 404

A risk practitioner is defining metrics for security threats that were not identified by antivirus software. Which type of metric is being developed?

Options:

A.

Key control indicator (KCI)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

C.

Operational level agreement (OLA)

D.

Service level agreement (SLA)

Question 405

An organization learns of a new ransomware attack affecting organizations worldwide. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the likelihood of infection from the attack?

Options:

A.

Identify systems that are vulnerable to being exploited by the attack.

B.

Confirm with the antivirus solution vendor whether the next update will detect the attack.

C.

Verify the data backup process and confirm which backups are the most recent ones available.

D.

Obtain approval for funding to purchase a cyber insurance plan.

Question 406

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing risk strategies?

Options:

A.

Organization's industry sector

B.

Long-term organizational goals

C.

Concerns of the business process owners

D.

History of risk events

Question 407

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

Question 408

Which of the following proposed benefits is MOST likely to influence senior management approval to reallocate budget for a new security initiative?

Options:

A.

Reduction in the number of incidents

B.

Reduction in inherent risk

C.

Reduction in residual risk

D.

Reduction in the number of known vulnerabilities

Question 409

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization's risk tolerance.

Question 410

Which of the following is MOST important to the effectiveness of key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Management approval

B.

Annual review

C.

Relevance

D.

Automation

Question 411

When assigning control ownership, it is MOST important to verify that the owner has accountability for:

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness.

B.

The budget for control implementation.

C.

Assessment of control risk.

D.

Internal control audits.

Question 412

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

Options:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

Question 413

A risk practitioner is concerned with potential data loss in the event of a breach at a hosted third-party provider. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Include an indemnification clause in the provider's contract.

B.

Monitor provider performance against service level agreements (SLAs).

C.

Purchase cyber insurance to protect against data breaches.

D.

Ensure appropriate security controls are in place through independent audits.

Question 414

Which of the following presents the GREATEST privacy risk related to personal data processing for a global organization?

Options:

A.

Privacy risk awareness training has not been conducted across the organization.

B.

The organization has not incorporated privacy into its risk management framework.

C.

The organization allows staff with access to personal data to work remotely.

D.

Personal data processing occurs in an offshore location with a data sharing agreement.

Question 415

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

Options:

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

Question 416

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Question 417

Which of the following situations presents the GREATEST challenge to creating a comprehensive IT risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

Manual vulnerability scanning processes

B.

Organizational reliance on third-party service providers

C.

Inaccurate documentation of enterprise architecture (EA)

D.

Risk-averse organizational risk appetite

Question 418

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

Question 419

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

Options:

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

Question 420

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when a business unit wants to use personal information for a purpose other than for which it was originally collected?

Options:

A.

Informed consent

B.

Cross border controls

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Data breach protection

Question 421

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to validate that risk responses have been executed as outlined in the risk response plan''

Options:

A.

To ensure completion of the risk assessment cycle

B.

To ensure controls arc operating effectively

C.

To ensure residual risk Is at an acceptable level

D.

To ensure control costs do not exceed benefits

Question 422

Risk acceptance of an exception to a security control would MOST likely be justified when:

Options:

A.

automation cannot be applied to the control

B.

business benefits exceed the loss exposure.

C.

the end-user license agreement has expired.

D.

the control is difficult to enforce in practice.

Question 423

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRls) should be revised?

Options:

A.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

B.

An Increase In the number of risk threshold exceptions

C.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

D.

A decrease In the number of key performance indicators (KPls)

Question 424

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

Question 425

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

Question 426

Which of the following is the BEST way to promote adherence to the risk tolerance level set by management?

Options:

A.

Defining expectations in the enterprise risk policy

B.

Increasing organizational resources to mitigate risks

C.

Communicating external audit results

D.

Avoiding risks that could materialize into substantial losses

Question 427

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 428

Which of the following controls BEST enables an organization to ensure a complete and accurate IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

Prohibiting the use of personal devices for business

B.

Performing network scanning for unknown devices

C.

Requesting an asset list from business owners

D.

Documenting asset configuration baselines

Question 429

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the implementation of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Implementing a data toss prevention (DLP) solution

B.

Assigning a data owner

C.

Scheduling periodic audits

D.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

Question 430

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

Question 431

What is a risk practitioner's BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

Question 432

An organization’s board of directors is concerned about recent data breaches in the news and wants to assess its exposure to similar scenarios. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the organization's existing data protection controls.

