Pre-Winter Sale Discount Flat 70% Offer - Ends in 0d 00h 00m 00s - Coupon code: 70diswrap

Isaca CRISC Dumps

Page: 1 / 198
Total 1975 questions

Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Questions and Answers

Question 1

Which of the following is the MOST significant risk related to an organization ' s use of AI technology?

Options:

A.

The AI system ' s contract does not include a right-to-audit clause

B.

The AI system is being used beyond its intended purpose

C.

The AI system is on unsupported infrastructure

D.

The AI system results have not been validated

Question 2

A risk practitioner is utilizing a risk heat map during a risk assessment. Risk events that are coded with the same color will have a similar:

Options:

A.

risk score

B.

risk impact

C.

risk response

D.

risk likelihood.

Question 3

When a high-risk security breach occurs, which of the following would be MOST important to the person responsible for managing the incident?

Options:

A.

An analysis of the security logs that illustrate the sequence of events

B.

An analysis of the impact of similar attacks in other organizations

C.

A business case for implementing stronger logical access controls

D.

A justification of corrective action taken

Question 4

A hospital recently implemented a new technology to allow virtual patient appointments. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess the risk profile.

B.

Modify the risk taxonomy.

C.

Increase the risk tolerance.

D.

Review the risk culture.

Question 5

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure how effectively risk management practices are embedded in the project management office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

Percentage of projects with key risk accepted by the project steering committee

B.

Reduction in risk policy noncompliance findings

C.

Percentage of projects with developed controls on scope creep

D.

Reduction in audits involving external risk consultants

Question 6

An organization wants to launch a campaign to advertise a new product Using data analytics, the campaign can be targeted to reach potential customers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Data minimization

B.

Accountability

C.

Accuracy

D.

Purpose limitation

Question 7

Automated code reviews to reduce the risk associated with web applications are MOST effective when performed:

Options:

A.

throughout development

B.

during pre-production testing

C.

in the design phase

D.

once in the production environment

Question 8

Which of the following would MOST likely lead to misaligned outcomes from enterprise architecture (EA)?

Options:

A.

Overreliance on third-party service providers.

B.

Incompatibility of EA artifacts with business objectives.

C.

Immature data reference model.

D.

Insufficient EA documentation of current state.

Question 9

Which of the following should be considered FIRST when creating a comprehensive IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk mitigation policies

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk analysis techniques

Question 10

Which of the following would cause the GREATEST concern for a risk practitioner reviewing the IT risk scenarios recorded in an organization’s IT risk register?

Options:

A.

Some IT risk scenarios have multi-year risk action plans.

B.

Several IT risk scenarios are missing assigned owners.

C.

Numerous IT risk scenarios have been granted risk acceptances.

D.

Many IT risk scenarios are categorized as avoided.

Question 11

Whether the results of risk analyses should be presented in quantitative or qualitative terms should be based PRIMARILY on the:

Options:

A.

requirements of management.

B.

specific risk analysis framework being used.

C.

organizational risk tolerance

D.

results of the risk assessment.

Question 12

Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when establishing a new risk governance program?

Options:

A.

Developing an ongoing awareness and training program

B.

Creating policies and standards that are easy to comprehend

C.

Embedding risk management into the organization

D.

Completing annual risk assessments on critical resources

Question 13

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when prioritizing risk response?

Options:

A.

Requirements for regulatory obligations.

B.

Cost of control implementation.

C.

Effectiveness of risk treatment.

D.

Number of risk response options.

Question 14

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner’s GREATEST concern related to the monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Logs are retained for longer than required.

B.

Logs are reviewed annually.

C.

Logs are stored in a multi-tenant cloud environment.

D.

Logs are modified before analysis is conducted.

Question 15

Which of the following BEST helps to mitigate risk associated with users inputting incorrect data into a system?

Options:

A.

Sequence check

B.

Tool tips

C.

User training

D.

Allowed values

Question 16

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic when designing a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

It is linked to a key performance indicator (KPI)

B.

It is linked to a key control indicator (KCI)

C.

It contains an objective alert threshold

D.

It aligns with industry benchmarks

Question 17

An organization has outsourced its billing function to an external service provider. Who should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by the service provider?

Options:

A.

The service provider

B.

Vendor risk manager

C.

Legal counsel

D.

Business process owner

Question 18

A risk practitioner learns of an urgent threat intelligence alert to patch a critical vulnerability identified in the organization ' s operating system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Patch the operating system immediately

B.

Determine whether any active attacks are exploiting the vulnerability

C.

Invoke the organization ' s incident response plan

D.

Evaluate the threat in the context of the organization ' s IT environment

Question 19

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to review an organization ' s IT asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To plan for the replacement of assets at the end of their life cycles

B.

To assess requirements for reducing duplicate assets

C.

To understand vulnerabilities associated with the use of the assets

D.

To calculate mean time between failures (MTBF) for the assets

Question 20

Which of the following is MOST helpful to facilitate the decision of recovery priorities in a disaster situation?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis (BIA)

B.

Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)

C.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

D.

Risk Scenario Analysis

Question 21

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key risk indicator (KRI) for backup media that is recycled monthly?

Options:

A.

Time required for backup restoration testing

B.

Change in size of data backed up

C.

Successful completion of backup operations

D.

Percentage of failed restore tests

Question 22

A risk owner has accepted a high-impact risk because the control was adversely affecting process efficiency. Before updating the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

ensure suitable insurance coverage is purchased.

B.

negotiate with the risk owner on control efficiency.

C.

reassess the risk to confirm the impact.

D.

obtain approval from senior management.

Question 23

Which of the following is MOST helpful to review when identifying risk scenarios associated with the adoption of Internet of Things (loT) technology in an organization?

Options:

A.

The business case for the use of loT

B.

The loT threat landscape

C.

Policy development for loT

D.

The network that loT devices can access

Question 24

Which of the following is the MOST effective key performance indicator (KPI) for change management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes with a fallback plan

B.

Number of changes implemented

C.

Percentage of successful changes

D.

Average time required to implement a change

Question 25

Following the identification of a risk associated with a major organizational change, which of the following is MOST important to update in the IT risk register?

Options:

A.

The risk owner

B.

The person who identified the risk

C.

The control owner

D.

The risk response owner

Question 26

Prior to selecting key performance indicators (KPIs), itis MOST important to ensure:

Options:

A.

trending data is available.

B.

process flowcharts are current.

C.

measurement objectives are defined.

D.

data collection technology is available.

Question 27

Which of the following BEST enables a risk practitioner to enhance understanding of risk among stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk scenarios

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Threat analysis

Question 28

Which strategy employed by risk management would BEST help to prevent internal fraud?

Options:

A.

Require control owners to conduct an annual control certification.

B.

Conduct regular internal and external audits on the systems supporting financial reporting.

C.

Ensure segregation of duties are implemented within key systems or processes.

D.

Require the information security officer to review unresolved incidents.

Question 29

Which of the following stakeholders define risk tolerance for an enterprise?

Options:

A.

IT compliance and IT audit

B.

Regulators and shareholders

C.

The board and executive management

D.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

Question 30

Which of the following would present the GREATEST challenge when assigning accountability for control ownership?

Options:

A.

Weak governance structures

B.

Senior management scrutiny

C.

Complex regulatory environment

D.

Unclear reporting relationships

Question 31

Which of the following would BEST help to ensure that suspicious network activity is identified?

Options:

A.

Analyzing intrusion detection system (IDS) logs

B.

Analyzing server logs

C.

Using a third-party monitoring provider

D.

Coordinating events with appropriate agencies

Question 32

A risk practitioner has just learned about new done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Notify executive management.

B.

Analyze the impact to the organization.

C.

Update the IT risk register.

D.

Design IT risk mitigation plans.

Question 33

The MAIN purpose of selecting a risk response is to.

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with local regulatory requirements

B.

demonstrate the effectiveness of risk management practices.

C.

ensure organizational awareness of the risk level

D.

mitigate the residual risk to be within tolerance

Question 34

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to revisit a previously accepted risk?

Options:

A.

To update risk ownership

B.

To review the risk acceptance with new stakeholders

C.

To ensure risk levels have not changed

D.

To ensure controls are still operating effectively

Question 35

Which of the following is a responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Alerting operational management to emerging issues

B.

Implementing corrective actions to address deficiencies

C.

Owning risk scenarios and bearing the consequences of loss

D.

Performing duties independently to provide assurance

Question 36

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit for an organization with a strong risk awareness culture?

Options:

A.

Reducing the involvement by senior management

B.

Using more risk specialists

C.

Reducing the need for risk policies and guidelines

D.

Discussing and managing risk as a team

Question 37

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure the continued effectiveness of the IT risk management function within an organization experiencing high employee turnover?

Options:

A.

Well documented policies and procedures

B.

Risk and issue tracking

C.

An IT strategy committee

D.

Change and release management

Question 38

Which of the following is MOST important to address for an organization looking to improve its IT asset management processes?

Options:

A.

Lack of predictive analytics for asset failures

B.

Lack of detailed historical asset data

C.

Lack of a centralized asset inventory

D.

Lack of asset valuation mechanisms

Question 39

What should be the PRIMARY driver for periodically reviewing and adjusting key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Risk impact

B.

Risk likelihood

C.

Risk appropriate

D.

Control self-assessments (CSAs)

Question 40

Which of the following is the MOST important document regarding the treatment of sensitive data?

Options:

A.

Encryption policy

B.

Organization risk profile

C.

Digital rights management policy

D.

Information classification policy

Question 41

Which of the following BEST indicates the effective implementation of a risk treatment plan?

Options:

A.

Inherent risk is managed within an acceptable level.

B.

Residual risk is managed within appetite and tolerance.

C.

Risk treatments are aligned with industry peers.

D.

Key controls are identified and documented.

Question 42

Which of the following is the MOST important reason to restrict access to the risk register on a need-to-know basis?

Options:

A.

It contains vulnerabilities and threats.

B.

The risk methodology is intellectual property.

C.

Contents may be used as auditable findings.

D.

Risk scenarios may be misinterpreted.

Question 43

Which of the following is the BEST approach for determining whether a risk action plan is effective?

Options:

A.

Comparing the remediation cost against budget

B.

Assessing changes in residual risk

C.

Assessing the inherent risk

D.

Monitoring changes of key performance indicators(KPIs)

Question 44

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to monitor the effectiveness of disaster recovery processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT systems recovered within the mean time to restore (MTTR) during the disaster recovery test

B.

Percentage of issues arising from the disaster recovery test resolved on time

C.

Percentage of IT systems included in the disaster recovery test scope

D.

Percentage of IT systems meeting the recovery time objective (RTO) during the disaster recovery test

Question 45

Which of the following should be included in a risk scenario to be used for risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite

B.

Threat type

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Residual risk

Question 46

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing an organization ' s risk taxonomy?

Options:

A.

Leading industry frameworks

B.

Business context

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

IT strategy

Question 47

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of an antivirus program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of IT assets with current malware definitions

B.

Number of false positives defected over a period of time

C.

Number of alerts generated by the anti-virus software

D.

Frequency of anti-vinjs software updates

Question 48

What is the MOST important consideration when aligning IT risk management with the enterprise risk management (ERM) framework?

Options:

A.

Risk and control ownership

B.

Senior management participation

C.

Business unit support

D.

Risk nomenclature and taxonomy

Question 49

Which of the following is MOST important to understand when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRI thresholds

B.

Integrity of the source data

C.

Control environment

D.

Stakeholder requirements

Question 50

Which of the following will be the GREATEST concern when assessing the risk profile of an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk profile was not updated after a recent incident

B.

The risk profile was developed without using industry standards.

C.

The risk profile was last reviewed two years ago.

D.

The risk profile does not contain historical loss data.

Question 51

What should be the PRIMARY objective of updating a risk awareness program in response to a steady rise in cybersecurity threats across the industry?

Options:

A.

To increase familiarity and understanding of potential security incidents

B.

To ensure compliance with risk management policies and procedures

C.

To reduce the risk of insider threats that could compromise security practices

D.

To lower the organization ' s risk appetite and tolerance levels

Question 52

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for a vulnerability management program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities missed

B.

Number of high-risk vulnerabilities outstanding

C.

Defined thresholds for high-risk vulnerabilities

D.

Percentage of high-risk vulnerabilities addressed

Question 53

Which of the following provides the MOST important information to facilitate a risk response decision?

Options:

A.

Audit findings

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Key risk indicators

D.

Industry best practices

Question 54

Which of the following is MOST critical to the design of relevant risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on past incidents.

B.

The scenarios are linked to probable organizational situations.

C.

The scenarios are mapped to incident management capabilities.

D.

The scenarios are aligned with risk management capabilities.

Question 55

Senior management has requested more information regarding the risk associated with introducing a new application into the environment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Perform an audit.

B.

Conduct a risk analysis.

C.

Develop risk scenarios.

D.

Perform a cost-benefit analysis.

Question 56

During a control review, the control owner states that an existing control has deteriorated over time. What is the BEST recommendation to the control owner?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to reduce residual risk

B.

Escalate the issue to senior management

C.

Discuss risk mitigation options with the risk owner.

D.

Certify the control after documenting the concern.

Question 57

The MAIN purpose of having a documented risk profile is to:

Options:

A.

comply with external and internal requirements.

B.

enable well-informed decision making.

C.

prioritize investment projects.

D.

keep the risk register up-to-date.

Question 58

Which of the following would be the result of a significant increase in the motivation of a malicious threat actor?

Options:

A.

Increase in mitigating control costs

B.

Increase in risk event impact

C.

Increase in risk event likelihood

D.

Increase in cybersecurity premium

Question 59

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to consider when analyzing the risk associated with migrating to a new cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

The cloud service provider ' s control environment

B.

The complexity of the cloud services

C.

The date of the cloud service provider ' s last risk assessment

D.

Past incidents related to acquired cloud services

Question 60

Which of the following trends would cause the GREATEST concern regarding the effectiveness of an organization ' s user access control processes? An increase in the:

Options:

A.

ratio of disabled to active user accounts.

B.

percentage of users with multiple user accounts.

C.

average number of access entitlements per user account.

D.

average time between user transfers and access updates.

Question 61

Which of the following is MOST helpful in identifying loss magnitude during risk analysis of a new system?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

B.

Cost-benefit analysis

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Cyber insurance coverage

Question 62

Which of the following would provide the MOST helpful input to develop risk scenarios associated with hosting an organization ' s key IT applications in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the results of independent audits

B.

Performing a site visit to the cloud provider ' s data center

C.

Performing a due diligence review

D.

Conducting a risk workshop with key stakeholders

Question 63

An organization recently received an independent security audit report of its cloud service provider that indicates significant control weaknesses. What should be done NEXT in response to this report?

Options:

A.

Migrate all data to another compliant service provider.

B.

Analyze the impact of the provider ' s control weaknesses to the business.

C.

Conduct a follow-up audit to verify the provider ' s control weaknesses.

D.

Review the contract to determine if penalties should be levied against the provider.

Question 64

A risk manager has determined there is excessive risk with a particular technology. Who is the BEST person to own the unmitigated risk of the technology?

Options:

A.

IT system owner

B.

Chief financial officer

C.

Chief risk officer

D.

Business process owner

Question 65

A risk practitioner has received an updated enterprise risk management (ERM) report showing that residual risk is now within the organization ' s defined appetite and tolerance levels. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify new risk entries to include in ERM.

B.

Remove the risk entries from the ERM register.

C.

Re-perform the risk assessment to confirm results.

D.

Verify the adequacy of risk monitoring plans.

Question 66

An organization maintains independent departmental risk registers that are not automatically aggregated. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Management may be unable to accurately evaluate the risk profile.

B.

Resources may be inefficiently allocated.

C.

The same risk factor may be identified in multiple areas.

D.

Multiple risk treatment efforts may be initiated to treat a given risk.

Question 67

An organization has recently hired a large number of part-time employees. During the annual audit, it was discovered that many user IDs and passwords were documented in procedure manuals for use by the part-time employees. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Risk

C.

Vulnerability

D.

Policy violation

Question 68

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk-based decision making?

Options:

A.

Performing threat modeling to understand the threat landscape

B.

Minimizing the number of risk scenarios for risk assessment

C.

Aggregating risk scenarios across a key business unit

D.

Ensuring the risk register is updated to reflect changes in risk factors

Question 69

The BEST criteria when selecting a risk response is the:

Options:

A.

capability to implement the response

B.

importance of IT risk within the enterprise

C.

effectiveness of risk response options

D.

alignment of response to industry standards

Question 70

Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information for communicating an organization’s risk level to senior management?

Options:

A.

A list of organizational threats

B.

A high-level risk map

C.

Specialized risk publications

D.

A list of organizational vulnerabilities

Question 71

Which of the following provides the BEST assurance of…..

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

Service-level monitoring

C.

Service provider ' s control self-assessment (CSA)

D.

Independent assessment report

Question 72

Which of the following issues should be of GREATEST concern when evaluating existing controls during a risk assessment?

Options:

A.

A high number of approved exceptions exist with compensating controls.

B.

Successive assessments have the same recurring vulnerabilities.

C.

Redundant compensating controls are in place.

D.

Asset custodians are responsible for defining controls instead of asset owners.

Question 73

External penetration tests MUST include:

Options:

A.

use of consultants to ensure completeness.

B.

communications to users of the target systems.

C.

changes to target data to prove the attack was successful.

D.

advance approval from system owners.

Question 74

It is MOST important for a risk practitioner to have an awareness of an organization s processes in order to:

Options:

A.

perform a business impact analysis.

B.

identify potential sources of risk.

C.

establish risk guidelines.

D.

understand control design.

Question 75

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to address an organization ' s need to secure multiple systems with limited IT resources?

Options:

A.

Apply available security patches.

B.

Schedule a penetration test.

C.

Conduct a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Perform a vulnerability analysis.

Question 76

Which of the following should be accountable for ensuring that media containing financial information are adequately destroyed per an organization ' s data disposal policy?

Options:

A.

Compliance manager

B.

Data architect

C.

Data owner

D.

Chief information officer (CIO)

Question 77

What are the MOST important criteria to consider when developing a data classification scheme to facilitate risk assessment and the prioritization of risk mitigation activities?

Options:

A.

Mitigation and control value

B.

Volume and scope of data generated daily

C.

Business criticality and sensitivity

D.

Recovery point objective (RPO) and recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 78

An organization has recently been experiencing frequent data corruption incidents. Implementing a file corruption detection tool as a risk response strategy will help to:

Options:

A.

reduce the likelihood of future events

B.

restore availability

C.

reduce the impact of future events

D.

address the root cause

Question 79

Well-developed, data-driven risk measurements should be:

Options:

A.

reflective of the lowest organizational level.

B.

a data feed taken directly from operational production systems.

C.

reported to management the same day data is collected.

D.

focused on providing a forward-looking view.

Question 80

An organization has decided to postpone the assessment and treatment of several risk scenarios because stakeholders are unavailable. As a result of this decision, the risk associated with these new entries has been;

Options:

A.

mitigated

B.

deferred

C.

accepted.

D.

transferred

Question 81

Which of the following should be a risk practitioner’s MOST important consideration when developing IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The impact of controls on the efficiency of the business in delivering services

B.

Linkage of identified risk scenarios with enterprise risk management

C.

Potential threats and vulnerabilities that may have an impact on the business

D.

Results of network vulnerability scanning and penetration testing

Question 82

Which of the following is MOST important for management to consider when deciding whether to invest in an IT initiative that exceeds management ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Risk management budget

B.

Risk management industry trends

C.

Risk tolerance

D.

Risk capacity

Question 83

What would be the MAIN concern associated with a decentralized IT function maintaining multiple risk registers?

Options:

A.

Risk treatment efforts within the IT function may overlap one another.

B.

Duplicate IT risk scenarios may be documented across the organization.

C.

Aggregate risk within the IT function may exceed the organization ' s appetite.

D.

Related IT risk scenarios in the IT function may be updated at different times.

Question 84

A bank is experiencing an increasing incidence of customer identity theft. Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement monitoring techniques.

B.

Implement layered security.

C.

Outsource to a local processor.

D.

Conduct an awareness campaign.

Question 85

A bank has outsourced its statement printing function to an external service provider. Which of the following is the MOST critical requirement to include in the contract?

Options:

A.

Monitoring of service costs

B.

Provision of internal audit reports

C.

Notification of sub-contracting arrangements

D.

Confidentiality of customer data

Question 86

A department has been granted an exception to bypass the existing approval process for purchase orders. The risk practitioner should verify the exception has been approved by which of the following?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Control owner

C.

Senior management

D.

Risk manager

Question 87

Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?

Options:

A.

Perform a business case analysis

B.

Implement compensating controls.

C.

Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)

D.

Build a provision for risk

Question 88

An organization has opened a subsidiary in a foreign country. Which of the following would be the BEST way to measure the effectiveness of the subsidiary ' s IT systems controls?

Options:

A.

Implement IT systems in alignment with business objectives.

B.

Review metrics and key performance indicators (KPIs).

C.

Review design documentation of IT systems.

D.

Evaluate compliance with legal and regulatory requirements.

Question 89

A risk practitioner observes that hardware failure incidents have been increasing over the last few months. However, due to built-in redundancy and fault-tolerant architecture, there have been no interruptions to business operations. The risk practitioner should conclude that:

Options:

A.

a root cause analysis is required

B.

controls are effective for ensuring continuity

C.

hardware needs to be upgraded

D.

no action is required as there was no impact

Question 90

Which of the following is MOST helpful in reducing the likelihood of inaccurate risk assessment results?

Options:

A.

Involving relevant stakeholders in the risk assessment process

B.

Updating organizational risk tolerance levels

C.

Reviewing the applicable risk assessment methodologies

D.

Having internal audit validate control effectiveness

Question 91

A vendor’s planned maintenance schedule will cause a critical application to temporarily lose failover capabilities. Of the following, who should approve this proposed schedule?

Options:

A.

Business application owner

B.

Business continuity manager

C.

Chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

IT infrastructure manager

Question 92

To implement the MOST effective monitoring of key risk indicators (KRIs), which of the following needs to be in place?

Options:

A.

Threshold definition

B.

Escalation procedures

C.

Automated data feed

D.

Controls monitoring

Question 93

it was determined that replication of a critical database used by two business units failed. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern1?

Options:

A.

The underutilization of the replicated Iink

B.

The cost of recovering the data

C.

The lack of integrity of data

D.

The loss of data confidentiality

Question 94

A public online information security training course is available to an organization ' s staff. The online course contains free-form discussion fields. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the organization ' s risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

The form may be susceptible to SQL injection attacks.

B.

Data is not encrypted in transit to the site.

C.

Proprietary corporate information may be disclosed.

D.

Staff nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) are not in place.

Question 95

An organization has decided to implement a new Internet of Things (loT) solution. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing security concerns associated with this new technology?

Options:

A.

Develop new loT risk scenarios.

B.

Implement loT device monitoring software.

C.

Introduce controls to the new threat environment.

D.

Engage external security reviews.

Question 96

While reviewing an organization ' s monthly change management metrics, a risk practitioner notes that the number of emergency changes has increased substantially Which of the following would be the BEST approach for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

B.

Document the control deficiency in the risk register.

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Continue monitoring change management metrics.

Question 97

When presenting risk, the BEST method to ensure that the risk is measurable against the organization ' s risk appetite is through the use of a:

Options:

A.

risk map

B.

cause-and-effect diagram

C.

maturity model

D.

technology strategy plan.

Question 98

In a public company, which group is PRIMARILY accountable for ensuring sufficient attention and resources are applied to the risk management process?

Options:

A.

Board of directors

B.

Risk officers

C.

Line management

D.

Senior management

Question 99

After entering a large number of low-risk scenarios into the risk register, it is MOST important for the risk practitioner to:

Options:

A.

prepare a follow-up risk assessment.

B.

recommend acceptance of the risk scenarios.

C.

reconfirm risk tolerance levels.

D.

analyze changes to aggregate risk.

Question 100

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of maintaining an information asset inventory?

Options:

A.

To provide input to business impact analyses (BIAs)

B.

To protect information assets

C.

To facilitate risk assessments

D.

To manage information asset licensing

Question 101

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans are documented

B.

Controls are mapped to key risk scenarios.

C.

Key risk indicators are defined.

D.

Risk ownership is assigned

Question 102

Which of the following would MOST effectively protect financial records from ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Enforcement of encryption at rest for backups

B.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA) on storage points

C.

Classifying and encrypting data on backups

D.

Immutable storage and backups

Question 103

An organization is considering modifying its system to enable acceptance of credit card payments. To reduce the risk of data exposure, which of the following should the organization do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk assessment.

B.

Update the security strategy.

C.

Implement additional controls.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 104

An organization wants to develop a strategy to mitigate the risk associated with unethical actions by stakeholders. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Provide incentives for whistleblowers to report unethical actions.

B.

Create a policy regarding ethical behavior.

C.

Communicate sanctions and penalties for unethical actions.

D.

Develop company-wide training on business ethics.

Question 105

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST important course of action when the level of risk has exceeded risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Facilitate a review of risk tolerance levels

B.

Adjust the risk impact and likelihood scale

C.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Introduce the risk treatment process

Question 106

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the confidentiality of data in the event of a data breach within a Software as a Service (SaaS) environment?

Options:

A.

Vendor ' s information security officer

B.

Customer ' s data privacy officer

C.

Customer ' s data owner

D.

Vendor ' s application owner

Question 107

When determining which control deficiencies are most significant, which of the following would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk analysis results

B.

Exception handling policy

C.

Vulnerability assessment results

D.

Benchmarking assessments

Question 108

The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of the security patching process is the percentage of patches installed:

Options:

A.

by the security administration team.

B.

successfully within the expected time frame.

C.

successfully during the first attempt.

D.

without causing an unplanned system outage.

Question 109

To define the risk management strategy which of the following MUST be set by the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Operational strategies

B.

Risk governance

C.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE)

D.

Risk appetite

Question 110

Which of the following is the BEST approach for a risk practitioner to use for identifying the level of technical debt in an organization?

Options:

A.

Review business cases for large organizational projects.

B.

Measure the alignment of technical standards with information security policies.

C.

Analyze trends in technology investments over time.

D.

Compare the current state to the target enterprise architecture (EA).

Question 111

In addition to the risk register, what should a risk practitioner review to develop an understanding of the organization ' s risk profile?

Options:

A.

The control catalog

B.

The asset profile

C.

Business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 112

Which of the following is the MOST significant benefit of using quantitative risk analysis instead of qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Minimized time to completion

B.

Decreased structure

C.

Minimized subjectivity

D.

Decreased cost

Question 113

Which of the following should a risk practitioner recommend FIRST when an increasing trend of risk events and subsequent losses has been identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct root cause analyses for risk events.

B.

Educate personnel on risk mitigation strategies.

C.

Integrate the risk event and incident management processes.

D.

Implement controls to prevent future risk events.

Question 114

A zero-day vulnerability has been discovered in a globally used brand of hardware server that allows hackers to gain

access to affected IT systems. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result of this situation?

Options:

A.

Control effectiveness

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

Question 115

In an organization that allows employee use of social media accounts for work purposes, which of the following is the BEST way to protect company sensitive information from being exposed?

Options:

A.

Educating employees on what needs to be kept confidential

B.

Implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

C.

Taking punitive action against employees who expose confidential data

D.

Requiring employees to sign nondisclosure agreements

Question 116

Which of the following is the BEST time for an enterprise project management team to use risk analysis?

Options:

A.

When the final testing phase begins

B.

During the project initiation phase

C.

At the end of the project

D.

During business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 117

A risk practitioner identifies a database application that has been developed and implemented by the business independently of IT. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Escalate the concern to senior management.

B.

Document the reasons for the exception.

C.

Include the application in IT risk assessments.

D.

Propose that the application be transferred to IT.

Question 118

A cote data center went offline abruptly for several hours affecting many transactions across multiple locations. Which of the to " owing would provide the MOST useful information to determine mitigating controls?

Options:

A.

Forensic analysis

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Root cause analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BlA)

Question 119

Which of the following BEST enables effective risk reporting to the board of directors?

Options:

A.

Presenting case studies of breaches from other similar organizations

B.

Mapping risk scenarios to findings identified by internal audit

C.

Communicating in terms that correlate to corporate objectives and business value

D.

Reporting key metrics that indicate the efficiency and effectiveness of risk governance

Question 120

Which of the following BEST reduces the likelihood of employees unintentionally disclosing sensitive information to outside parties?

Options:

A.

Regular employee security awareness training

B.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

C.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 121

Which of the following is the MOST important topic to cover in a risk awareness training program for all staff?

Options:

A.

Internal and external information security incidents

B.

The risk department ' s roles and responsibilities

C.

Policy compliance requirements and exceptions process

D.

The organization ' s information security risk profile

Question 122

Which of the following would be a risk practitioner ' $ BEST recommendation to help ensure cyber risk is assessed and reflected in the enterprise-level risk profile?

Options:

A.

Manage cyber risk according to the organization ' s risk management framework.

B.

Define cyber roles and responsibilities across the organization

C.

Conduct cyber risk awareness training tailored specifically for senior management

D.

Implement a cyber risk program based on industry best practices

Question 123

Which of the following would be MOST useful when measuring the progress of a risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

Percentage of mitigated risk scenarios

B.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE) changes

C.

Resource expenditure against budget

D.

An up-to-date risk register

Question 124

Risk aggregation in a complex organization will be MOST successful when:

Options:

A.

using the same scales in assessing risk

B.

utilizing industry benchmarks

C.

using reliable qualitative data for risk Hems

D.

including primarily low-level risk factors

Question 125

Which of the following is the MOST important requirement for monitoring key risk indicators (KRls) using log analysis?

Options:

A.

Obtaining logs m an easily readable format

B.

Providing accurate logs m a timely manner

C.

Collecting logs from the entire set of IT systems

D.

implementing an automated log analysis tool

Question 126

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Question 127

Which of the following IT controls is MOST useful in mitigating the risk associated with inaccurate data?

Options:

A.

Encrypted storage of data

B.

Links to source data

C.

Audit trails for updates and deletions

D.

Check totals on data records and data fields

Question 128

Which of the following roles is PRIMARILY accountable for risk associated with business information protection?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Data owner

C.

System owner

D.

Application owner

Question 129

When of the following 15 MOST important when developing a business case for a proposed security investment?

Options:

A.

identification of control requirements

B.

Alignment to business objectives

C.

Consideration of new business strategies

D.

inclusion of strategy for regulatory compliance

Question 130

Which of the following is the MOST critical element to maximize the potential for a successful security implementation?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s knowledge

B.

Ease of implementation

C.

The organization ' s culture

D.

industry-leading security tools

Question 131

The implementation of a risk treatment plan will exceed the resources originally allocated for the risk response. Which of the following should be the risk owner ' s NEXT action?

Options:

A.

Perform a risk assessment.

B.

Accept the risk of not implementing.

C.

Escalate to senior management.

D.

Update the implementation plan.

Question 132

An organization relies heavily on a single vendor for critical services and has identified that this dependency poses a risk. Which of the following is the organization’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Continue with the vendor but develop internal capabilities as a backup plan.

B.

Negotiate a long-term contract with the vendor to ensure stability.

C.

Maintain the status quo and monitor the vendor’s performance.

D.

Diversify the vendor portfolio by onboarding additional vendors.

Question 133

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST appropriate course of action upon learning that an organization is not compliant with its patch management policy?

Options:

A.

Document the concern in an issue tracker.

B.

Strengthen data loss prevention (DLP) controls.

C.

Apply the most recent available patches.

D.

Escalate the issue to the ethics committee.

Question 134

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to perform periodic vendor risk assessments?

Options:

A.

To provide input to the organization ' s risk appetite

B.

To monitor the vendor ' s control effectiveness

C.

To verify the vendor ' s ongoing financial viability

D.

To assess the vendor ' s risk mitigation plans

Question 135

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line within the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Maintaining effective internal controls

B.

Providing oversight and governance

C.

Conducting independent audits

D.

Establishing the organization’s risk appetite

Question 136

When performing a risk assessment of a new service to support a ewe Business process. which of the following should be done FRST10 ensure continuity of operations?

Options:

A.

a identity conditions that may cause disruptions

B.

Review incident response procedures

C.

Evaluate the probability of risk events

D.

Define metrics for restoring availability

Question 137

Which of the following is MOST useful when performing a quantitative risk assessment?

Options:

A.

RACI matrix

B.

Financial models

C.

Management support

D.

Industry benchmarking

Question 138

An application development team has a backlog of user requirements for a new system that will process insurance claim payments for customers. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration for a risk-based review of the user requirements?

Options:

A.

Number of claims affected by the user requirements

B.

Number of customers impacted

C.

Impact to the accuracy of claim calculation

D.

Level of resources required to implement the user requirements

Question 139

Which of the following BEST mitigates the risk associated with inadvertent data leakage by users who work remotely?

Options:

A.

Conducting training on the protection of organizational assets

B.

Configuring devices to use virtual IP addresses

C.

Ensuring patching for end-user devices

D.

Providing encrypted access to organizational assets

Question 140

Which type of indicators should be developed to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s firewall rule set?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Key management indicators (KMIs)

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Key control indicators (KCIs)

Question 141

An organization recently implemented a cybersecurity awareness program that includes phishing simul-ation exercises for all employees. What type of control is being utilized?

Options:

A.

Deterrent

B.

Preventive

C.

Compensating

D.

Detective

Question 142

Which of the following is the BEST Key control indicator KCO to monitor the effectiveness of patch management?

Options:

A.

Percentage of legacy servers out of support

B.

Percentage of severs receiving automata patches

C.

Number of unpremeditated vulnerabilities

D.

Number of intrusion attempts

Question 143

The MAIN reason for creating and maintaining a risk register is to:

Options:

A.

assess effectiveness of different projects.

B.

define the risk assessment methodology.

C.

ensure assets have low residual risk.

D.

account for identified key risk factors.

Question 144

During an acquisition, which of the following would provide the MOST useful input to the parent company ' s risk practitioner when developing risk scenarios for the post-acquisition phase?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework adopted by each company

B.

Risk registers of both companies

C.

IT balanced scorecard of each company

D.

Most recent internal audit findings from both companies

Question 145

A web-based service provider with a low risk appetite for system outages is reviewing its current risk profile for online security. Which of the following observations would be MOST relevant to escalate to senior management?

Options:

A.

An increase in attempted distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks

B.

An increase in attempted website phishing attacks

C.

A decrease in achievement of service level agreements (SLAs)

D.

A decrease in remediated web security vulnerabilities

Question 146

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to senior management about risk mitigation status?

Options:

A.

Risk strategy

B.

Risk register

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 147

Which of the following will help ensure the elective decision-making of an IT risk management committee?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are enrolled as members

B.

Approved minutes ate forwarded to senior management

C.

Committee meets at least quarterly

D.

Functional overlap across the business is minimized

Question 148

In the three lines of defense model, a PRIMARY objective of the second line is to:

Options:

A.

Review and evaluate the risk management program.

B.

Ensure risks and controls are effectively managed.

C.

Implement risk management policies regarding roles and responsibilities.

D.

Act as the owner for any operational risk identified as part of the risk program.

Question 149

The MOST effective way to increase the likelihood that risk responses will be implemented is to:

Options:

A.

create an action plan

B.

assign ownership

C.

review progress reports

D.

perform regular audits.

Question 150

An organization has outsourced its lease payment process to a service provider who lacks evidence of compliance with a necessary regulatory standard. Which risk treatment was adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Transfer

C.

Mitigation

D.

Avoidance

Question 151

Which of the following is MOST important to include in a risk assessment of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Risk response plans

B.

Risk and control ownership

C.

Key controls

D.

Impact and likelihood ratings

Question 152

The MOST essential content to include in an IT risk awareness program is how to:

Options:

A.

populate risk register entries and build a risk profile for management reporting.

B.

prioritize IT-related actions by considering risk appetite and risk tolerance.

C.

define the IT risk framework for the organization.

D.

comply with the organization ' s IT risk and information security policies.

Question 153

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY driver for the prioritization of risk responses?

Options:

A.

Residual risk

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Mitigation cost

D.