B.

Reassess the risk appetite and tolerance levels of the business.

C.

Evaluate the sensitivity of data that the business needs to handle.

D.

Review the organization’s data retention policy and regulatory requirements.

Question 433

Which of the following is MOST important to review when evaluating the ongoing effectiveness of the IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The costs associated with mitigation options

B.

The status of identified risk scenarios

C.

The cost-benefit analysis of each risk response

D.

The timeframes for risk response actions

Question 434

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

Options:

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

Question 435

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

Question 436

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

Options:

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider's control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider's control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

Question 437

An organization is implementing Zero Trust architecture to improve its security posture. Which of the following is the MOST important input to develop the architecture?

Options:

A.

Cloud services risk assessments

B.

The organization's threat model

C.

Access control logs

D.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) architecture

Question 438

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?

Options:

A.

Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.

B.

Obtain management's consent to accept the risk.

C.

Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.

D.

Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.

Question 439

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization's disaster recovery plan (DRP) will mitigate the risk of the organization failing to recover from a major service disruption?

Options:

A.

An experienced and certified disaster recovery team

B.

A record of quarterly disaster recovery tests

C.

A comprehensive list of critical applications

D.

A defined recovery point objective (RPO)

Question 440

The PRIMARY objective of a risk identification process is to:

Options:

A.

evaluate how risk conditions are managed.

B.

determine threats and vulnerabilities.

C.

estimate anticipated financial impact of risk conditions.

D.

establish risk response options.

Question 441

Which of the following BEST indicates that risk management is embedded into the responsibilities of all employees?

Options:

A.

The number of incidents has decreased over time

B.

Industry benchmarking is performed on an annual basis

C.

Risk management practices are audited on an annual basis

D.

Risk management practices are incorporated into business processes

Question 442

Within the three lines of defense model, the accountability for the system of internal control resides with:

Options:

A.

the chief information officer (CIO).

B.

the board of directors

C.

enterprise risk management

D.

the risk practitioner

Question 443

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

Question 444

Which of the following is the BEST way to identify changes to the risk landscape?

Options:

A.

Internal audit reports

B.

Access reviews

C.

Threat modeling

D.

Root cause analysis

Question 445

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line of defense in the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

B.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

C.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

D.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

Question 446

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization's risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 447

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of incorporating IT risk scenarios into the corporate risk register?

Options:

A.

Corporate incident escalation protocols are established.

B.

Exposure is integrated into the organization's risk profile.

C.

Risk appetite cascades to business unit management

D.

The organization-wide control budget is expanded.

Question 448

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

Question 449

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

Options:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

Question 450

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager's expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors' expertise

D.

The organization's culture

Question 451

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner's BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Question 452

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization's risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

Question 453

The BEST way to test the operational effectiveness of a data backup procedure is to:

Options:

A.

conduct an audit of files stored offsite.

B.

interview employees to compare actual with expected procedures.

C.

inspect a selection of audit trails and backup logs.

D.

demonstrate a successful recovery from backup files.

Question 454

After several security incidents resulting in significant financial losses, IT management has decided to outsource the security function to a third party that provides 24/7 security operation services. Which risk response option has management implemented?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 455

The PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review business processes is to:

Options:

A.

Benchmark against peer organizations.

B.

Identify appropriate controls within business processes.

C.

Assess compliance with global standards.

D.

Identify risk owners related to business processes.

Question 456

Which of the following practices MOST effectively safeguards the processing of personal data?

Options:

A.

Personal data attributed to a specific data subject is tokenized.

B.

Data protection impact assessments are performed on a regular basis.

C.

Personal data certifications are performed to prevent excessive data collection.

D.

Data retention guidelines are documented, established, and enforced.

Question 457

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

Risk heat map

C.

IT capacity

D.

Risk culture

Question 458

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

Question 459

A key risk indicator (KRI) is reported to senior management on a periodic basis as exceeding thresholds, but each time senior management has decided to take no action to reduce the risk. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for senior management's response?

Options:

A.

The underlying data source for the KRI is using inaccurate data and needs to be corrected.

B.

The KRI is not providing useful information and should be removed from the KRI inventory.

C.

The KRI threshold needs to be revised to better align with the organization s risk appetite

D.