Inherent risk

Question 154

Which of the following observations would be the GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner evaluating an organization ' s risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Senior management has approved numerous requests for risk acceptance.

B.

Business leaders provide final approval for information security policies.

C.

Several risk scenarios have action plans spanning multiple years.

D.

Senior management does not set risk tolerance.

Question 155

An organization has just implemented changes to close an identified vulnerability that impacted a critical business process. What should be the NEXT course of action?

Options:

A.

Redesign the heat map.

B.

Review the risk tolerance.

C.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 156

Which of the following actions should a risk practitioner do NEXT when an increased industry trend of external cyber attacks is identified?

Options:

A.

Conduct a threat and vulnerability analysis.

B.

Notify senior management of the new risk scenario.

C.

Update the risk impact rating in the risk register.

D.

Update the key risk indicator (KRI) in the risk register.

Question 157

Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?

Options:

A.

Countermeasures analysis

B.

Best practice assessment

C.

Gap analysis

D.

Risk assessment

Question 158

Which of the following elements of a risk register is MOST likely to change as a result of change in management ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

B.

Inherent risk

C.

Risk likelihood and impact

D.

Risk velocity

Question 159

Which of the following metrics is BEST used to communicate to senior management that the control environment manages risk within appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Number of security incidents

B.

Reduction in control expenditures

C.

Number of risk responses executed

D.

Reduction in residual risk

Question 160

Options:

A.

Implement project status checks to avoid financial risk.

B.

Support the project team in identifying and responding to risk.

C.

Update and publish the project risk register on a regular basis.

D.

Reduce project cost by eliminating risk to the project.

Question 161

A recent audit identified high-risk issues in a business unit though a previous control self-assessment (CSA) had good results. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the difference?

Options:

A.

The audit had a broader scope than the CSA.

B.

The CSA was not sample-based.

C.

The CSA did not test control effectiveness.

D.

The CSA was compliance-based, while the audit was risk-based.

Question 162

The PRIMARY basis for selecting a security control is:

Options:

A.

to achieve the desired level of maturity.

B.

the materiality of the risk.

C.

the ability to mitigate risk.

D.

the cost of the control.

Question 163

Which of the following statements BEST illustrates the relationship between key performance indicators (KPIs) and key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

KPIs measure manual controls, while KCIs measure automated controls.

B.

KPIs and KCIs both contribute to understanding of control effectiveness.

C.

A robust KCI program will replace the need to measure KPIs.

D.

KCIs are applied at the operational level while KPIs are at the strategic level.

Question 164

Which of the following would BEST assist in reconstructing the sequence of events following a security incident across multiple IT systems in the organization ' s network?

Options:

A.

Network monitoring infrastructure

B.

Centralized vulnerability management

C.

Incident management process

D.

Centralized log management

Question 165

An upward trend in which of the following metrics should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Number of business change management requests

B.

Number of revisions to security policy

C.

Number of security policy exceptions approved

D.

Number of changes to firewall rules

Question 166

During a routine check, a system administrator identifies unusual activity indicating an intruder within a firewall. Which of the following controls has MOST likely been compromised?

Options:

A.

Data validation

B.

Identification

C.

Authentication

D.

Data integrity

Question 167

Which of the following risk register updates is MOST important for senior management to review?

Options:

A.

Extending the date of a future action plan by two months

B.

Retiring a risk scenario no longer used

C.

Avoiding a risk that was previously accepted

D.

Changing a risk owner

Question 168

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to conduct risk assessments at periodic intervals?

Options:

A.

To ensure emerging risk is identified and monitored

B.

To establish the maturity level of risk assessment processes

C.

To promote a risk-aware culture among staff

D.

To ensure risk trend data is collected and reported

Question 169

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to increase the likelihood of identifying risk associated with unethical employee behavior?

Options:

A.

Require a signed agreement by employees to comply with ethics policies

B.

Conduct background checks for new employees

C.

Establish a channel to anonymously report unethical behavior

D.

Implement mandatory ethics training for employees

Question 170

The MOST important measure of the effectiveness of risk management in project implementation is the percentage of projects:

Options:

A.

introduced into production without high-risk issues.

B.

having the risk register updated regularly.

C.

having key risk indicators (KRIs) established to measure risk.

D.

having an action plan to remediate overdue issues.

Question 171

A key performance indicator (KPI) shows that a process is operating inefficiently, even though no control issues were noted during the most recent risk assessment. Which of the following should be done FIRST?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Recalibrate the key performance indicator (KPI).

C.

Redesign the process.

D.

Re-evaluate the existing control design.

Question 172

Which of the following scenarios is MOST likely to cause a risk practitioner to request a formal risk acceptance sign-off?

Options:

A.

Residual risk in excess of the risk appetite cannot be mitigated.

B.

Inherent risk is too high, resulting in the cancellation of an initiative.

C.

Risk appetite has changed to align with organizational objectives.

D.

Residual risk remains at the same level over time without further mitigation.

Question 173

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a risk owner once a decision is made to mitigate a risk?

Options:

A.

Updating the risk register to include the risk mitigation plan

B.

Determining processes for monitoring the effectiveness of the controls

C.

Ensuring that control design reduces risk to an acceptable level

D.

Confirming to management the controls reduce the likelihood of the risk

Question 174

The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) method of risk analysis:

Options:

A.

helps in calculating the expected cost of controls

B.

uses qualitative risk rankings such as low. medium and high.

C.

can be used m a cost-benefit analysts

D.

can be used to determine the indirect business impact.

Question 175

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment with regulatory requirements

B.

Availability of qualitative data

C.

Properly set thresholds

D.

Alignment with industry benchmarks

Question 176

Which of the following is the BEST course of action when risk is found to be above the acceptable risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Review risk tolerance levels

B.

Maintain the current controls.

C.

Analyze the effectiveness of controls.

D.

Execute the risk response plan

Question 177

Which of the following has the MOST validity for conducting risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Internal control effectiveness measured through inference from external assessment

B.

Control effectiveness determined through subject matter expertise estimation

C.

Inferences of internal control effectiveness from peer reports

D.

Internal control effectiveness measured through direct testing

Question 178

An organization plans to implement a new AI application, but the risk practitioner learns that IT policies do not address AI. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner ' s GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Lack of direction for AI usage

B.

Increased reliance on shadow IT

C.

Complexity of AI implementation

D.

Lack of best practices for AI implementation

Question 179

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of analyzing logs collected from different systems?

Options:

A.

A record of incidents is maintained.

B.

Forensic investigations are facilitated.

C.

Security violations can be identified.

D.

Developing threats are detected earlier.

Question 180

Which of the following BEST supports ethical IT risk management practices?

Options:

A.

Robust organizational communication channels

B.

Mapping of key risk indicators (KRIs) to corporate strategy

C.

Capability maturity models integrated with risk management frameworks

D.

Rigorously enforced operational service level agreements (SLAs)

Question 181

Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Conduct interviews with key stakeholders.

B.

Conduct a tabletop exercise.

C.

Conduct a disaster recovery exercise.

D.

Conduct a full functional exercise.

Question 182

Which of the following is the PRIMARY accountability for a control owner?

Options:

A.

Communicate risk to senior management.

B.

Own the associated risk the control is mitigating.

C.

Ensure the control operates effectively.

D.

Identify and assess control weaknesses.

Question 183

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk responses have been executed according to their risk action plans?

Options:

A.

Risk policy review

B.

Business impact analysis (B1A)

C.

Control catalog

D.

Risk register

Question 184

Which of the following controls are BEST strengthened by a clear organizational code of ethics?

Options:

A.

Detective controls

B.

Administrative controls

C.

Technical controls

D.

Preventive controls

Question 185

Which of the following is the MOST important key performance indicator (KPI) to establish in the service level agreement (SLA) for an outsourced data center?

Options:

A.

Percentage of systems included in recovery processes

B.

Number of key systems hosted

C.

Average response time to resolve system incidents

D.

Percentage of system availability

Question 186

An organization has decided to outsource a web application, and customer data will be stored in the vendor ' s public cloud. To protect customer data, it is MOST important to ensure which of the following?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s incident response procedures have been updated.

B.

The vendor stores the data in the same jurisdiction.

C.

Administrative access is only held by the vendor.

D.

The vendor ' s responsibilities are defined in the contract.

Question 187

A risk practitioner is reviewing a vendor contract and finds there is no clause to control privileged access to the organization ' s systems by vendor employees. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Contact the control owner to determine if a gap in controls exists.

B.

Add this concern to the risk register and highlight it for management review.

C.

Report this concern to the contracts department for further action.

D.

Document this concern as a threat and conduct an impact analysis.

Question 188

A risk assessment has identified that departments have installed their own WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?

Options:

A.

The network security policy

B.

Potential business impact

C.

The WiFi access point configuration

D.

Planned remediation actions

Question 189

Which of the following is the MOST relevant information to include in a risk management strategy?

Options:

A.

Quantified risk triggers

B.

Cost of controls

C.

Regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational goals

Question 190

How does the identification of risk scenarios contribute to effective IT risk management?

Options:

A.

By facilitating post-incident investigations

B.

By enabling proactive risk assessment

C.

By identifying cybersecurity incidents

D.

By creating awareness of risk mitigation strategies

Question 191

IT risk assessments can BEST be used by management:

Options:

A.

for compliance with laws and regulations

B.

as a basis for cost-benefit analysis.

C.

as input for decision-making

D.

to measure organizational success.

Question 192

Which of the following would be the GREATEST risk associated with a new implementation of single sign-on?

Options:

A.

Inability to access key information

B.

Complex security administration

C.

User resistance to single sign-on

D.

Single point of failure

Question 193

The PRIMARY purpose of a maturity model is to compare the:

Options:

A.

current state of key processes to their desired state.

B.

actual KPIs with target KPIs.

C.

organization to industry best practices.

D.

organization to peers.

Question 194

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Number of users that participated in the DRP testing

B.

Number of issues identified during DRP testing

C.

Percentage of applications that met the RTO during DRP testing

D.

Percentage of issues resolved as a result of DRP testing

Question 195

Which of the following is the BEST course of action for a system administrator who suspects a colleague may be intentionally weakening a system ' s validation controls in order to pass through fraudulent transactions?

Options:

A.

Implement compensating controls to deter fraud attempts.

B.

Share the concern through a whistleblower communication channel.

C.

Monitor the activity to collect evidence.

D.

Determine whether the system environment has flaws that may motivate fraud attempts.

Question 196

A risk assessment has revealed that the probability of a successful cybersecurity attack is increasing. The potential loss could exceed the organization ' s risk appetite. Which of the following ould be the MOST effective course of action?

Options:

A.

Re-evaluate the organization ' s risk appetite.

B.

Outsource the cybersecurity function.

C.

Purchase cybersecurity insurance.

D.

Review cybersecurity incident response procedures.

Question 197

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when an organization uses a managed security service provider as a firewall administrator?

Options:

A.

Exposure of log data

B.

Lack of governance

C.

Increased number of firewall rules

D.

Lack of agreed-upon standards

Question 198

Which of the following roles should be assigned accountability for monitoring risk levels?

Options:

A.

Risk practitioner

B.

Business manager

C.

Risk owner

D.

Control owner

Question 199

The analysis of which of the following will BEST help validate whether suspicious network activity is malicious?

Options:

A.

Logs and system events

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS) rules

C.

Vulnerability assessment reports

D.

Penetration test reports

Question 200

Options:

A.

Implement a new risk assessment process.

B.

Revalidate the corporate risk appetite.

C.

Review and adjust key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Communicate the new risk profile.

Question 201

A risk practitioner is developing a set of bottom-up IT risk scenarios. The MOST important time to involve business stakeholders is when:

Options:

A.

updating the risk register

B.

documenting the risk scenarios.

C.

validating the risk scenarios

D.

identifying risk mitigation controls.

Question 202

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an improved risk-aware culture following the implementation of a security awareness training program for all employees?

Options:

A.

A reduction in the number of help desk calls

B.

An increase in the number of identified system flaws

C.

A reduction in the number of user access resets

D.

An increase in the number of incidents reported

Question 203

A cloud service provider has completed upgrades to its cloud infrastructure to enhance service availability. Which of the following is the MOST important key risk indicator (KRI) for management to monitor?

Options:

A.

Peak demand on the cloud service during business hours

B.

Percentage of technology upgrades resulting in security breaches

C.

Number of incidents with downtime exceeding contract threshold

D.

Percentage of servers not patched per policy

Question 204

During a review of the asset life cycle process, a risk practitioner identified several unreturned and unencrypted laptops belonging to former employees. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this finding?

Options:

A.

Insufficient laptops for existing employees

B.

Abuse of leavers ' account privileges

C.

Unauthorized access to organizational data

D.

Financial cost of replacing the laptops

Question 205

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY basis for prioritizing risk responses?

Options:

A.

The impact of the risk

B.

The replacement cost of the business asset

C.

The cost of risk mitigation controls

D.

The classification of the business asset

Question 206

Mitigating technology risk to acceptable levels should be based PRIMARILY upon:

Options:

A.

organizational risk appetite.

B.

business sector best practices.

C.

business process requirements.

D.

availability of automated solutions

Question 207

Who should be responsible for implementing and maintaining data security controls?

Options:

A.

Data architect.

B.

Data scientist.

C.

Data analyst.

D.

Data custodian.

Question 208

An updated report from a trusted research organization shows that attacks have increased in the organization ' s industry segment. What should be done FIRST to integrate this data into risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Average the ransomware attack frequencies together

B.

Revise the threat frequency for ransomware attack types

C.

Adjust impact amounts based on the average ransom

D.

Use the new frequency as the maximum value in a Monte Carlo simulation

Question 209

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when determining whether to accept residual risk after security controls have been implemented on a critical system?

Options:

A.

Cost versus benefit of additional mitigating controls

B.

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) for the system

C.

Frequency of business impact

D.

Cost of the Information control system

Question 210

Which of the following is the MOST important enabler of effective risk management?

Options:

A.

User awareness of policies and procedures

B.

Implementation of proper controls

C.

Senior management support

D.

Continuous monitoring of threats and vulnerabilities

Question 211

When reporting on risk for the purpose of initiating required corrective actions, the results should be submitted to the:

Options:

A.

Chief financial officer (CFO).

B.

Chief risk officer (CRO).

C.

Business process owners.

D.

Chief information officer (CIO).

Question 212

A risk practitioner is involved in a comprehensive overhaul of the organizational risk management program. Which of the following should be reviewed FIRST to help identify relevant IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Technology threats

B.

IT assets

C.

Security vulnerabilities

D.

IT risk register

Question 213

Which of the following BEST contributes to the implementation of an effective risk response action plan?

Options:

A.

An IT tactical plan

B.

Disaster recovery and continuity testing

C.

Assigned roles and responsibilities

D.

A business impact analysis

Question 214

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for managing emerging risk?

Options:

A.

The organization is likely to become prone to continuous disruptive events.

B.

Risk assessment methodologies cannot be applied to emerging risk.

C.

Assumptions about the future state are likely to become invalid.

D.

The number of risk scenarios may become uncontrollably high.

Question 215

The PRIMARY reason for periodically monitoring key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

rectify errors in results of KRIs.

B.

detect changes in the risk profile.

C.

reduce costs of risk mitigation controls.

D.

continually improve risk assessments.

Question 216

Which of the following BEST facilitates the process of documenting risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Creating a risk register

B.

Interviewing management

C.

Conducting a risk assessment

D.

Researching industry standards

Question 217

During a risk assessment, the risk practitioner finds a new risk scenario without controls has been entered into the risk register. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action?

Options:

A.

Include the new risk scenario in the current risk assessment.

B.

Postpone the risk assessment until controls are identified.

C.

Request the risk scenario be removed from the register.

D.

Exclude the new risk scenario from the current risk assessment

Question 218

After a business unit implemented an Internet of Things (IoT) solution, the organization became aware of an emerging risk from the interoperability of IoT devices. Which of the following should be done FIRST in response to this situation?

Options:

A.

Implement new controls.

B.

Update the risk profile.

C.

Re-evaluate the risk tolerance.

D.

Inform executive leadership.

Question 219

Which of the following is the MOST important concern when assigning multiple risk owners for an identified risk?

Options:

A.

Accountability may not be clearly defined.

B.

Risk ratings may be inconsistently applied.

C.

Different risk taxonomies may be used.

D.

Mitigation efforts may be duplicated.

Question 220

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to incorporate stakeholder concerns when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Evaluating risk impact

B.

Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Conducting internal audits

D.

Creating quarterly risk reports

Question 221

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of involving business owners in risk scenario development?

Options:

A.

Business owners have the ability to effectively manage risk.

B.

Business owners have authority to approve control implementation.

C.

Business owners understand the residual risk of competitors.

D.

Business owners are able to assess the impact.

Question 222

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on business objectives?

Options:

A.

IT management

B.

Internal audit

C.

Process owners

D.

Senior management

Question 223

An organization outsources the processing of us payroll data A risk practitioner identifies a control weakness at the third party trial exposes the payroll data. Who should own this risk?

Options:

A.

The third party ' s IT operations manager

B.

The organization ' s process owner

C.

The third party ' s chief risk officer (CRO)

D.

The organization ' s risk practitioner

Question 224

A risk practitioner has been notified of a social engineering attack using artificial intelligence (AI) technology to impersonate senior management personnel. Which of the following would BEST mitigate the impact of such attacks?

Options:

A.

Subscription to data breach monitoring sites

B.

Suspension and takedown of malicious domains or accounts

C.

Increased monitoring of executive accounts

D.

Training and awareness of employees for increased vigilance

Question 225

Once a risk owner has decided to implement a control to mitigate risk, it is MOST important to develop:

Options:

A.

a process for measuring and reporting control performance.

B.

an alternate control design in case of failure of the identified control.

C.

a process for bypassing control procedures in case of exceptions.

D.

procedures to ensure the effectiveness of the control.

Question 226

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action if a risk assessment identifies a risk that is extremely unlikely but would have a severe impact should it occur?

Options:

A.

Rate the risk as high priority based on the severe impact.

B.

Obtain management ' s consent to accept the risk.

C.

Ignore the risk due to the extremely low likelihood.

D.

Address the risk by analyzing treatment options.

Question 227

Of the following, whose input is ESSENTIAL when developing risk scenarios for the implementation of a third-party mobile application that stores customer data?

Options:

A.

Information security manager

B.

IT vendor manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

IT compliance manager

Question 228

Which of the following will BEST help mitigate the risk associated with malicious functionality in outsourced application development?

Options:

A.

Perform an in-depth code review with an expert

B.

Validate functionality by running in a test environment

C.

Implement a service level agreement.

D.

Utilize the change management process.

Question 229

A key risk indicator (KRI) that incorporates data from external open-source threat intelligence sources has shown changes in risk trend data. Which of the following is MOST important to update in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Impact of risk occurrence

B.

Frequency of risk occurrence

C.

Cost of risk response

D.

Legal aspects of risk realization

Question 230

Which of the following is MOST important to update when an organization ' s risk appetite changes?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

Risk reporting methodology

C.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

Risk taxonomy

Question 231

To minimize risk in a software development project, when is the BEST time to conduct a risk analysis?

Options:

A.

During the business requirement definitions phase

B.

Before periodic steering committee meetings

C.

At each stage of the development life cycle

D.

During the business case development

Question 232

Which of the following is the MOST important information to cover in a business continuity awareness training program for all employees of the organization?

Options:

A.

Recovery time objectives (RTOs)

B.

Communication plan

C.

Critical asset inventory

D.

Separation of duties

Question 233

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to minimize the impact associated with the loss of key employees?

Options:

A.

Maintain and publish a RACI chart.

B.

Promote incentive programs.

C.

Perform succession planning.

D.

Develop a robust onboarding program.

Question 234

Which of the following is MOST important when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

The scenarios are based on industry best practice.

B.

The scenarios focus on current vulnerabilities.

C.

The scenarios are relevant to the organization.

D.

The scenarios include technical consequences.

Question 235

An organization does not have a defined process to revoke IT access of staff members who have changed roles within the organization. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with this deficiency?

Options:

A.

Noncompliance with the access management policy

B.

Fraudulent insider activities

C.

Misaligned job duties

D.

Inefficient access review processes

Question 236

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are BEST utilized to provide a high-level overview of:

Options:

A.

control efficiency

B.

cost effectiveness

C.

return on investment (ROI)

D.

changes in risk tolerance

Question 237

Which of the following is the MOST important factor affecting risk management in an organization?

Options:

A.

The risk manager ' s expertise

B.

Regulatory requirements

C.

Board of directors ' expertise

D.

The organization ' s culture

Question 238

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s MOST important course of action after learning that an organization ' s industry peers have experienced an increase in ransomware attacks?

Options:

A.

Recommend additional preventive controls to reduce residual risk.

B.

Document this scenario as a risk event for further risk analysis.

C.

Propose risk acceptance until the organization is directly affected.

D.

Raise a security incident to proactively prevent similar attacks.

Question 239

Which of the following is the BEST way to quantify the likelihood of risk materialization?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Threat and vulnerability assessment

C.

Compliance assessments

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 240

Which element of an organization ' s risk register is MOST important to update following the commissioning of a new financial reporting system?

Options:

A.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

B.

The owner of the financial reporting process

C.

The risk rating of affected financial processes

D.

The list of relevant financial controls

Question 241

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when vulnerability assessment results identify a weakness in an application?

Options:

A.

Review regular control testing results.

B.

Recommend a penetration test.

C.

Assess the risk to determine mitigation needed.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 242

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to help ensure accountability for managing risk?

Options:

A.

Assign process owners to key risk areas.

B.

Obtain independent risk assessments.

C.

Assign incident response action plan responsibilities.

D.

Create accurate process narratives.

Question 243

During the control evaluation phase of a risk assessment, it is noted that multiple controls are ineffective. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s FIRST course of action?

Options:

A.

Recommend risk remediation of the ineffective controls.

B.

Compare the residual risk to the current risk appetite.

C.

Determine the root cause of the control failures.

D.

Escalate the control failures to senior management.

Question 244

Which of the following BEST indicates that additional or improved controls ate needed m the environment?

Options:

A.

Management, has decreased organisational risk appetite

B.

The risk register and portfolio do not include all risk scenarios

C.

merging risk scenarios have been identified

D.

Risk events and losses exceed risk tolerance

Question 245

To enable effective risk governance, it is MOST important for senior management to:

Options:

A.

Ensure the IT governance framework is up to date.

B.

Communicate the risk management strategy across the organization.

C.

Gain a clear understanding of business risk and related ownership.

D.

Ensure security policies and procedures are documented.

Question 246

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY recipient of reports showing the

progress of a current IT risk mitigation project?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Project manager

C.

Project sponsor

D.

IT risk manager

Question 247

Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM)

C.

Risk practitioner

D.

Control owner

Question 248

An organization ' s recovery team is attempting to recover critical data backups following a major flood in its data center. However, key team members do not know exactly what steps should be taken to address this crisis. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this situation?

Options:

A.

Failure to test the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

B.

Lack of well-documented business impact analysis (BIA)

C.

Lack of annual updates to the disaster recovery plan (DRP)

D.

Significant changes in management personnel

Question 249

When establishing leading indicators for the information security incident response process it is MOST important to consider the percentage of reported incidents:

Options:

A.

that results in a full root cause analysis.

B.

used for verification within the SLA.

C.

that are verified as actual incidents.

D.

resolved within the SLA.

Question 250

Which of the following is the MOST important element of a successful risk awareness training program?

Options:

A.

Customizing content for the audience

B.

Providing incentives to participants

C.

Mapping to a recognized standard

D.

Providing metrics for measurement

Question 251

What is the PRIMARY benefit of risk monitoring?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of audit findings.

B.

It provides statistical evidence of control efficiency.

C.

It facilitates risk-aware decision making.

D.

It facilitates communication of threat levels.

Question 252

Options:

A.

Accept the residual risk due to the low likelihood of occurrence.

B.

Implement additional mitigation measures.

C.

Determine whether residual risk is within risk appetite.

D.

Adopt a new risk assessment method to avoid the residual risk.

Question 253

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY area of focus when reporting changes to an organization ' s risk profile to executive management?

Options:

A.

Risk management resources

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Cyberattack threats

D.

Risk trends

Question 254

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when assessing the risk of using Internet of Things (loT) devices to collect and process personally identifiable information (PII)?

Options:

A.

Business strategies and needs

B.

Security features and support

C.

Costs and benefits

D.

Local laws and regulations

Question 255

A risk practitioner is organizing a training session lo communicate risk assessment methodologies to ensure a consistent risk view within the organization Which of the following i < the MOST important topic to cover in this training?

Options:

A.

Applying risk appetite

B.

Applying risk factors

C.

Referencing risk event data

D.

Understanding risk culture

Question 256

An organization is planning to acquire a new financial system. Which of the following stakeholders would provide the MOST relevant information for analyzing the risk associated with the new IT solution?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Process owner

C.

Risk manager

D.

Internal auditor

Question 257

Which of the following facilitates a completely independent review of test results for evaluating control effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Three lines of defense

C.

Compliance review

D.

Quality assurance review

Question 258

A risk practitioner has reviewed new international regulations and realizes the new regulations will affect the organization. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner ' s NEXT course of

action?

Options:

A.

Conduct a peer response assessment.

B.

Update risk scenarios in the risk register.

C.

Reevaluate the risk management program.

D.

Ensure applications are compliant.

Question 259

Which of the following is the BEST way to validate privileged access to database accounts?

Options:

A.

Regular reviews of privileged access

B.

Confirmation from users with privileged access

C.

Management approval of access requests

D.

Confirmation from the database administrator (DBA)

Question 260

Which of the following is the MOST important objective of establishing an enterprise risk management (ERM) function within an organization?

Options:

A.

To have a unified approach to risk management across the organization

B.

To have a standard risk management process for complying with regulations

C.

To optimize risk management resources across the organization

D.

To ensure risk profiles are presented in a consistent format within the organization

Question 261

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to mitigate identified risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Assign ownership of the risk response plan

B.

Provide awareness in early detection of risk.

C.

Perform periodic audits on identified risk.

D.

areas Document the risk tolerance of the organization.

Question 262

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure employee adherence to organizational security policies?

Options:

A.

Total number of security policy audit findings

B.

Total number of regulatory violations

C.

Total number of security policy exceptions

D.

Total number of opened phishing emails

Question 263

What is the MAIN benefit of using a top-down approach to develop risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

It describes risk events specific to technology used by the enterprise.

B.

It establishes the relationship between risk events and organizational objectives.

C.

It uses hypothetical and generic risk events specific to the enterprise.

D.

It helps management and the risk practitioner to refine risk scenarios.

Question 264

The PRIMARY advantage of involving end users in continuity planning is that they:

Options:

A.

have a better understanding of specific business needs

B.

can balance the overall technical and business concerns

C.

can see the overall impact to the business

D.

are more objective than information security management.

Question 265

A risk practitioner ' s BEST guidance to help an organization develop relevant risk scenarios is to ensure the scenarios are:

Options:

A.

based on industry trends.

B.

mapped to incident response plans.

C.

related to probable events.

D.

aligned with risk management capabilities.

Question 266

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing controls for monitoring user activity logs?

Options:

A.

Ensuring availability of resources for log analysis

B.

Implementing log analysis tools to automate controls

C.

Ensuring the control is proportional to the risk

D.

Building correlations between logs collected from different sources

Question 267

What is the PRIMARY reason an organization should include background checks on roles with elevated access to production as part of its hiring process?

Options:

A.

To eliminate risk associated with personnel

B.

To reduce internal threats

C.

To ensure new hires have the required skills

D.

To reduce exposure to vulnerabilities

Question 268

Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the first line of defense with respect to information security policies?

Options:

A.

Draft the information security policy.

B.

Approve the information security policy.

C.

Audit the implementation of the information security policy.

D.

Implement controls in response to the policy requirements.

Question 269

Which of the following provides the MOST reliable evidence to support conclusions after completing an information systems controls assessment?

Options:

A.

Risk and control self-assessment (CSA) reports

B.

Information generated by the systems

C.

Control environment narratives

D.

Confirmation from industry peers

Question 270

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information when developing a risk profile for management approval?

Options:

A.

Residual risk and risk appetite

B.

Strength of detective and preventative controls

C.

Effectiveness and efficiency of controls

D.

Inherent risk and risk tolerance

Question 271

When developing IT risk scenarios, it is MOST important to consider:

Options:

A.

The industry ' s threat profile.

B.

Incidents occurring at similar organizations.

C.

System performance thresholds.

D.

Organizational objectives.

Question 272

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting either a qualitative or quantitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

Expertise in both methodologies

B.

Maturity of the risk management program

C.

Time available for risk analysis

D.

Resources available for data analysis

Question 273

Options:

A.

Recovery point objective (RPO) of 48 hours

B.

Recovery time objective (RTO) of 48 hours

C.

Mean time between failures (MTBF) of 48 hours

D.

Mean time to recover (MTTR) of 48 hours

Question 274

Which of the following provides the BEST indication that existing controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Control testing

B.

Control logging

C.

Control documentation

D.

Control design

Question 275

The BEST way for management to validate whether risk response activities have been completed is to review:

Options:

A.

the risk register change log.

B.

evidence of risk acceptance.

C.

control effectiveness test results.

D.

control design documentation.

Question 276

Which of the following is the MOST significant indicator of the need to perform a penetration test?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of high-risk audit findings

B.

An increase in the number of security incidents

C.

An increase in the percentage of turnover in IT personnel

D.

An increase in the number of infrastructure changes

Question 277

A global organization is considering the acquisition of a competitor. Senior management has requested a review of the overall risk profile from the targeted organization. Which of the following components of this review would provide the MOST useful information?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite statement

B.

Enterprise risk management framework

C.

Risk management policies

D.

Risk register

Question 278

A risk practitioner is evaluating policies defined by an organization as part of its IT security framework. Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment with global security standards

B.

Inadequate policy enforcement

C.

Lack of a single repository for security procedures

D.

Increased cost for policy adoption

Question 279

An organization recently experienced a cyber attack that resulted in the loss of confidential customer data. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation after recovery steps have been completed?

Options:

A.

Develop new key risk indicators (KRIs).

B.

Perform a root cause analysis.

C.

Recommend the purchase of cyber insurance.

D.

Review the incident response plan.

Question 280

A risk practitioner discovers that an IT operations team manager bypassed web filtering controls by using a mobile device, in violation of the network security policy. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the incident.

B.

Plan a security awareness session.

C.

Assess the new risk.

D.

Update the risk register.

Question 281

Which of the following is the MOST effective way for a large and diversified organization to minimize risk associated with unauthorized software on company devices?

Options:

A.

Scan end points for applications not included in the asset inventory.

B.

Prohibit the use of cloud-based virtual desktop software.

C.

Conduct frequent reviews of software licenses.

D.

Perform frequent internal audits of enterprise IT infrastructure.

Question 282

Which of the following BEST indicates the risk appetite and tolerance level (or the risk associated with business interruption caused by IT system failures?

Options:

A.

Mean time to recover (MTTR)

B.

IT system criticality classification

C.

Incident management service level agreement (SLA)

D.

Recovery time objective (RTO)

Question 283

Which of the following is the PRIMARY consideration when determining the impact to an organization after the discovery of malware on an endpoint device?

Options:

A.

Availability of patches and security updates.

B.

Asset criticality and sensitivity.

C.

Currency of the incident response plan.

D.

Currency of anti-malware signatures.

Question 284

Which of the following should be management ' s PRIMARY focus when key risk indicators (KRIs) begin to rapidly approach defined thresholds?

Options:

A.

Designing compensating controls

B.

Determining if KRIs have been updated recently

C.

Assessing the effectiveness of the incident response plan

D.

Determining what has changed in the environment

Question 285

A risk assessment indicates the residual risk associated with a new bring your own device (BYOD) program is within organizational risk tolerance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner

recommend be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Implement targeted awareness training for new BYOD users.

B.

Implement monitoring to detect control deterioration.

C.

Identify log sources to monitor BYOD usage and risk impact.

D.

Reduce the risk tolerance level.

Question 286

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when determining key performance indicators (KPIs) for a process?

Options:

A.

Historical trends in process-related incidents

B.

Known problems with the process

C.

Success criteria for the process

D.

Alignment with established industry frameworks

Question 287

What is the PRIMARY purpose of a business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

To determine the likelihood and impact of threats to business operations

B.

To identify important business processes in the organization

C.

To estimate resource requirements for related business processes

D.

To evaluate the priority of business operations in case of disruption

Question 288

An organization has outsourced its backup and recovery procedures to a cloud service provider. The provider ' s controls are inadequate for the organization ' s level of risk tolerance. As a result, the organization has internally implemented additional backup and recovery controls. Which risk response has been adopted?

Options:

A.

Mitigation

B.

Acceptance

C.

Transfer

D.

Avoidance

Question 289

The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:

Options:

A.

assessing impact to the strategic plan.

B.

aligning with industry best practices.

C.

soliciting input from risk management experts.

D.

evaluating the cost of risk response.

Question 290

An organization has implemented a policy requiring staff members to take a minimum of five consecutive days ' leave per year to mitigate the risk of malicious insider activities. Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) of the effectiveness of this policy?

Options:

A.

Percentage of staff turnover following five consecutive days of leave

B.

Average number of consecutive days of leave per staff member

C.

Number of suspected malicious activities reported since policy implementation

D.

Financial loss incurred due to malicious activities since policy implementation

Question 291

Business areas within an organization have engaged various cloud service providers directly without assistance from the IT department. What should the risk practitioner do?

Options:

A.

Recommend the IT department remove access to the cloud services.

B.

Engage with the business area managers to review controls applied.

C.

Escalate to the risk committee.

D.

Recommend a risk assessment be conducted.

Question 292

An organization control environment is MOST effective when:

Options:

A.

control designs are reviewed periodically

B.

controls perform as intended.

C.

controls are implemented consistently.

D.

controls operate efficiently

Question 293

An organization has outsourced its IT security operations to a third party. Who is ULTIMATELY accountable for the risk associated with the outsourced operations?

Options:

A.

The third party s management

B.

The organization ' s management

C.

The control operators at the third party

D.

The organization ' s vendor management office

Question 294

Which of the following could BEST detect an in-house developer inserting malicious functions into a web-based application?

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Code review

C.

Change management

D.

Audit modules

Question 295

Which of the following has the GREATEST influence on an organization ' s risk appetite?

Options:

A.

Threats and vulnerabilities

B.

Internal and external risk factors

C.

Business objectives and strategies

D.

Management culture and behavior

Question 296

Which of the following will BEST help to ensure implementation of corrective action plans?

Options:

A.

Establishing employee awareness training

B.

Assigning accountability to risk owners

C.

Selling target dates to complete actions

D.

Contracting to third parties

Question 297

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for sharing risk assessment reports with senior stakeholders?

Options:

A.

To support decision-making for risk response

B.

To hold risk owners accountable for risk action plans

C.

To secure resourcing for risk treatment efforts

D.

To enable senior management to compile a risk profile

Question 298

A risk practitioner notes control design changes when comparing risk response to a previously approved action plan. Which of the following is MOST important for the practitioner to confirm?

Options:

A.

Appropriate approvals for the control changes

B.

The reason the action plan was modified

C.

The risk owner ' s approval of the revised action plan

D.

The effectiveness of the resulting control

Question 299

The head of a business operations department asks to review the entire IT risk register. Which of the following would be the risk manager s BEST approach to this request before sharing the register?

Options:

A.

Escalate to senior management

B.

Require a nondisclosure agreement.

C.

Sanitize portions of the register

D.

Determine the purpose of the request

Question 300

Which of the following would BEST facilitate the maintenance of data classification requirements?

Options:

A.

Scheduling periodic audits

B.

Assigning a data custodian

C.

Implementing technical controls over the assets

D.

Establishing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution

Question 301

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of continuous monitoring?

Options:

A.

Optimizing utilization of personnel

B.

Detecting control errors in a timely manner

C.

Aligning operations with policies and procedures

D.

Minimizing the magnitude of loss from an event

Question 302

Which of the following is the PRIMARY advantage of having a single integrated business continuity plan (BCP) rather than each business unit developing its own BCP?