Senior management does not understand the KRI and should undergo risk training.

Question 460

An organization is analyzing the risk of shadow IT usage. Which of the following is the MOST important input into the assessment?

Options:

A.

Business benefits of shadow IT

B.

Application-related expresses

C.

Classification of the data

D.

Volume of data

Question 461

An organization has outsourced its ERP application to an external SaaS provider. Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to identify risk scenarios involving data loss?

Options:

A.

Data classification schemes

B.

Industry data breach reports

C.

Data storage locations

D.

Data flow documentation

Question 462

Which of the following is MOST important for mitigating ethical risk when establishing accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Ensuring processes are documented to enable effective control execution

B.

Ensuring regular risk messaging is Included in business communications from leadership

C.

Ensuring schedules and deadlines for control-related deliverables are strictly monitored

D.

Ensuring performance metrics balance business goals with risk appetite

Question 463

Which of the following is a risk practitioner's BEST course of action after identifying risk scenarios related to noncompliance with new industry regulations?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management.

B.

Transfer the risk.

C.

Implement monitoring controls.

D.

Recalculate the risk.

Question 464

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 465

The BEST way to mitigate the high cost of retrieving electronic evidence associated with potential litigation is to implement policies and procedures for.

Options:

A.

data logging and monitoring

B.

data mining and analytics

C.

data classification and labeling

D.

data retention and destruction

Question 466

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

Question 467

Which of the following situations would BEST justify escalation to senior management?

Options:

A.

Residual risk exceeds acceptable limits.

B.

Residual risk is inadequately recorded.

C.

Residual risk remains after controls have been applied.

D.

Residual risk equals current risk.

Question 468

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 469

A risk practitioner recently discovered that personal information from the production environment is required for testing purposes in non-production environments. Which of the following is the BEST recommendation to address this situation?

Options:

A.

Enable data encryption in the test environment.

B.

Prevent the use of production data in the test environment

C.

De-identify data before being transferred to the test environment.

D.

Enforce multi-factor authentication within the test environment.

Question 470

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

Options:

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

Question 471

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

Question 472

Key risk indicators (KRIs) BEST support risk treatment when they:

Options:

A.

Set performance expectations for controls.

B.

Align with key business objectives.

C.

Indicate that the risk is approaching predefined thresholds.

D.

Articulate likelihood and impact in quantitative terms.

Question 473

Who is accountable for authorizing application access in a cloud Software as a Service (SaaS) solution?

Options:

A.

Cloud service provider

B.

IT department

C.

Senior management

D.

Business unit owner

Question 474

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Providing assurance of the effectiveness of risk management activities

B.

Providing guidance on the design of effective controls

C.

Providing advisory services on enterprise risk management (ERM)

D.

Providing benchmarking on other organizations' risk management programs

Question 475

An organization is adopting block chain for a new financial system. Which of the following should be the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner evaluating the system's production readiness?

Options:

A.

Limited organizational knowledge of the underlying technology

B.

Lack of commercial software support

C.

Varying costs related to implementation and maintenance

D.

Slow adoption of the technology across the financial industry

Question 476

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner'$ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization's risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

Question 477

An organization planning to transfer and store its customer data with an offshore cloud service provider should be PRIMARILY concerned with:

Options:

A.

data aggregation

B.

data privacy

C.

data quality

D.

data validation

Question 478

Which of the following is the MOST useful input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Common attacks in other industries

B.

Identification of risk events

C.

Impact on critical assets

D.

Probability of disruptive risk events

Question 479

An organization delegates its data processing to the internal IT team to manage information through its applications. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data processors

C.

Data custodians

D.

Data owners

Question 480

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

Question 481

The MAIN purpose of conducting a control self-assessment (CSA) is to:

Options:

A.

gain a better understanding of the control effectiveness in the organization

B.

gain a better understanding of the risk in the organization

C.

adjust the controls prior to an external audit

D.

reduce the dependency on external audits

Question 482

An organization is increasingly concerned about loss of sensitive data and asks the risk practitioner to assess the current risk level. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Identify staff members who have access to the organization's sensitive data.

B.

Identify locations where the organization's sensitive data is stored.

C.

Identify risk scenarios and owners associated with possible data loss vectors.

D.

Identify existing data loss controls and their levels of effectiveness.