Options:

A.

It provides assurance of timely business process response and effectiveness.

B.

It supports effective use of resources and provides reasonable confidence of recoverability.

C.

It enables effective BCP maintenance and updates to reflect organizational changes.

D.

It decreases the risk of downtime and operational losses in the event of a disruption.

Question 303

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE objective of utilizing key control indicators (KCIs) in the risk management process?

Options:

A.

To provide insight into the effectiveness of the internal control environment

B.

To provide a basis for determining the criticality of risk mitigation controls

C.

To provide benchmarks for assessing control design effectiveness against industry peers

D.

To provide early warning signs of a potential change in risk level

Question 304

Which of the following controls BEST helps to ensure that transaction data reaches its destination?

Options:

A.

Securing the network from attacks

B.

Providing acknowledgments from receiver to sender

C.

Digitally signing individual messages

D.

Encrypting data-in-transit

Question 305

Which of the following would be MOST helpful in assessing the risk associated with data loss due to human vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Reviewing password change history

B.

Performing periodic access recertification

C.

Conducting social engineering exercises

D.

Reviewing the results of security awareness surveys

Question 306

Which of the following is the BEST way to confirm whether appropriate automated controls are in place within a recently implemented system?

Options:

A.

Perform a post-implementation review.

B.

Conduct user acceptance testing.

C.

Review the key performance indicators (KPIs).

D.

Interview process owners.

Question 307

A new international data privacy regulation requires personal data to be

disposed after the specified retention period, which is different from the local

regulatory requirement. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s

BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

The application code has not been version controlled.

B.

Knowledge of the applications is limited to few employees.

C.

An IT project manager is not assigned to oversee development.

D.

Controls are not applied to the applications.

Question 308

The number of tickets to rework application code has significantly exceeded the established threshold. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis

B.

Perform a code review

C.

Implement version control software.

D.

Implement training on coding best practices

Question 309

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to understand about an organization in order to create an effective risk

awareness program?

Options:

A.

Policies and procedures

B.

Structure and culture

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs) and thresholds

D.

Known threats and vulnerabilities

Question 310

When communicating changes in the IT risk profile, which of the following should be included to BEST enable stakeholder decision making?

Options:

A.

List of recent incidents affecting industry peers

B.

Results of external attacks and related compensating controls

C.

Gaps between current and desired states of the control environment

D.

Review of leading IT risk management practices within the industry

Question 311

A multinational organization is considering implementing standard background checks to ' all new employees A KEY concern regarding this approach

Options:

A.

fail to identity all relevant issues.

B.

be too costly

C.

violate laws in other countries

D.

be too line consuming

Question 312

When a high number of approved exceptions are observed during a review of a control procedure, an organization should FIRST initiate a review of the:

Options:

A.

Relevant policies.

B.

Threat landscape.

C.

Awareness program.

D.

Risk heat map.

Question 313

Which of the following indicators measures the performance of IT configuration management?

Options:

A.

Number of devices reviewed for compliance

B.

Number of devices adhering to baseline settings

C.

Number of devices exceeding minimum configuration

D.

Number of devices not reporting configuration data

Question 314

Which of the following would be of MOST concern to a risk practitioner reviewing risk action plans for documented IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Individuals outside IT are managing action plans for the risk scenarios.

B.

Target dates for completion are missing from some action plans.

C.

Senior management approved multiple changes to several action plans.

D.

Many action plans were discontinued after senior management accepted the risk.

Question 315

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of an IT risk awareness program?

Options:

A.

Ensure compliance with the organization ' s internal policies

B.

Cultivate long-term behavioral change.

C.

Communicate IT risk policy to the participants.

D.

Demonstrate regulatory compliance.

Question 316

A risk practitioner has observed that there is an increasing trend of users sending sensitive information by email without using encryption. Which of the following would be the MOST effective approach to mitigate the risk associated with data loss?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to create and distribute violation reports

B.

Raise awareness of encryption requirements for sensitive data.

C.

Block unencrypted outgoing emails which contain sensitive data.

D.

Implement a progressive disciplinary process for email violations.

Question 317

Which of the following would be MOST beneficial as a key risk indicator (KRI)?

Options:

A.

Current capital allocation reserves

B.

Negative security return on investment (ROI)

C.

Project cost variances

D.

Annualized loss projections

Question 318

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce potential losses due to ongoing expense fraud?

Options:

A.

Implement user access controls

B.

Perform regular internal audits

C.

Develop and communicate fraud prevention policies

D.

Conduct fraud prevention awareness training.

Question 319

Which of the following sources is MOST relevant to reference when updating security awareness training materials?

Options:

A.

Risk management framework

B.

Risk register

C.

Global security standards

D.

Recent security incidents reported by competitors

Question 320

A business unit is implementing a data analytics platform to enhance its customer relationship management (CRM) system primarily to process data that has been provided by its customers. Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk to the organization ' s reputation?

Options:

A.

Third-party software is used for data analytics.

B.

Data usage exceeds individual consent.

C.

Revenue generated is not disclosed to customers.

D.

Use of a data analytics system is not disclosed to customers.

Question 321

An organization has detected unauthorized logins to its client database servers. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern?

Options:

A.

Potential increase in regulatory scrutiny

B.

Potential system downtime

C.

Potential theft of personal information

D.

Potential legal risk

Question 322

What can be determined from the risk scenario chart?

as

Options:

A.

Relative positions on the risk map

B.

Risk treatment options

C.

Capability of enterprise to implement

D.

The multiple risk factors addressed by a chosen response

Question 323

Which of the following should be done FIRST upon learning that the organization will be affected by a new regulation in its industry?

Options:

A.

Transfer the risk.

B.

Perform a gap analysis.

C.

Determine risk appetite for the new regulation.

D.

Implement specific monitoring controls.

Question 324

An organization recently configured a new business division Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk culture

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 325

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason to use administrative controls in conjunction with technical controls?

Options:

A.

To gain stakeholder support for the implementation of controls

B.

To comply with industry best practices by balancing multiple types of controls

C.

To improve the effectiveness of controls that mitigate risk

D.

To address multiple risk scenarios mitigated by technical controls

Question 326

An automobile manufacturer is considering implementing an Internet of Things (IoT) network to improve customer service by collecting customer and vehicle data. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST recommendation?

Options:

A.

Establish secure design and coding practices for the IoT network and devices

B.

Conduct a pilot program before implementing the IoT network and devices

C.

Ensure backward compatibility of IoT devices with previous generations of vehicles

D.

Provide a range of IoT device options and configurations for customers

Question 327

Which of The following should be of GREATEST concern for an organization considering the adoption of a bring your own device (BYOD) initiative?

Options:

A.

Device corruption

B.

Data loss

C.

Malicious users

D.

User support

Question 328

A global company s business continuity plan (BCP) requires the transfer of its customer information….

event of a disaster. Which of the following should be the MOST important risk consideration?

Options:

A.

The difference In the management practices between each company

B.

The cloud computing environment is shared with another company

C.

The lack of a service level agreement (SLA) in the vendor contract

D.

The organizational culture differences between each country

Question 329

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for effectively maintaining a risk register?

Options:

A.

An IT owner is assigned for each risk scenario.

B.

The register is updated frequently.

C.

The register is shared with executive management.

D.

Compensating controls are identified.

Question 330

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to determine if a risk factor exceeds risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Review the risk profile.

B.

Conduct a gap analysis.

C.

Monitor changes in external risk factors.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 331

Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective of risk management?

Options:

A.

Identify and analyze risk.

B.

Achieve business objectives

C.

Minimi2e business disruptions.

D.

Identify threats and vulnerabilities.

Question 332

Which of the following roles would be MOST helpful in providing a high-level view of risk related to customer data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

Question 333

Which of the following is the MOST critical consideration when awarding a project to a third-party service provider whose servers are located offshore?

Options:

A.

Difficulty of monitoring compliance due to geographical distance

B.

Cost implications due to installation of network intrusion detection systems (IDSs)

C.

Delays in incident communication

D.

Potential impact on data governance

Question 334

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to consider when developing its IT strategy?

Options:

A.

IT goals and objectives

B.

Organizational goals and objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk appetite statement

D.

Legal and regulatory requirements

Question 335

Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent unauthorized access to an organization ' s critical assets?

Options:

A.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

B.

Intrusion detection system (IDS)

C.

Multi-factor authentication (MFA)

D.

Intrusion prevention system (IPS)

Question 336

The FIRST task when developing a business continuity plan should be to:

Options:

A.

determine data backup and recovery availability at an alternate site.

B.

identify critical business functions and resources.

C.

define roles and responsibilities for implementation.

D.

identify recovery time objectives (RTOs) for critical business applications.

Question 337

The risk to an organization ' s reputation due to a recent cybersecurity breach is PRIMARILY considered to be:

Options:

A.

financial risk.

B.

data risk.

C.

operational risk.

D.

strategic risk.

Question 338

Which of the following roles would provide the MOST important input when identifying IT risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Information security managers

B.

Internal auditors

C.

Business process owners

D.

Operational risk managers

Question 339

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an enhanced risk-aware culture?

Options:

A.

Users have read and agreed to comply with security policies.

B.

Risk issues are openly discussed within the organization.

C.

Scores have improved on risk awareness quizzes.

D.

There is a decrease in the number of reported incidents.

Question 340

Which of the following is the GREATEST advantage of implementing a risk management program?

Options:

A.

Enabling risk-aware decisions

B.

Promoting a risk-aware culture

C.

Improving security governance

D.

Reducing residual risk

Question 341

The MOST important reason for implementing change control procedures is to ensure:

Options:

A.

only approved changes are implemented

B.

timely evaluation of change events

C.

an audit trail exists.

D.

that emergency changes are logged.

Question 342

A business delegates its application data management to the internal IT team. Which of the following is the role of the internal IT team in this situation?

Options:

A.

Data controllers

B.

Data custodians

C.

Data analysts

D.

Data owners

Question 343

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of executive management ' s support for IT risk mitigation efforts?

Options:

A.

The number of stakeholders involved in IT risk identification workshops

B.

The percentage of corporate budget allocated to IT risk activities

C.

The percentage of incidents presented to the board

D.

The number of executives attending IT security awareness training

Question 344

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm once a risk action plan has been completed?

Options:

A.

The risk register has been updated.

B.

The risk tolerance has been recalibrated.

C.

The risk has been mitigated to the intended level.

D.

The risk owner has reviewed the outcomes.

Question 345

Which of the following statements BEST describes risk appetite?

Options:

A.

The amount of risk an organization is willing to accept

B.

The effective management of risk and internal control environments

C.

Acceptable variation between risk thresholds and business objectives

D.

The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of objectives

Question 346

A risk practitioner has learned that the number of emergency change management tickets without subsequent approval has doubled from the same period of the previous year. Which of the following is the MOST important action for the risk practitioner to take?

Options:

A.

Review the cause of the control failure.

B.

Temporarily suspend emergency changes.

C.

Recommend remedial training.

D.

Initiate a review of the change management process.

Question 347

An IT license audit has revealed that there are several unlicensed copies of co be to:

Options:

A.

immediately uninstall the unlicensed software from the laptops

B.

centralize administration rights on laptops so that installations are controlled

C.

report the issue to management so appropriate action can be taken.

D.

procure the requisite licenses for the software to minimize business impact.

Question 348

IT management has asked for a consolidated view into the organization ' s risk profile to enable project prioritization and resource allocation. Which of the following materials would

be MOST helpful?

Options:

A.

IT risk register

B.

List of key risk indicators

C.

Internal audit reports

D.

List of approved projects

Question 349

A small organization finds it difficult to implement separation of duties necessary to mitigate the likelihood of system misuse. Which of the following would be the BEST compensating control?

Options:

A.

Undertake control self-assessments (CSAs)

B.

Require reports from staff with multiple duties

C.

Obtain independent analysis of transaction logs

D.

Assign activities to fewer employees

Question 350

Which of the following is the FIRST step in risk assessment?

Options:

A.

Review risk governance

B.

Asset identification

C.

Identify risk factors

D.

Inherent risk identification

Question 351

Following a significant change to a business process, a risk practitioner believes the associated risk has been reduced. The risk practitioner should advise the risk owner to FIRST

Options:

A.

review the key risk indicators.

B.

conduct a risk analysis.

C.

update the risk register

D.

reallocate risk response resources.

Question 352

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration for a risk practitioner when making a system implementation go-live recommendation?

Options:

A.

Completeness of system documentation

B.

Results of end user acceptance testing

C.

Variances between planned and actual cost

D.

availability of in-house resources

Question 353

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of creating an organizational code of conduct?

Options:

A.

Clear expectations for employee behavior

B.

Identification of ethical risk facing the organization

C.

Improvement in workforce productivity

D.

Enhanced integrity of management

Question 354

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for a risk practitioner to use global standards related to risk management?

Options:

A.

To build an organizational risk-aware culture

B.

To continuously improve risk management processes

C.

To comply with legal and regulatory requirements

D.

To identify gaps in risk management practices

Question 355

A risk practitioner has just learned about new malware that has severely impacted industry peers worldwide data loss?

Options:

A.

Customer database manager

B.

Customer data custodian

C.

Data privacy officer

D.

Audit committee

Question 356

Options:

A.

Develop policies with less restrictive requirements to ensure consistency across the organization.

B.

Develop a global policy to be applied uniformly by each country.

C.

Develop country-specific policies to address local regulations.

D.

Develop a global policy that accommodates country-specific requirements.

Question 357

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of a risk register?

Options:

A.

It guides management in determining risk appetite.

B.

It provides management with a risk inventory.

C.

It aligns risk scenarios to business objectives.

D.

It monitors the performance of risk and control owners.

Question 358

Which of the following is MOST important for an organization that wants to reduce IT operational risk?

Options:

A.

Increasing senior management ' s understanding of IT operations

B.

Increasing the frequency of data backups

C.

Minimizing complexity of IT infrastructure

D.

Decentralizing IT infrastructure

Question 359

A risk practitioner has identified that the agreed recovery time objective (RTO) with a Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is longer than the business expectation. Which ot the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Collaborate with the risk owner to determine the risk response plan.

B.

Document the gap in the risk register and report to senior management.

C.

Include a right to audit clause in the service provider contract.

D.

Advise the risk owner to accept the risk.

Question 360

Risk mitigation is MOST effective when which of the following is optimized?

Options:

A.

Operational risk

B.

Residual risk

C.

Inherent risk

D.

Regulatory risk

Question 361

Which of the following BEST helps to ensure disaster recovery staff members

are able to complete their assigned tasks effectively during a disaster?

Options:

A.

Performing parallel disaster recovery testing

B.

Documenting the order of system and application restoration

C.

Involving disaster recovery staff members in risk assessments

D.

Conducting regular tabletop exercises and scenario analysis

Question 362

Which of the following is a PRIMARY reason for considering existing controls during initial risk assessment?

Options:

A.

To determine the inherent risk level

B.

To determine the acceptable risk level

C.

To determine the current risk level

D.

To determine the desired risk level

Question 363

A data privacy regulation has been revised to incorporate more stringent requirements for personal data protection. Which of the following provides the MOST important input to help ensure compliance with the revised regulation?

Options:

A.

Gap analysis

B.

Current control attestation

C.

Risk profile update

D.

Business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 364

From a risk management perspective, which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of using automated system configuration validation tools?

Options:

A.

Residual risk is reduced.

B.

Staff costs are reduced.

C.

Operational costs are reduced.

D.

Inherent risk is reduced.

Question 365

A risk practitioner has determined that a key control does not meet design expectations. Which of the following should be done NEXT?

Options:

A.

Document the finding in the risk register.

B.

Invoke the incident response plan.

C.

Re-evaluate key risk indicators.

D.

Modify the design of the control.

Question 366

Which of the following observations should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner assessing a third-party service provider for privacy risk?

Options:

A.

Appropriate privacy training and awareness campaigns are not conducted for employees

B.

The provider subcontracts part of the service to a fourth party

C.

Contractual language for handling personally identifiable information (PII) is not defined.

D.

The roles and responsibilities associated with data governance are not well defined

Question 367

Which of the following is a risk practitioner ' s BEST recommendation to help reduce IT risk associated with scheduling overruns when starting a new application development project?

Options:

A.

Implement a tool to track the development team ' s deliverables.

B.

Review the software development life cycle.

C.

Involve the development team in planning.

D.

Assign more developers to the project team.

Question 368

Which of the following is a KEY responsibility of the second line of defense?

Options:

A.

Implementing control activities

B.

Monitoring control effectiveness

C.

Conducting control self-assessments

D.

Owning risk scenarios

Question 369

When reporting on the performance of an organization ' s control environment including which of the following would BEST inform stakeholders risk decision-making?

Options:

A.

The audit plan for the upcoming period

B.

Spend to date on mitigating control implementation

C.

A report of deficiencies noted during controls testing

D.

A status report of control deployment

Question 370

A recent internal risk review reveals the majority of core IT application recovery time objectives (RTOs) have exceeded the maximum time defined by the business application owners. Which of the following is MOST likely to change as a result?

Options:

A.

Risk forecasting

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk likelihood

D.

Risk appetite

Question 371

An organization has identified the need to implement an asset tiering model to establish the appropriate level of impact. Which of the following is the MOST effective risk assessment methodology for a risk practitioner to use for this initiative?

Options:

A.

Qualitative method

B.

Industry calibration method

C.

Threat-based method

D.

Quantitative method

Question 372

Which of the following is the BEST indication of an effective risk management program?

Options:

A.

Risk action plans are approved by senior management.

B.

Residual risk is within the organizational risk appetite

C.

Mitigating controls are designed and implemented.

D.

Risk is recorded and tracked in the risk register

Question 373

Numerous media reports indicate a recently discovered technical vulnerability is being actively exploited. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Assess the vulnerability management process.

B.

Conduct a control serf-assessment.

C.

Conduct a vulnerability assessment.

D.

Reassess the inherent risk of the target.

Question 374

Which of the following would be considered a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Delayed removal of employee access

B.

Authorized administrative access to HR files

C.

Corruption of files due to malware

D.

Server downtime due to a denial of service (DoS) attack

Question 375

Which of the following is a specific concern related to machine learning algorithms?

Options:

A.