Question 483

Which of the following BEST enables the integration of IT risk management across an organization?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) framework

B.

Enterprise-wide risk awareness training

C.

Robust risk reporting practices

D.

Risk management policies

Question 484

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to verify that management has addressed control issues identified during a previous external audit?

Options:

A.

Interview control owners.

B.

Observe the control enhancements in operation.

C.

Inspect external audit documentation.

D.

Review management's detailed action plans.

Question 485

Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge for an IT risk practitioner who wants to report on trends in historical IT risk levels?

Options:

A.

Qualitative measures for potential loss events

B.

Changes in owners for identified IT risk scenarios

C.

Changes in methods used to calculate probability

D.

Frequent use of risk acceptance as a treatment option

Question 486

If preventive controls cannot be Implemented due to technology limitations, which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce risk7

Options:

A.

Evaluate alternative controls.

B.

Redefine the business process to reduce the risk.

C.

Develop a plan to upgrade technology.

D.

Define a process for monitoring risk.

Question 487

Which of the following is the PRIMARY factor in determining a recovery time objective (RTO)?

Options:

A.

Cost of offsite backup premises

B.

Cost of downtime due to a disaster

C.

Cost of testing the business continuity plan

D.

Response time of the emergency action plan

Question 488

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

C.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

D.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

Question 489

When collecting information to identify IT-related risk, a risk practitioner should FIRST focus on IT:

Options:

A.

risk appetite.

B.

security policies

C.

process maps.

D.

risk tolerance level

Question 490

Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?

Options:

A.

Lack of a mature records management program

B.

Lack of a dedicated asset management team

C.

Decentralized asset lists

D.

Incomplete asset inventory

Question 491

A peer review of a risk assessment finds that a relevant threat community was not included. Mitigation of the risk will require substantial changes to a software application. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Ask the business to make a budget request to remediate the problem.

B.

Build a business case to remediate the fix.

C.

Research the types of attacks the threat can present.

D.

Determine the impact of the missing threat.

Question 492

A recent risk workshop has identified risk owners and responses for newly identified risk scenarios. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Develop a mechanism for monitoring residual risk.

B.

Update the risk register with the results.

C.

Prepare a business case for the response options.

D.

Identify resources for implementing responses.

Question 493

The BEST indicator of the risk appetite of an organization is the

Options:

A.

regulatory environment of the organization

B.

risk management capability of the organization

C.

board of directors' response to identified risk factors

D.

importance assigned to IT in meeting strategic goals

Question 494

An organizational policy requires critical security patches to be deployed in production within three weeks of patch availability. Which of the following is the BEST metric to verify adherence to the policy?

Options:

A.

Maximum time gap between patch availability and deployment

B.

Percentage of critical patches deployed within three weeks

C.

Minimum time gap between patch availability and deployment

D.

Number of critical patches deployed within three weeks

Question 495

Options:

A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 496

Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining the effectiveness of an organization's IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

Assigning identification dates for risk scenarios in the risk register

B.

Updating impact assessments for risk scenario

C.

Verifying whether risk action plans have been completed

D.

Reviewing key risk indicators (KRIS)

Question 497

What is the MOST important consideration when selecting key performance indicators (KPIs) for control monitoring?

Options:

A.

Source information is acquired at stable cost.

B.

Source information is tailored by removing outliers.

C.

Source information is readily quantifiable.

D.

Source information is consistently available.

Question 498

Which of the following would provide the MOST objective assessment of the effectiveness of an organization's security controls?

Options:

A.

An internal audit

B.

Security operations center review

C.

Internal penetration testing

D.

A third-party audit

Question 499

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for protecting data assets m a Business application system?

Options:

A.

Application controls are aligned with data classification lutes

B.

Application users are periodically trained on proper data handling practices

C.

Encrypted communication is established between applications and data servers

D.

Offsite encrypted backups are automatically created by the application

Question 500

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

Question 501

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

B.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the intemnal control environment

Question 502

Which of the following is a KEY consideration for a risk practitioner to communicate to senior management evaluating the introduction of artificial intelligence (Al) solutions into the organization?

Options:

A.

Al requires entirely new risk management processes.

B.

Al potentially introduces new types of risk.

C.

Al will result in changes to business processes.

D.

Third-party Al solutions increase regulatory obligations.

Question 503

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for the board and senior leadership

regarding the organization's approach to risk management for emerging technologies?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the organization follows risk management industry best practices

B.

Ensuring IT risk scenarios are updated and include emerging technologies

C.

Ensuring the risk framework and policies are suitable for emerging technologies

D.

Ensuring threat intelligence services are used to gather data about emerging technologies

Question 504

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner's NEXT action after identifying a high probability of data loss in a system?

Options:

A.

Enhance the security awareness program.

B.

Increase the frequency of incident reporting.

C.

Purchase cyber insurance from a third party.

D.

Conduct a control assessment.

Question 505

Which of the following is PRIMARILY responsible for providing assurance to the board of directors and senior management during the evaluation of a risk management program implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Business units

C.

External audit

D.

Internal audit

Question 506

An organization operates in an environment where reduced time-to-market for new software products is a top business priority. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner's GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Sufficient resources are not assigned to IT development projects.

B.

Customer support help desk staff does not have adequate training.

C.

Email infrastructure does not have proper rollback plans.

D.

The corporate email system does not identify and store phishing emails.

Question 507

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure risk management practices are effective at all levels within the organization?

Options:

A.

Communicating risk awareness materials regularly

B.

Establishing key risk indicators (KRIs) to monitor risk management processes

C.

Ensuring that business activities minimize inherent risk

D.

Embedding risk management in business activities

Question 508

Which of the following is the BEST recommendation when a key risk indicator (KRI) is generating an excessive volume of events?

Options:

A.

Reevaluate the design of the KRIs.

B.

Develop a corresponding key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Monitor KRIs within a specific timeframe.

D.

Activate the incident response plan.

Question 509

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit to an organization when updates to the risk register are made promptly after the completion of a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Improved senior management communication

B.

Optimized risk treatment decisions

C.

Enhanced awareness of risk management

D.

Improved collaboration among risk professionals

Question 510

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

Options:

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

Question 511

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

Question 512

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

Options:

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

Question 513

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining the appropriate data retention period throughout the data management life cycle?

Options:

A.

Data storage and collection methods

B.

Data owner preferences

C.

Legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Choice of encryption algorithms

Question 514

An organization operates in an environment where the impact of ransomware attacks is high, with a low likelihood. After quantifying the impact of the risk associated with ransomware attacks exceeds the organization's risk appetite and tolerance, which of the following is the risk practitioner's BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Obtain adequate cybersecurity insurance coverage.

B.

Ensure business continuity assessments are up to date.

C.

Adjust the organization's risk appetite and tolerance.

D.

Obtain certification to a global information security standard.

Question 515

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting digital signature software?

Options:

A.

Availability

B.

Nonrepudiation

C.

Accuracy

D.

Completeness

Question 516

Who is accountable for the process when an IT stakeholder operates a key control to address a risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Data custodian

B.

Risk owner

C.

System owner

D.

IT manager

Question 517

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of business users completing risk training

B.

Percentage of high-risk scenarios for which risk action plans have been developed

C.

Number of key risk indicators (KRIs) defined

D.

Time between when IT risk scenarios are identified and the enterprise's response

Question 518

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization.

D.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization's risk profile.

Question 519

Which of the following is a PRIMARY objective of privacy impact assessments (PIAs)?

Options:

A.

To identify threats introduced by business processes

B.

To identify risk when personal information is collected

C.

To ensure senior management has approved the use of personal information

D.

To ensure compliance with data privacy laws and regulations

Question 520

Which of the following statements describes the relationship between key risk indicators (KRIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

KRI design must precede definition of KCIs.

B.

KCIs and KRIs are independent indicators and do not impact each other.

C.

A decreasing trend of KRI readings will lead to changes to KCIs.

D.

Both KRIs and KCIs provide insight to potential changes in the level of risk.

Question 521

In an organization with a mature risk management program, which of the following would provide the BEST evidence that the IT risk profile is up to date?

Options:

A.

Risk questionnaire

B.

Risk register

C.

Management assertion

D.

Compliance manual

Question 522

During testing, a risk practitioner finds the IT department's recovery time objective (RTO) for a key system does not align with the enterprise's business continuity plan (BCP). Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Report the gap to senior management

B.

Consult with the IT department to update the RTO

C.

Complete a risk exception form.

D.

Consult with the business owner to update the BCP

Question 523

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

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Total 1745 questions