Low software quality

B.

Lack of access controls

C.

Data breaches

D.

Data bias

Question 376

Which of the following is MOST helpful in providing a high-level overview of current IT risk severity*?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation plans

B.

heat map

C.

Risk appetite statement

D.

Key risk indicators (KRls)

Question 377

The PRIMARY benefit associated with key risk indicators (KRls) is that they:

Options:

A.

help an organization identify emerging threats.

B.

benchmark the organization ' s risk profile.

C.

identify trends in the organization ' s vulnerabilities.

D.

enable ongoing monitoring of emerging risk.

Question 378

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of identifying appropriate risk owners?

Options:

A.

Accountability is established for risk treatment decisions

B.

Stakeholders are consulted about risk treatment options

C.

Risk owners are informed of risk treatment options

D.

Responsibility is established for risk treatment decisions.

Question 379

An organization ' s IT team has proposed the adoption of cloud computing as a cost-saving measure for the business. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to the risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Due diligence for the recommended cloud vendor has not been performed.

B.

The business can introduce new Software as a Service (SaaS) solutions without IT approval.

C.

The maintenance of IT infrastructure has been outsourced to an Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider.

D.

Architecture responsibilities may not be clearly defined.

Question 380

During a recent security framework review, it was discovered that the marketing department implemented a non-fungible token asset program. This was done without following established risk procedures. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Report the infraction.

B.

Perform a risk assessment.

C.

Conduct risk awareness training.

D.

Discontinue the process.

Question 381

Which of the following would BEST help to address the risk associated with malicious outsiders modifying application data?

Options:

A.

Multi-factor authentication

B.

Role-based access controls

C.

Activation of control audits

D.

Acceptable use policies

Question 382

When a risk practitioner is building a key risk indicator (KRI) from aggregated data, it is CRITICAL that the data is derived from:

Options:

A.

business process owners.

B.

representative data sets.

C.

industry benchmark data.

D.

data automation systems.

Question 383

While evaluating control costs, management discovers that the annual cost exceeds the annual loss expectancy (ALE) of the risk. This indicates the:

Options:

A.

control is ineffective and should be strengthened

B.

risk is inefficiently controlled.

C.

risk is efficiently controlled.

D.

control is weak and should be removed.

Question 384

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a disaster recovery test of critical business processes?

Options:

A.

Percentage of job failures identified and resolved during the recovery process

B.

Percentage of processes recovered within the recovery time and point objectives

C.

Number of current test plans and procedures

D.

Number of issues and action items resolved during the recovery test

Question 385

A risk practitioner is MOST likely to use a SWOT analysis to assist with which risk process?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Risk reporting

C.

Risk mitigation

D.

Risk identification

Question 386

To enable effective integration of IT risk scenarios and ERM, it is MOST important to have a consistent approach to reporting:

Options:

A.

Risk impact and likelihood

B.

Risk velocity

C.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

D.

Risk response plans and owners

Question 387

Who is MOST likely to be responsible for the coordination between the IT risk strategy and the business risk strategy?

Options:

A.

Chief financial officer

B.

Information security director

C.

Internal audit director

D.

Chief information officer

Question 388

A risk practitioner is reporting on an increasing trend of ransomware attacks in the industry. Which of the following information is MOST important to include to enable an informed response decision by key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Methods of attack progression

B.

Losses incurred by industry peers

C.

Most recent antivirus scan reports

D.

Potential impact of events

Question 389

Which of the following tasks should be completed prior to creating a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Conducting a business impact analysis (BIA)

B.

Identifying the recovery response team

C.

Procuring a recovery site

D.

Assigning sensitivity levels to data

Question 390

Which of the following BEST indicates that an organization ' s risk management processes are mature?

Options:

A.

Risk policy is approved and communicated by the risk manager

B.

Annual risk awareness training is conducted by risk owners

C.

Risk principles are embedded within business operations and decisions

D.

The board regularly follows up on risk status and action plans

Question 391

A risk practitioner is advising management on how to update the IT policy framework to account for the organization s cloud usage. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in this process?

Options:

A.

Consult with industry peers regarding cloud best practices.

B.

Evaluate adherence to existing IT policies and standards.

C.

Determine gaps between the current state and target framework.

D.

Adopt an industry-leading cloud computing framework.

Question 392

Which of the following is the BEST source for identifying key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

Privileged user activity monitoring controls

B.

Controls mapped to organizational risk scenarios

C.

Recent audit findings of control weaknesses

D.

A list of critical security processes

Question 393

A segregation of duties control was found to be ineffective because it did not account for all applicable functions when evaluating access. Who is responsible for ensuring the control is designed to effectively address risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager

B.

Control owner

C.

Control tester

D.

Risk owner

Question 394

Which of the following would be MOST helpful to an information security management team when allocating resources to mitigate exposures?

Options:

A.

Relevant risk case studies

B.

Internal audit findings

C.

Risk assessment results

D.

Penetration testing results

Question 395

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the ongoing efficiency of control processes?

Options:

A.

Perform annual risk assessments.

B.

Interview process owners.

C.

Review the risk register.

D.

Analyze key performance indicators (KPIs).

Question 396

Which of the following can be used to assign a monetary value to risk?

Options:

A.

Annual loss expectancy (ALE)

B.

Business impact analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Inherent vulnerabilities

Question 397

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern when establishing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

High percentage of lagging indicators

B.

Nonexistent benchmark analysis

C.

Incomplete documentation for KRI monitoring

D.

Ineffective methods to assess risk

Question 398

Which of the following would provide the BEST evidence of an effective internal control environment/?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment results

B.

Adherence to governing policies

C.

Regular stakeholder briefings

D.

Independent audit results

Question 399

Which type of cloud computing deployment provides the consumer the GREATEST degree of control over the environment?

Options:

A.

Community cloud

B.

Private cloud

C.

Hybrid cloud

D.

Public cloud

Question 400

In a DevOps environment, a container does not pass dynamic application security testing (DAST). How should this situation be categorized?

Options:

A.

As a risk event

B.

As a risk scenario

C.

As an incident

D.

As an error

Question 401

Who is BEST suited to determine whether a new control properly mitigates data loss risk within a system?

Options:

A.

Data owner

B.

Control owner

C.

Risk owner

D.

System owner

Question 402

What is a risk practitioner ' s BEST approach to monitor and measure how quickly an exposure to a specific risk can affect the organization?

Options:

A.

Create an asset valuation report.

B.

Create key performance indicators (KPls).

C.

Create key risk indicators (KRIs).

D.

Create a risk volatility report.

Question 403

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization ' s risk profile?

Options:

A.

Align business objectives with risk appetite.

B.

Enable risk-based decision making.

C.

Design and implement risk response action plans.

D.

Update risk responses in the risk register

Question 404

Options:

A.

Internal email communications are not encrypted.

B.

Data transmission within the corporate network is not encrypted.

C.

Internally created documents are not automatically classified.

D.

Data transmission across public networks is not encrypted.

Question 405

The PRIMARY reason for establishing various Threshold levels for a set of key risk indicators (KRIs) is to:

Options:

A.

highlight trends of developing risk.

B.

ensure accurate and reliable monitoring.

C.

take appropriate actions in a timely manner.

D.

set different triggers for each stakeholder.

Question 406

Print jobs containing confidential information are sent to a shared network printer located in a secure room. Which of the following is the BEST control to prevent the inappropriate disclosure of confidential information?

Options:

A.

Requiring a printer access code for each user

B.

Using physical controls to access the printer room

C.

Using video surveillance in the printer room

D.

Ensuring printer parameters are properly configured

Question 407

An organization wants to transfer risk by purchasing cyber insurance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management for contract negotiation purposes?

Options:

A.

Most recent IT audit report results

B.

Replacement cost of IT assets

C.

Current annualized loss expectancy report

D.

Cyber insurance industry benchmarking report

Question 408

Improvements in the design and implementation of a control will MOST likely result in an update to:

Options:

A.

inherent risk.

B.

residual risk.

C.

risk appetite

D.

risk tolerance

Question 409

Which of the following should be the FIRST step when a company is made aware of new regulatory requirements impacting IT?

Options:

A.

Perform a gap analysis.

B.

Prioritize impact to the business units.

C.

Perform a risk assessment.

D.

Review the risk tolerance and appetite.

Question 410

Avoiding a business activity removes the need to determine:

Options:

A.

systemic risk

B.

residual risk

C.

inherent risk

D.

control risk

Question 411

Which of the following is a detective control?

Options:

A.

Limit check

B.

Periodic access review

C.

Access control software

D.

Rerun procedures

Question 412

Which of the following offers the SIMPLEST overview of changes in an organization ' s risk profile?

Options:

A.

A risk roadmap

B.

A balanced scorecard

C.

A heat map

D.

The risk register

Question 413

In order to efficiently execute a risk response action plan, it is MOST important for the emergency response team members to understand:

Options:

A.

system architecture in target areas.

B.

IT management policies and procedures.

C.

business objectives of the organization.

D.

defined roles and responsibilities.

Question 414

Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit when senior management periodically reviews and updates risk appetite and tolerance levels?

Options:

A.

It ensures compliance with the risk management framework.

B.

It ensures an effective risk aggregation process.

C.

It ensures decisions are risk-informed.

D.

It ensures a consistent approach for risk assessments.

Question 415

Who is accountable for risk treatment?

Options:

A.

Enterprise risk management team

B.

Risk mitigation manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Risk owner

Question 416

Which of the following is MOST important to sustainable development of secure IT services?

Options:

A.

Security training for systems development staff

B.

\Well-documented business cases

C.

Security architecture principles

D.

Secure coding practices

Question 417

Which of the following is the MOST important input when developing risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators

B.

Business objectives

C.

The organization ' s risk framework

D.

Risk appetite

Question 418

Which of the following is MOST important when considering risk in an enterprise risk management (ERM) process?

Options:

A.

Financial risk is given a higher priority.

B.

Risk with strategic impact is included.

C.

Security strategy is given a higher priority.

D.

Risk identified by industry benchmarking is included.

Question 419

A risk practitioner is conducting a risk assessment after discovering the use of unauthorized cloud software on personal devices to accomplish work-related tasks. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the effectiveness of controls to prevent data loss.

B.

Develop a policy standard for conducting business using personal devices.

C.

Recommend blocking downloads of unauthorized software.

D.

Identify the business need for the unauthorized software.

Question 420

Which of the following is a KEY principle of a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

Only allowing access to systems and data from trusted locations

B.

Mandating the use of complex passwords for access to data systems

C.

Requiring periodic reauthentication of access to systems

D.

Assuming that all systems are malicious

Question 421

Which of the following would have the GREATEST impact on reducing the risk associated with the implementation of a big data project?

Options:

A.

Data processing

B.

Data quality

C.

Data scalability

D.

Data governance

Question 422

Management has determined that it will take significant time to remediate exposures in the current IT control environment. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Implement control monitoring.

B.

Improve project management methodology.

C.

Reassess the risk periodically.

D.

Identify compensating controls.

Question 423

An organization has established a contract with a vendor that includes penalties for loss of availability. Which risk treatment has been adopted by the organization?

Options:

A.

Acceptance

B.

Avoidance

C.

Transfer

D.

Reduction

Question 424

A risk practitioner wants to identify potential risk events that affect the continuity of a critical business process. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Evaluate current risk management alignment with relevant regulations

B.

Determine if business continuity procedures are reviewed and updated on a regular basis

C.

Conduct a benchmarking exercise against industry peers

D.

Review the methodology used to conduct the business impact analysis (BIA)

Question 425

During the creation of an organization ' s IT risk management program, the BEST time to identify key risk indicators (KRIs) is while:

Options:

A.

Interviewing data owners

B.

Reviewing risk response plans with internal audit

C.

Developing a risk monitoring process

D.

Reviewing an external risk assessment

Question 426

It is MOST important that security controls for a new system be documented in:

Options:

A.

testing requirements

B.

the implementation plan.

C.

System requirements

D.

The security policy

Question 427

Which of the following would MOST effectively enable a business operations manager to identify events exceeding risk thresholds?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

A control self-assessment

C.

Transaction logging

D.

Benchmarking against peers

Question 428

An organization plans to implement a new Software as a Service (SaaS) speech-to-text solution Which of the following is MOST important to mitigate risk associated with data privacy?

Options:

A.

Secure encryption protocols are utilized.

B.

Multi-factor authentication is set up for users.

C.

The solution architecture is approved by IT.

D.

A risk transfer clause is included in the contact

Question 429

Which of the following is MOST important to consider when selecting and designing key control indicators (KCIs)?

Options:

A.

The KCI can establish a formal correlation with relevant KRIs

B.

The KCI can demonstrate whether the control objective has been met

C.

The KCI can be implemented within the allocated budget

D.

The KCI can be measured using quantitative methods

Question 430

A risk practitioner has recently become aware of unauthorized use of confidential personal information within the organization. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Establish database activity monitoring

B.

Report the incident to the chief privacy officer (CPO)

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Escalate the issue to the data owner

Question 431

A risk assessment has been completed on an application and reported to the application owner. The report includes validated vulnerability findings that require mitigation. Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

Options:

A.

Report the findings to executive management to enable treatment decisions.

B.

Reassess each vulnerability to evaluate the risk profile of the application.

C.

Conduct a penetration test to determine how to mitigate the vulnerabilities.

D.

Prepare a risk response that is aligned to the organization ' s risk tolerance.

Question 432

Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when implementing ethical remote work monitoring?

Options:

A.

Monitoring is only conducted between official hours of business

B.

Employees are informed of how they are bong monitored

C.

Reporting on nonproductive employees is sent to management on a scheduled basis

D.

Multiple data monitoring sources are integrated into security incident response procedures

Question 433

Which of the following MUST be assessed before considering risk treatment options for a scenario with significant impact?

Options:

A.

Risk magnitude

B.

Incident probability

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Cost-benefit analysis

Question 434

Reviewing which of the following BEST helps an organization gain insight into its overall risk profile?

Options:

A.

Threat landscape

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk register

D.

Risk metrics

Question 435

Which of the following is the BEST way to detect zero-day malware on an end user ' s workstation?

Options:

A.

An antivirus program

B.

Database activity monitoring

C.

Firewall log monitoring

D.

File integrity monitoring

Question 436

Which of the following is MOST important to update following a change in organizational risk appetite and tolerance?

Options:

A.

Business impact assessment (BIA)

B.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

C.

Risk profile

D.

Industry benchmark analysis

Question 437

Which of the following is MOST important for ensuring anonymous reporting of non-compliant activity?

Options:

A.

Implementing homomorphic encryption.

B.

Establishing an employee feedback channel.

C.

Establishing a dedicated compliance function.

D.

Implementing an incentive program.

Question 438

Which of the following is MOST effective in continuous risk management process improvement?

Options:

A.

Periodic assessments

B.

Change management

C.

Awareness training

D.

Policy updates

Question 439

Which of the following would BEST provide early warning of a high-risk condition?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk assessment

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI)

D.

Key performance indicator (KPI)

Question 440

Which of the following is the MOST important data attribute of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

The data is measurable.

B.

The data is calculated continuously.

C.

The data is relevant.

D.

The data is automatically produced.

Question 441

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting risk and control self-assessments?

Options:

A.

To better understand inherent and residual risk within the organization

B.

To gain objective insight into the effectiveness and efficiency of controls

C.

To demonstrate compliance with regulatory and legal control requirements

D.

To facilitate timely and accurate updates to the risk register

Question 442

Within the three lines of defense model, the responsibility for managing risk and controls resides with:

Options:

A.

operational management.

B.

the risk practitioner.

C.

the internal auditor.

D.

executive management.

Question 443

Which of the following is MOST important to identify when developing top-down risk scenarios?

Options:

A.

Key procedure control gaps

B.

Business objectives

C.

Senior management ' s risk appetite

D.

Hypothetical scenarios

Question 444

Which of the following presents the GREATEST risk associated with the deployment of AI tools within an organization?

Options:

A.

Incomplete rollback and contingency plans.

B.

Unapproved AI policy and framework.

C.

Lack of AI training for employees.

D.

Deficient third-party risk management program.

Question 445

Before assigning sensitivity levels to information it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

define recovery time objectives (RTOs).

B.

define the information classification policy

C.

conduct a sensitivity analyse

D.

Identify information custodians

Question 446

The PRIMARY purpose of IT control status reporting is to:

Options:

A.

ensure compliance with IT governance strategy.

B.

assist internal audit in evaluating and initiating remediation efforts.

C.

benchmark IT controls with Industry standards.

D.

facilitate the comparison of the current and desired states.

Question 447

Which of the following is of GREATEST concern when uncontrolled changes are made to the control environment?

Options:

A.

A decrease in control layering effectiveness

B.

An increase in inherent risk

C.

An increase in control vulnerabilities

D.

An increase in the level of residual risk

Question 448

Which of the following is MOST important to have in place to ensure the effectiveness of risk and security metrics reporting?

Options:

A.

Organizational reporting process

B.

Incident reporting procedures

C.

Regularly scheduled audits

D.

Incident management policy

Question 449

An organization has completed a risk assessment of one of its service providers. Who should be accountable for ensuring that risk responses are implemented?

Options:

A.

IT risk practitioner

B.

Third -partf3ecurity team

C.

The relationship owner

D.

Legal representation of the business

Question 450

Which of the following issues found during the review of a newly created disaster recovery plan (DRP) should be of MOST concern?

Options:

A.

Some critical business applications are not included in the plan

B.

Several recovery activities will be outsourced

C.

The plan is not based on an internationally recognized framework

D.

The chief information security officer (CISO) has not approved the plan

Question 451

The objective of aligning mitigating controls to risk appetite is to ensure that:

Options:

A.

exposures are reduced to the fullest extent

B.

exposures are reduced only for critical business systems

C.

insurance costs are minimized

D.

the cost of controls does not exceed the expected loss.

Question 452

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit when enterprise risk management (ERM) provides oversight of IT risk management?

Options:

A.

Aligning IT with short-term and long-term goals of the organization

B.

Ensuring the IT budget and resources focus on risk management

C.

Ensuring senior management ' s primary focus is on the impact of identified risk

D.

Prioritizing internal departments that provide service to customers

Question 453

Which types of controls are BEST used to minimize the risk associated with a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Preventive

C.

Deterrent

D.

Directive

Question 454

Which of the following is the BEST way to support communication of emerging risk?

Options:

A.

Update residual risk levels to reflect the expected risk impact.

B.

Adjust inherent risk levels upward.

C.

Include it on the next enterprise risk committee agenda.

D.

Include it in the risk register for ongoing monitoring.

Question 455

Which of the following MOST effectively limits the impact of a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

Cyber insurance

B.

Cryptocurrency reserve

C.

Data backups

D.

End user training

Question 456

The BEST way to obtain senior management support for investment in a control implementation would be to articulate the reduction in:

Options:

A.

detected incidents.

B.

residual risk.

C.

vulnerabilities.

D.

inherent risk.

Question 457

An IT department originally planned to outsource the hosting of its data center at an overseas location to reduce operational expenses. After a risk assessment, the department has decided to keep the data center in-house. How should the risk treatment response be reflected in the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk mitigation

B.

Risk avoidance

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Risk transfer

Question 458

As part of its risk strategy, an organization decided to transition its financial system from a cloud-based provider to an internally managed system. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do FIRST?

Options:

A.

Reassess whether the risk responses properly address known risks and vulnerabilities

B.

Analyze the risk register to identify potential updates and changes

C.

Evaluate existing control test plans of the system for potential changes

D.

Update the processes within impacted financial control assessments

Question 459

Which of the following is the PRIMARY risk management responsibility of the second line in the three lines model?

Options:

A.

Applying risk treatments

B.

Implementing internal controls

C.

Monitoring risk responses

D.

Providing assurance of control effectiveness

Question 460

Which of the following potential scenarios associated with the implementation of a new database technology presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?

Options:

A.

The organization may not have a sufficient number of skilled resources.

B.

Application and data migration cost for backups may exceed budget.

C.

Data may not be recoverable due to system failures.

D.

The database system may not be scalable in the future.

Question 461

An organization is planning to engage a cloud-based service provider for some of its data-intensive business processes. Which of the following is MOST important to help define the IT risk associated with this outsourcing activity?

Options:

A.

Service level agreement

B.

Customer service reviews

C.

Scope of services provided

D.

Right to audit the provider

Question 462

Which of the following is the ULTIMATE goal of conducting a privacy impact analysis (PIA)?

Options:

A.

To identify gaps in data protection controls

B.

To develop a customer notification plan

C.

To identify personally identifiable information (Pll)

D.

To determine gaps in data identification processes

Question 463

A risk owner has identified a risk with high impact and very low likelihood. The potential loss is covered by insurance. Which of the following should the risk practitioner do NEXT?

Options:

A.

Recommend avoiding the risk.

B.

Validate the risk response with internal audit.

C.

Update the risk register.

D.

Evaluate outsourcing the process.

Question 464

When of the following is the MOST significant exposure when an application uses individual user accounts to access the underlying database?

Options:

A.

Users may share accounts with business system analyst

B.

Application may not capture a complete audit trail.

C.

Users may be able to circumvent application controls.

D.

Multiple connects to the database are used and slow the process

Question 465

Management has required information security awareness training to reduce the risk associated with credential compromise. What is the BEST way to assess the effectiveness of the training?

Options:

A.

Conduct social engineering testing.

B.

Audit security awareness training materials.

C.

Administer an end-of-training quiz.

D.

Perform a vulnerability assessment.

Question 466

Which of the following is the BEST key control indicator (KCI) for risk related to IT infrastructure failure?

Options:

A.

Number of times the recovery plan is reviewed

B.

Number of successful recovery plan tests

C.

Percentage of systems with outdated virus protection

D.

Percentage of employees who can work remotely

Question 467

What should a risk practitioner do FIRST when a shadow IT application is identified in a business owner ' s business impact analysis (BIA)?

Options:

A.

Include the application in the business continuity plan (BCP).

B.

Determine the business purpose of the application.

C.

Segregate the application from the network.

D.

Report the finding to management.

Question 468

From a business perspective, which of the following is the MOST important objective of a disaster recovery test?

Options:

A.

The organization gains assurance it can recover from a disaster

B.

Errors are discovered in the disaster recovery process.

C.

All business-critical systems are successfully tested.

D.

All critical data is recovered within recovery time objectives (RTOs).

Question 469

Which of the following cloud service models is MOST appropriate for client organizations that want to maximize their control over management of the data life cycle?

Options:

A.

Data as a Service (DaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

Question 470

The software version of an enterprise ' s critical business application has reached end-of-life and is no longer supported by the vendor. IT has decided to develop an in-house replacement application. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern?

Options:

A.

The system documentation is not available.

B.

Enterprise risk management (ERM) has not approved the decision.

C.

The board of directors has not approved the decision.

D.

The business process owner is not an active participant.

Question 471

Which of the following is MOST important for senior management to review during an acquisition?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite and tolerance

B.

Risk framework and methodology

C.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

D.

Risk communication plan

Question 472

Of the following, who is accountable for ensuing the effectiveness of a control to mitigate risk?

Options:

A.

Control owner

B.

Risk manager

C.

Control operator

D.

Risk treatment owner

Question 473

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the likelihood of a successful network attack through social engineering?

Options:

A.

Automated controls

B.

Security awareness training

C.

Multifactor authentication

D.

Employee sanctions

Question 474

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk associated with the use of data analytics?

Options:

A.

Distributed data sources

B.

Manual data extraction

C.

Incorrect data selection

D.

Excessive data volume

Question 475

Which of the following controls would BEST reduce the risk of account compromise?

Options:

A.

Enforce password changes.

B.

Enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA).

C.

Enforce role-based authentication.

D.

Enforce password encryption.

Question 476

Which of the following is accountable for the management of IT risk within an organization?

Options:

A.

Senior management

B.

Business process owners

C.

Second line

D.

Internal audit

Question 477

Which of the following would be the BEST justification to invest in the development of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) solution?

Options:

A.

Facilitating risk-aware decision making by stakeholders

B.

Demonstrating management commitment to mitigate risk

C.

Closing audit findings on a timely basis

D.

Ensuring compliance to industry standards

Question 478

A failure in an organization s IT system build process has resulted in several computers on the network missing the corporate endpoint detection and response (EDR) software. Which of the following should be the risk practitioner’s IMMEDIATE concern?

Options:

A.

Multiple corporate build images exist.

B.

The process documentation was not updated.

C.

The IT build process was not followed.

D.

Threats are not being detected.

Question 479

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to update when a software upgrade renders an existing key control ineffective?

Options:

A.

Audit engagement letter

B.

Risk profile

C.

IT risk register

D.

Change control documentation

Question 480

Which of the following is MOST helpful to ensure effective security controls for a cloud service provider?

Options:

A.

A control self-assessment

B.

A third-party security assessment report

C.

Internal audit reports from the vendor

D.

Service level agreement monitoring

Question 481

Which of the following is MOST important for a risk practitioner to confirm when reviewing an organization’s information security policies?

Options:

A.

Aligned with information security procedures.

B.

Written at a high level to communicate the organization’s intentions.

C.

Frequently updated to address minor technology changes.

D.

Drafted at a technical level to focus on common security industry practices.

Question 482

Which of the following is MOST likely to cause a key risk indicator (KRI) to exceed thresholds?

Options:

A.

Occurrences of specific events

B.

A performance measurement

C.

The risk tolerance level

D.

Risk scenarios

Question 483

Zero Trust architecture is designed and deployed with adherence to which of the following basic tenets?

Options:

A.

Incoming traffic must be inspected before connection is established.

B.

Security frameworks and libraries should be leveraged.

C.

Digital identities should be implemented.

D.

All communication is secured regardless of network location.

Question 484

An internally developed payroll application leverages Platform as a Service (PaaS) infrastructure from the cloud. Who owns the related data confidentiality risk?

Options:

A.

IT infrastructure head

B.

Human resources head

C.

Supplier management head

D.

Application development head

Question 485

Which of the following would be MOST useful to senior management when determining an appropriate risk response?

Options:

A.

A comparison of current risk levels with established tolerance

B.

A comparison of cost variance with defined response strategies

C.

A comparison of current risk levels with estimated inherent risk levels

D.

A comparison of accepted risk scenarios associated with regulatory compliance

Question 486

A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?

Options:

A.

Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.

B.

Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.

C.

Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.

D.

Ensuring read-write access to all log sources

Question 487

An IT risk practitioner has been asked to regularly report on the overall status and effectiveness of the IT risk management program. Which of the following is MOST useful for this purpose?

Options:

A.

Balanced scorecard

B.

Capability maturity level

C.

Internal audit plan

D.

Control self-assessment (CSA)

Question 488

Which of the following activities should only be performed by the third line of defense?

Options:

A.

Operating controls for risk mitigation

B.

Testing the effectiveness and efficiency of internal controls

C.

Providing assurance on risk management processes

D.

Recommending risk treatment options

Question 489

Which of the following is the BEST indicator of an effective IT security awareness program?

Options:

A.

Decreased success rate of internal phishing tests

B.

Decreased number of reported security incidents

C.

Number of disciplinary actions issued for security violations

D.

Number of employees that complete security training

Question 490

An external security audit has reported multiple findings related to control noncompliance. Which of the following would be MOST important for the risk practitioner to communicate to senior management?

Options:

A.

A recommendation for internal audit validation

B.

Plans for mitigating the associated risk

C.

Suggestions for improving risk awareness training

D.

The impact to the organization’s risk profile

Question 491

The operational risk associated with attacks on a web application should be owned by the individual in charge of:

Options:

A.

network operations.

B.

the cybersecurity function.

C.

application development.

D.

the business function.

Question 492

A newly hired risk practitioner finds that the risk register has not been updated in the past year. What is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Identify changes in risk factors and initiate risk reviews.

B.

Engage an external consultant to redesign the risk management process.

C.

Outsource the process for updating the risk register.

D.

Implement a process improvement and replace the old risk register.

Question 493

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate key performance indicator (KPI) to measure change management performance?

Options:

A.

Percentage of changes implemented successfully

B.

Percentage of rejected change requests

C.

Number of after-hours emergency changes

D.

Number of change control requests

Question 494

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information for developing key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

B.

Risk scenario ownership

C.

Risk thresholds

D.

Possible causes of materialized risk

Question 495

Options:

A.

Key performance indicators (KPIs)

B.

Key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds

C.

Risk trends

D.

Risk objectives

Question 496

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for a server patch management process?

Options:

A.

The percentage of servers with allowed patching exceptions

B.

The number of servers with local credentials to install patches

C.

The percentage of servers patched within required service level agreements

D.

The number of servers running the software patching service

Question 497

Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that risk mitigation plans have been implemented effectively?

Options:

A.

Self-assessments by process owners

B.

Mitigation plan progress reports

C.

Risk owner attestation

D.

Change in the level of residual risk

Question 498

Which of the following is MOST likely to introduce risk for financial institutions that use blockchain?

Options:

A.

Cost of implementation

B.

Implementation of unproven applications

C.

Disruption to business processes

D.

Increase in attack surface area

Question 499

An organization has initiated a project to launch an IT-based service to customers and take advantage of being the first to market. Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to senior management?

Options:

A.

More time has been allotted for testing.

B.

The project is likely to deliver the product late.

C.

A new project manager is handling the project.

D.

The cost of the project will exceed the allotted budget.

Question 500

Which of the following presents the GREATEST security risk to an organization with a large number of Internet of Things (IoT) devices within its network?

Options:

A.

Inadequate network bandwidth

B.

Lack of interoperability between IoT devices

C.

Insufficient IoT policies and procedures

D.

Increased maintenance costs for IoT devices

Question 501

An organization has outsourced its customer management database to an external service provider. Of the following, who should be accountable for ensuring customer data privacy?

Options:

A.

The organization ' s business process owner

B.

The organization ' s information security manager

C.

The organization ' s vendor management officer

D.

The vendor ' s risk manager

Question 502

An IT control gap has been identified in a key process. Who would be the MOST appropriate owner of the risk associated with this gap?

Options:

A.

Key control owner

B.

Operational risk manager

C.

Business process owner

D.

Chief information security officer (CISO)

Question 503

Who should be accountable for ensuring effective cybersecurity controls are established?

Options:

A.

Risk owner

B.

Security management function

C.

IT management

D.

Enterprise risk function

Question 504

Which of the following is the BEST control to minimize the risk associated with scope creep in software development?

Options:

A.

An established process for project change management

B.

Retention of test data and results for review purposes

C.

Business managements review of functional requirements

D.

Segregation between development, test, and production

Question 505

The PRIMARY benefit of classifying information assets is that it helps to:

Options:

A.

communicate risk to senior management

B.

assign risk ownership

C.

facilitate internal audit

D.

determine the appropriate level of control

Question 506

Which of the following would be- MOST helpful to understand the impact of a new technology system on an organization ' s current risk profile?

Options:

A.

Hire consultants specializing m the new technology.

B.

Review existing risk mitigation controls.

C.

Conduct a gap analysis.

D.

Perform a risk assessment.

Question 507

Which of the following is the BEST metric to demonstrate the effectiveness of an organization’s software testing program?

Options:

A.

Average time to complete software test cases

B.

Percentage of applications with defined business cases

C.

Number of incidents resulting from software changes

D.

Percentage of staff completing software development training

Question 508

Business management is seeking assurance from the CIO that IT has a plan in place for early identification of potential issues that could impact the delivery of a new application Which of the following is the BEST way to increase the chances of a successful delivery ' ?

Options:

A.

Implement a release and deployment plan

B.

Conduct comprehensive regression testing.

C.

Develop enterprise-wide key risk indicators (KRls)

D.

Include business management on a weekly risk and issues report

Question 509

An organization is implementing robotic process automation (RPA) to streamline business processes. Given that implementation of this technology is expected to impact existing controls, which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Reassess whether mitigating controls address the known risk in the processes.

B.

Update processes to address the new technology.

C.

Update the data governance policy to address the new technology.

D.

Perform a gap analysis of the impacted processes.

Question 510

Options:

A.

Sensitive information classification and handling policies

B.

Anti-malware controls on endpoint devices

C.

Regular employee security awareness training

D.

An egress intrusion detection system (IDS)

Question 511

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk treatment plan cannot be completed on time?

Options:

A.

Replace the action owner with a more experienced individual.

B.

Implement compensating controls until the preferred action can be completed.

C.

Change the risk response strategy of the relevant risk to risk avoidance.

D.

Develop additional key risk indicators (KRIs) until the preferred action can be completed.

Question 512

Which of the following should a risk practitioner do FIRST when an organization decides to use a cloud service?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor selection process and vetting criteria.

B.

Assess whether use of service falls within risk tolerance thresholds.

C.

Establish service level agreements (SLAs) with the vendor.

D.

Check the contract for appropriate security risk and control provisions.

Question 513

Which of the following is the MOST useful information for a risk practitioner when planning response activities after risk identification?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk appetite

C.

Risk priorities

D.

Risk heat maps

Question 514

An IT manager insists on accepting an IT risk associated with a key business process due to the limited resources available to mitigate. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s MOST important action?

Options:

A.

Seek additional resources for risk mitigation.

B.

Document the business rationale for risk acceptance.

C.

Validate the decision with the process owner

D.

Conduct a follow-up business process analysis.

Question 515

Which of the following would BEST help minimize the risk associated with social engineering threats?

Options:

A.

Enforcing employees’ sanctions

B.

Conducting phishing exercises

C.

Enforcing segregation of dunes

D.

Reviewing the organization ' s risk appetite

Question 516

Which of the following is the BEST indication that key risk indicators (KRIs) should be revised?

Options:

A.

An increase in the number of risk threshold exceptions

B.

An increase in the number of change events pending management review

C.

A decrease in the number of key performance indicators (KPIs)

D.

A decrease in the number of critical assets covered by risk thresholds

Question 517

Which of the following provides the BEST measurement of an organization ' s risk management maturity level?

Options:

A.

Level of residual risk

B.

The results of a gap analysis

C.

IT alignment to business objectives

D.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 518

When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:

Options:

A.

review alignment with the organizations strategy.

B.

understand the organization ' s information security policy.

C.

validate the organization ' s data classification scheme.

D.

report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.

Question 519

An organization has agreed to a 99% availability for its online services and will not accept availability that falls below 98.5%. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

risk mitigation.

B.

risk evaluation.

C.

risk appetite.

D.

risk tolerance.

Question 520

When outsourcing a business process to a cloud service provider, it is MOST important to understand that:

Options:

A.

insurance could be acquired for the risk associated with the outsourced process.

B.

service accountability remains with the cloud service provider.

C.

a risk owner must be designated within the cloud service provider.

D.

accountability for the risk will remain with the organization.

Question 521

Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?

Options:

A.

Communication

B.

Risk analysis

C.

Decision support

D.

Benchmarking

Question 522

During an IT risk scenario review session, business executives question why they have been assigned ownership of IT-related risk scenarios. They feel IT risk is technical in nature and therefore should be owned by IT. Which of the following is the BEST way for the risk practitioner to address these concerns?

Options:

A.

Describe IT risk scenarios in terms of business risk.

B.

Recommend the formation of an executive risk council to oversee IT risk.

C.

Provide an estimate of IT system downtime if IT risk materializes.

D.

Educate business executives on IT risk concepts.

Question 523

Which of the following is the BEST approach to resolve a disagreement between stakeholders regarding the impact of a potential risk scenario?

Options:

A.

Modify the risk scenario to address stakeholder concerns.

B.

Calculate the historical impact of risk occurring at industry peers.

C.

Identify data that could be used to help quantify the risk.

D.

Use the highest value of potential impact suggested by the stakeholders.

Question 524

Which of the following should be the PRIMARY input when designing IT controls?

Options:

A.

Benchmark of industry standards

B.

Internal and external risk reports

C.

Recommendations from IT risk experts

D.

Outcome of control self-assessments

Question 525

Which of the following is the BEST approach for obtaining management buy-in

to implement additional IT controls?

Options:

A.

List requirements based on a commonly accepted IT risk management framework.

B.

Provide information on new governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform functionalities.

C.

Describe IT risk impact on organizational processes in monetary terms.

D.

Present new key risk indicators (KRIs) based on industry benchmarks.

Question 526

An organization is planning to implement a Zero Trust model. From a cybersecunty perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure successful alignment with the overall inten Zero Trust?

Options:

A.

Access policies

B.

Industry benchmarks

C.

Network compatibility

D.

Encryption algorithms

Question 527

Which of the following should a risk practitioner review FIRST when evaluating risk events associated with the organization ' s data flow model?

Options:

A.

Results of data classification activities

B.

Recent changes to enterprise architecture (EA)

C.

High-level network diagrams

D.

Notes from interviews with the data owners

Question 528

The MAIN goal of the risk analysis process is to determine the:

Options:

A.

potential severity of impact

B.

frequency and magnitude of loss

C.

control deficiencies

D.

threats and vulnerabilities

Question 529

Which of the following is the BEST method to identify unnecessary controls?

Options:

A.

Evaluating the impact of removing existing controls

B.

Evaluating existing controls against audit requirements

C.

Reviewing system functionalities associated with business processes

D.

Monitoring existing key risk indicators (KRIs)

Question 530

Which of the following key performance indicators (KPis) would BEST measure me risk of a service outage when using a Software as a Service (SaaS) vendors

Options:

A.

Frequency of business continuity plan (BCP) lasting

B.

Frequency and number of new software releases

C.

Frequency and duration of unplanned downtime

D.

Number of IT support staff available after business hours

Question 531

An organization has identified a risk exposure due to weak technical controls in a newly implemented HR system. The risk practitioner is documenting the risk in the risk register. The risk should be owned by the:

Options:

A.

chief risk officer.

B.

project manager.

C.

chief information officer.

D.

business process owner.

Question 532

Which of the following BEST assists in justifying an investment in automated controls?

Options:

A.

Cost-benefit analysis

B.

Alignment of investment with risk appetite

C.

Elimination of compensating controls

D.

Reduction in personnel costs

Question 533

Which of the following is the MOST useful information an organization can obtain from external sources about emerging threats?

Options:

A.

Solutions for eradicating emerging threats

B.

Cost to mitigate the risk resulting from threats

C.

Indicators for detecting the presence of threatsl)

D.

Source and identity of attackers

Question 534

An organization has restructured its business processes, and the business continuity plan (BCP) needs to be revised accordingly. Which of the following should be identified FIRST?

Options:

A.

Variances in recovery times

B.

Ownership assignment for controls

C.

New potentially disruptive scenarios

D.

Contractual changes with customers

Question 535

From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to ensure when risk management policies are being updated to facilitate the pursuit of new opportunities?

Options:

A.

Updates align with strategic business objectives.

B.

Updates will be approved by the risk owners.

C.

Updates align with industry standards and benchmarks.

D.

Updates will be reviewed periodically to ensure compliance.

Question 536

An organization becomes aware that IT security failed to detect a coordinated

cyber attack on its data center. Which of the following is the BEST course of

action?

Options:

A.

Perform a business impact analysis (BIA).

B.

Identify compensating controls

C.

Conduct a root cause analysis.

D.

Revise key risk indicator (KRI) thresholds.

Question 537

A process maturity model is MOST useful to the risk management process because it helps:

Options:

A.

determine the cost of control improvements

B.

determine the gap between actual and desired state.

C.

benchmark maturity against industry standards

D.

reduce audit and regulatory findings

Question 538

An organization has asked an IT risk practitioner to conduct an operational risk assessment on an initiative to outsource the organization ' s customer service operations overseas. Which of the following would MOST significantly impact management ' s decision?

Options:

A.

Time zone difference of the outsourcing location

B.

Ongoing financial viability of the outsourcing company

C.

Cross-border information transfer restrictions in the outsourcing country

D.

Historical network latency between the organization and outsourcing location

Question 539

An organization has been made aware of a newly discovered critical vulnerability in a regulatory reporting system. Which of the following is the risk practitioner ' s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Perform an impact assessment.

B.

Perform a penetration test.

C.

Request an external audit.

D.

Escalate the risk to senior management.

Question 540

An enterprise has taken delivery of software patches that address vulnerabilities in its core business software. Prior to implementation, which of the following is the MOST important task to be performed?

Options:

A.

Assess the impact of applying the patches on the production environment.

B.

Survey other enterprises regarding their experiences with applying these patches.

C.

Seek information from the software vendor to enable effective application of the patches.

D.

Determine in advance an off-peak period to apply the patches.

Question 541

Which of the following is the GREATEST concern associated with the use of artificial intelligence (AI) language models?

Options:

A.

The model could be hacked or exploited.

B.

The model could be used to generate inaccurate content.

C.

Staff could become overly reliant on the model.

D.

It could lead to biased recommendations.

Question 542

After identifying new risk events during a project, the project manager s NEXT step should be to:

Options:

A.

determine if the scenarios need 10 be accepted or responded to.

B.

record the scenarios into the risk register.

C.

continue with a qualitative risk analysis.

D.

continue with a quantitative risk analysis.

Question 543

Which of the following BEST enables an organization to address risk associated with technical complexity?

Options:

A.

Documenting system hardening requirements

B.

Minimizing dependency on technology

C.

Aligning with a security architecture

D.

Establishing configuration guidelines

Question 544

An organization recently implemented new technologies that enable the use of robotic process automation. Which of the following is MOST important to reassess?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk tolerance

C.

Risk capacity

D.

Risk appetite

Question 545

A risk register BEST facilitates which of the following risk management functions?

Options:

A.

Analyzing the organization ' s risk appetite

B.

Influencing the risk culture of the organization

C.

Reviewing relevant risk scenarios with stakeholders

D.

Articulating senior management ' s intent

Question 546

Which of the following provides the MOST useful information to assess the magnitude of identified deficiencies in the IT control environment?

Options:

A.

Peer benchmarks

B.

Internal audit reports

C.

Business impact analysis (BIA) results

D.

Threat analysis results

Question 547

Which of the following is the MOST important characteristic of a key risk indicator (KRI) to enable decision-making?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the risk until the exposure is reduced

B.

Setting minimum sample sizes to ensure accuracy

C.

Listing alternative causes for risk events

D.

Illustrating changes in risk trends

Question 548

Which of the following is MOST appropriate to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system?

Options:

A.

Implement segregation of duties.

B.

Enforce an internal data access policy.

C.

Enforce the use of digital signatures.

D.

Apply single sign-on for access control.

Question 549

An employee lost a personal mobile device that may contain sensitive corporate information. What should be the risk practitioner ' s recommendation?

Options:

A.

Conduct a risk analysis.

B.

Initiate a remote data wipe.

C.

Invoke the incident response plan

D.

Disable the user account.

Question 550

Which of the following should be of GREATEST concern lo a risk practitioner reviewing the implementation of an emerging technology?

Options:

A.

Lack of alignment to best practices

B.

Lack of risk assessment

C.

Lack of risk and control procedures

D.

Lack of management approval

Question 551

Which of the following would present the MOST significant risk to an organization when updating the incident response plan?

Options:

A.

Obsolete response documentation

B.

Increased stakeholder turnover

C.

Failure to audit third-party providers

D.

Undefined assignment of responsibility

Question 552

Which of the following is the BEST approach when a risk practitioner has been asked by a business unit manager for special consideration during a risk assessment of a system?

Options:

A.

Conduct an abbreviated version of the assessment.

B.

Report the business unit manager for a possible ethics violation.

C.

Perform the assessment as it would normally be done.

D.

Recommend an internal auditor perform the review.

Question 553

The PRIMARY objective of collecting information and reviewing documentation when performing periodic risk analysis should be to:

Options:

A.

Identify new or emerging risk issues.

B.

Satisfy audit requirements.

C.

Survey and analyze historical risk data.

D.

Understand internal and external threat agents.

Question 554

Which of the following is the BEST metric to measure the effectiveness of an organization ' s disaster recovery program?

Options:

A.

Percentage of applications subject to disaster recovery tests

B.

Number of personnel dedicated to the disaster recovery program

C.

Number of disaster recovery tests performed per year

D.

Percentage of systems meeting defined recovery objectives

Question 555

Which of the following is the GREATEST benefit of centralizing IT systems?

Options:

A.

Risk reporting

B.

Risk classification

C.

Risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification

Question 556

Which of the following changes would be reflected in an organization ' s risk profile after the failure of a critical patch implementation?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite is decreased.

B.

Inherent risk is increased.

C.

Risk tolerance is decreased.

D.

Residual risk is increased.

Question 557

A risk practitioner is collaborating with key stakeholders to prioritize a large number of IT risk scenarios. Which scenarios should receive the PRIMARY focus?

Options:

A.

Scenarios with the highest number of open audit issues

B.

Scenarios with the highest frequency of incidents

C.

Scenarios with the largest budget allocation for risk mitigation

D.

Scenarios with the highest risk impact to the business

Question 558

When assessing the maturity level of an organization’s risk management framework, which of the following should be of GREATEST concern to a risk practitioner?

Options:

A.

Reliance on qualitative analysis methods.

B.

Lack of a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool.

C.

Lack of senior management involvement.

D.

Use of multiple risk registers.

Question 559

The PRIMARY reason to have risk owners assigned to entries in the risk register is to ensure:

Options:

A.

risk is treated appropriately

B.

mitigating actions are prioritized

C.

risk entries are regularly updated

D.

risk exposure is minimized.

Question 560

Which of the following will BEST ensure that information security risk factors are mitigated when developing in-house applications?

Options:

A.

Identify information security controls in the requirements analysis

B.

Identify key risk indicators (KRIs) as process output.

C.

Design key performance indicators (KPIs) for security in system specifications.

D.

Include information security control specifications in business cases.

Question 561

A robotic process automation (RPA) project has implemented new robots to enhance the efficiency of a sales business process. Which of the following provides the BEST evidence that the new controls have been implemented successfully?

Options:

A.

A post-implementation review has been conducted by key personnel.

B.

A qualified independent party assessed the new controls as effective.

C.

Senior management has signed off on the design of the controls.

D.

Robots have operated without human interference on a daily basis.

Question 562

Which of the following is MOST important to ensure before using risk reports in decision making?

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis is included.

B.

Risk analysis results are validated.

C.

Real-time risk information is provided.

D.

Quantitative risk data is provided.

Question 563

A large organization needs to report risk at all levels for a new centralized visualization project to reduce cost and improve performance. Which of the following would MOST effectively represent the overall risk of the project to senior management?

Options:

A.

Aggregated key performance indicators (KPls)

B.

Key risk indicators (KRIs)

C.

Centralized risk register

D.

Risk heat map

Question 564

Which of the following groups represents the first line of defense?

Options:

A.

Internal audit

B.

Compliance committee

C.

External audit

D.

Operational managers

Question 565

A risk practitioner has been asked to mark an identified control deficiency as remediated, despite concerns that the risk level is still too high. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this concern?

Options:

A.

Prepare a risk acceptance proposal for senior management ' s consideration.

B.

Review the organization ' s risk appetite and tolerance.

C.

Assess the residual risk against the organization ' s risk appetite.

D.

Recommend implementation of additional compensating controls.

Question 566

Which of the following would provide the MOST reliable evidence of the effectiveness of security controls implemented for a web application?

Options:

A.

Penetration testing

B.

IT general controls audit

C.

Vulnerability assessment

D.

Fault tree analysis

Question 567

Which of the following is MOST important when developing key performance indicators (KPIs)?

Options:

A.

Alignment to risk responses

B.

Alignment to management reports

C.

Alerts when risk thresholds are reached

D.

Identification of trends

Question 568

An IT operations team implements disaster recovery controls based on decisions from application owners regarding the level of resiliency needed. Who is the risk owner in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Business resilience manager

B.

Disaster recovery team lead

C.

Application owner

D.

IT operations manager

Question 569

Several vulnerabilities have been identified in an organization’s core financial systems. Which of the following would be the risk practitioner’s BEST course of action?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the associated risk.

B.

Determine the cost of remediation.

C.

Initiate the incident response plan.

D.

Remediate the vulnerabilities.

Question 570

Which of the following activities BEST facilitates effective risk management throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

Reviewing risk-related process documentation

B.

Conducting periodic risk assessments

C.

Performing a business impact analysis (BIA)

D.

Performing frequent audits

Question 571

An organization is unable to implement a multi-factor authentication requirement until the next fiscal year due to budget constraints. Consequently, a policy exception must be submitted. Which of the following is MOST important to include in the analysis of the exception?

Options:

A.

Sections of the policy that may justify not implementing the requirement

B.

Risk associated with the inability to implement the requirement

C.

Budget justification to implement the new requirement during the current year

D.

Industry best practices with respect to implementation of the proposed control

Question 572

As part of an overall IT risk management plan, an IT risk register BEST helps management:

Options:

A.

align IT processes with business objectives.

B.

communicate the enterprise risk management policy.

C.

stay current with existing control status.

D.

understand the organizational risk profile.

Question 573

Which of the following is the BEST key performance indicator (KPI) for determining how well an IT policy is aligned to business requirements?

Options:

A.

Total cost to support the policy

B.

Number of exceptions to the policy

C.

Total cost of policy breaches

D.

Number of inquiries regarding the policy

Question 574

Which of the following is the BEST way for a risk practitioner to consolidate the results of risk assessments across multiple operating units?

Options:

A.

Implement a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) system.

B.

Update departmental risk registers with items from the central risk register.

C.

Aggregate operating unit risk registers to a central risk register.

D.

Perform additional risk assessments and create an enterprise risk matrix.

Question 575

Which of the following approaches to bring your own device (BYOD) service delivery provides the BEST protection from data loss?

Options:

A.

Enable data wipe capabilities

B.

Penetration testing and session timeouts

C.

Implement remote monitoring

D.

Enforce strong passwords and data encryption

Question 576

An organization has built up its cash reserves and has now become financially able to support additional risk while meeting its objectives. What is this change MOST likely to impact?

Options:

A.

Risk profile

B.

Risk capacity

C.

Risk indicators

D.

Risk tolerance

Question 577

Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization ' s IT asset life cycle is poorly managed?

Options:

A.

Increased hardware maintenance costs

B.

Sensitive data found on discarded devices

C.

Lack of asset labeling

D.

Inadequate employee training

Question 578

Which of the following is the BEST criterion to determine whether higher residual risk ratings in the risk register should be accepted?

Options:

A.

Risk maturity

B.

Risk policy

C.

Risk appetite

D.

Risk culture

Question 579

Which of the following is the MAIN benefit to an organization using key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs assist in the preparation of the organization ' s risk profile.

B.

KRIs signal that a change in the control environment has occurred.

C.

KRIs provide a basis to set the risk appetite for an organization

D.

KRIs provide an early warning that a risk threshold is about to be reached.

Question 580

Which of the following scenarios represents a threat?

Options:

A.

Connecting a laptop to a free, open, wireless access point (hotspot)

B.

Visitors not signing in as per policy

C.

Storing corporate data in unencrypted form on a laptop

D.

A virus transmitted on a USB thumb drive

Question 581

When updating a risk register with the results of an IT risk assessment, the risk practitioner should log:

Options:

A.

high impact scenarios.

B.

high likelihood scenarios.

C.

treated risk scenarios.

D.

known risk scenarios.

Question 582

Which of the following is the BEST indication of a mature organizational risk culture?

Options:

A.

Corporate risk appetite is communicated to staff members.

B.

Risk owners understand and accept accountability for risk.

C.

Risk policy has been published and acknowledged by employees.

D.

Management encourages the reporting of policy breaches.

Question 583

The purpose of requiring source code escrow in a contractual agreement is to:

Options:

A.

ensure that the source code is valid and exists.

B.

ensure that the source code is available if the vendor ceases to exist.

C.

review the source code for adequacy of controls.

D.

ensure the source code is available when bugs occur.

Question 584

Which of the following provides the BEST level of assurance to an organization that its vendors ' controls are effective?

Options:

A.

Control matrix documentation

B.

Vendor security reports

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

An independent third-party audit

Question 585

The MAIN reason a risk practitioner should review control assessment reports is to:

Options:

A.

Provide assurance on effective compliance.

B.

Determine exceptions for management acceptance.

C.

Determine overall efficiency of the control environment.

D.

Determine if controls effectively lower risk exposure.

Question 586

Which of the following is the BEST way to determine the value of information assets for risk management purposes?

Options:

A.

Assess the loss impact if the information is inadvertently disclosed

B.

Calculate the overhead required to keep the information secure throughout its life cycle

C.

Calculate the replacement cost of obtaining the information from alternate sources

D.

Assess the market value offered by consumers of the information

Question 587

Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of the first line of defense related to computer-enabled fraud?

Options:

A.

Providing oversight of risk management processes

B.

Implementing processes to detect and deter fraud

C.

Ensuring that risk and control assessments consider fraud

D.

Monitoring the results of actions taken to mitigate fraud

Question 588

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to assess the risk associated with outsourcing IT processes?

Options:

A.

Review the vendor ' s penetration test results

B.

Review the contract and service level agreements (SLAs) periodically

C.

Benchmark industry peers using the same vendor services

D.

Analyze gaps between the current and future state

Question 589

Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?

Options:

A.

Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy

B.

Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices

C.

Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls

D.

Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program

Question 590

Which of the following is the BEST method for assessing control effectiveness against technical vulnerabilities that could be exploited to compromise an information system?

Options:

A.

Vulnerability scanning

B.

Systems log correlation analysis

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Monitoring of intrusion detection system (IDS) alerts

Question 591

An organization uses a web application hosted by a cloud service that is populated by data sent to the vendor via email on a monthly basis. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration when analyzing the risk associated with the application?

Options:

A.

Whether the service provider ' s data center is located in the same country

B.

Whether the data sent by email has been encrypted

C.

Whether the data has been appropriately classified

D.

Whether the service provider contract allows right of onsite audit

Question 592

A risk practitioner has been asked to assess the risk associated with a new critical application used by a financial process team that the risk practitioner was a member of two years ago. Which of the following is the GREATEST concern with this request?

Options:

A.

The risk assessment team may be overly confident of its ability to identify issues.

B.

The risk practitioner may be unfamiliar with recent application and process changes.

C.

The risk practitioner may still have access rights to the financial system.

D.

Participation in the risk assessment may constitute a conflict of interest.

Page: 1 / 198
Total 1975 questions