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iSQI CTFL_Syll2018 Dumps

ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Question 1

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

Question 2

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

Question 3

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

Question 4

Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?

(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.

(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.

(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.

(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.

(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.

(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Options:

A.

ii, iii, iv, v

B.

i, iii, v, vi

C.

i, ii, iv, v

D.

iii, iv, v, vi

Question 5

What can testing demonstrate?

Options:

A.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no defects

B.

Testing can demonstrate that there are defects

C.

Testing can demonstrate that the software is correct

D.

Testing can demonstrate that there are no hidden defects in the software

Question 6

Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Options:

A.

Software traceability process

B.

Incidence management process

C.

Testing design process

D.

Configuration management process

Question 7

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

Question 8

Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate? [K1]

Options:

A.

The 4 stage V model is always the best choice of software development model for any project

B.

The agile development model is usually most appropriate for short projects

C.

The choice of software development model depends on product and project characteristics

D.

The 2 stage V model is the most appropriate development model for simple products

Question 9

Consider the following pseudo code:

1. Begin

2. Input X, Y

3. If X > Y

4. __Print (X, ‘is greater than’, Y)

5. Else

6. __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to’, X)

7. EndIf

8. End

What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Statement coverage = 3, Decision coverage = 3

B.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 2

C.

Statement coverage = 1, Decision coverage = 2

D.

Statement coverage = 2, Decision coverage = 1

Question 10

Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Options:

A.

Defining the amount, level of detail structure, and templates for the test documentation.

B.

Estimates of defect density or reliability measures.

C.

Adequacy of the test approaches taken.

D.

Discussions on disaster recovery.

Question 11

Which type of review has the following main purposes:

discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Options:

A.

Technical Review

B.

Inspection

C.

Walkthrough

D.

Informal review

Question 12

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

Question 13

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

Question 14

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

as

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

Question 15

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

Question 16

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

Question 17

Which of the following would NOT be a typical target of testing support tools?

Options:

A.

Automate activities that require significant resources when done manually

B.

Automate activities that cannot be executed manually

C.

Automate repetitive tasks

D.

Automating repetitive inspections

Question 18

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

Question 19

Which statement BEST describes when test planning should be performed? [K1]

Options:

A.

Test planning is performed only once, at the beginning of the life cycle, andgenerates a Master Test Plan

B.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at the beginning of test execution

C.

Test planning is performed at the beginning of the life cycle and again at every test level

D.

Test planning is performed continuously in all life cycle processes and activities

Question 20

Consider the following pseudo code

1. Begin

2. Read Gender

3. __Print “Dear”

4. If Gender = ‘female’

5. Print (“Ms”)

6. Else

7. __Print ( “Mr”)

8. Endif

9. End

How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

Question 21

Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the component test level only

B.

At all test levels

C.

At integration testing and system testing levels only

D.

At all levels from integration testing to acceptance testing

Question 22

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]

a. To identify as many defects as possible

b. To maximise code coverage

c. To ensure the product works as expected

d. To assess the overall quality of the product

e. To determine the reliability of the product

Options:

A.

b and c

B.

a and d

C.

b and e

D.

c and d

Question 23

Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Options:

A.

Migration of software onto a new platform

B.

Testing during initial development of a replacement for an existing system

C.

Purchase of a new software tool

D.

Updating of a regression suite

Question 24

How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Options:

A.

By detecting and removing all the defects in the delivered code and ensuring that all tests adhere to the quality standards set for the project

B.

By measuring reliability of the software and ensuring that it is always above 99.99%

C.

By identifying root causes of defects from past projects and using the lessons learned to improve processes and thus help to reduce the defect count

D.

By detecting all deviations from coding good practice and ensuring that these are corrected

Question 25

Component testing may include:

Options:

A.

Sociability testing.

B.

User acceptance testing.

C.

Beta testing.

D.

The use of stubs and drivers.

Question 26

What is the value of static code analysis?

Options:

A.

Detection of failures not easily found by other types of testing

B.

Early defect detection

C.

Detection of suspicious operations caused by deviations from regulations

D.

Detect deviations in standards by executing the source code

Question 27

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

Question 28

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

Question 29

When should testers be involved in reviewing a UAT specification? [K1]

Options:

A.

At the beginning of the project

B.

As soon as requirements have been approved

C.

As soon as the UAT specification has been drafted

D.

At any time before UAT begins

Question 30

Equivalence Partitioning is best defined as:

Options:

A.

An analysis technique that divides inputs into groups that are expected to exhibit similar behaviors.

B.

Applying to time-related data classes only.

C.

A form of white-box testing.

D.

A method to reduce test coverage.

Question 31

Which of the following, select the best description of the fundamental test process:

Options:

A.

Planning and control, analysis, design, implementation, execution, evaluation of exit criteria and reporting, test closure.

B.

Executing tests, identifying and recording defects and preparing recommendation and closure reports.

C.

Controls, preparation of test cases, execution of test cases, execution of regression packs, communicating with developers, writing recommendations for release.

D.

Static testing, dynamic testing, defect reporting, reporting and closure.

Question 32

Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Data-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

B.

Recorded manual tests may become unstable in use

C.

Keyword-driven testing cannot be used with test execution tools

D.

Expected results for tests are not required because the tool generates expected results

Question 33

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Options:

A.

Independent testers within the development teams

B.

Independent testers from the user community

C.

Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists

D.

Code tested by another developer from the development team

Question 34

Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Static analysis tools can be applied to new code but cannot be applied to existing code

B.

Static analysis tools can be used to enforce coding standards

C.

Static analysis tools always generate large numbers of warning messages when applied to new code, even if the code meets coding standards

D.

Static analysis tools do not generate warning messages when applied to existing code

Question 35

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.

Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Options:

A.

The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.

B.

An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application

C.

A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application

D.

A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

Question 36

What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

Boundary value testing

C.

Statement testing and coverage

D.

State transition testing

Question 37

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

Question 38

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

Question 39

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

Question 40

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

Question 41

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

Question 42

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

Question 43

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

Question 44

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

Question 45

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

Options:

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

Question 46

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

Question 47

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

Question 48

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

Question 49

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

Question 50

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

Question 51

Given the following requirement:

as

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

Question 52

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

Question 53

Which of the following is correct?

Options:

A.

Intrusive test tools are tools that do not exhibit the probe-effect

B.

Testing tools can be used by both developers and testers

C.

Use of testing tools is effective only when done as part of a test automation system

D.

Testing tools allow developers do testing Use of such tools changes the role of the test team

Question 54

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

Question 55

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

Question 57

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

as

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

Question 58

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

Question 59

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

Question 60

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

Question 61

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

Question 62

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

Question 63

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

Question 64

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

Question 65

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

Question 66

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

Question 67

Which of the following test techniques is structure-based?

Options:

A.

Control flow testing

B.

Use case testing

C.

State transition testing

D.

Decision table testing

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a deciding factor in determining the extent of testing required?

Options:

A.

Budget to do testing

B.

A particular tester involved in testing

C.

Level of risk of the product or features

D.

Time available to do testing

Question 69

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

Question 70

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

Question 71

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

Question 72

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

Question 73

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

Question 74

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

Question 75

Consider the following pseudo-code

as

How many minimum test cases are required to cover 100% Statement coverage and Decision coverage?

Options:

A.

5 for Statement, 5 for Decision

B.

4 for Statement, 5 for Decision

C.

8 for Statement, 6 for Decision

D.

6 for Statement, 8 for Decision

Question 76

Which of the following is a key difference between black box and white box test design techniques?

Options:

A.

Black box techniques use software code to derive test cases, white box techniques do not.

B.

White box techniques use functional design specifications to derive test cases, black box techniques do not.

C.

White box techniques can measure the extent of code coverage, black box techniques can not.

D.

White box techniques derive test cases from models of the software, black box techniques do not.

Question 77

Which of the following is NOT a typical task for a test leader?

Options:

A.

Select the test approach

B.

Coordinate the test strategy

C.

Prepare and acquire test data

D.

Estimate the cost of testing

Question 78

Integration testing has following characteristics.

I. It can be done in incremental manner

II. It is always done after system testing

III. It includes functional tests

IV It includes non-functional tests

Options:

A.

I. l and IV are correct

B.

I Ill and IV are correct

C.

TI is correct

D.

II and III are correct

Question 79

You need to test the login page of a web site The page contains fields for user name and password Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?

Options:

A.

Decision table testing, state transition testing.

B.

Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.

C.

Exploratory testing, statement coverage.

D.

Decision coverage, fault attack.

Question 80

Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:

To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared folder''.

Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

Options:

A.

Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

B.

Provides ideas for test process improvement

C.

Does not belong in an incident report.

D.

Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

Question 81

Given the following state transition diagram where SS is the start state:

as

Which of the following answers describes a test case that only uses valid transitions to exercise all states, using the minimum number of transitions?

Options:

A.

SS-S3-SS-S1-S3-S2.

B.

SS-S3-S2-S1.

C.

SS-S1-S2-S3.

D.

SS-S1-S3-S2.

Question 82

Which of the following is NOT a major responsibility of a tester?

Options:

A.

Producing interim test reports.

B.

Finding the root cause of a defect.

C.

Writing the test specification

D.

Reporting and tracking bugs.

Question 83

What type of testing is important after Migration, retirement or enhancement of an existing system?

Options:

A.

Regression testing

B.

Operational acceptance testing

C.

System Testing

D.

Maintenance testing

Question 84

Which of the following Is NOT a benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Options:

A.

It helps evaluate the extent of test coverage

B.

It obscures the impact of changes

C.

It allows testing to be auditable

D.

It meets the criteria for IT governance

Question 85

The following condition is given:

Integer x, y; IFx>0ANDx< 100

y = y + x; END-IF

Using boundary analysis for x. which test cases are required?

Options:

A.

-1,0.1,99.100, 101

B.

-1,0. 100,101

C.

-500,-10,0.1,99.100.101,500

D.

0, 1.99, 100

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?

Options:

A.

Re-prioritize tests because of time pressure

B.

Change the test schedule due to viability of a test environment

C.

Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan

D.

Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build

Question 87

The following checklist has been produced to help reviewers detect defects with user stones:

User Story Checklist:

1. The user story must have a unique identifier

2 The user story must contain the user/customer

3 The user story must contain the need

4. The user story must contain the reason.

5. The user story must contain testable acceptance Criteria-Using the checklist above what is wrong with the following user story?

User Story US2018

As a bank account customer, I would like to transfer money from one account to another using the mobile banking application by using the drag

and drop feature.

This is acceptable when

• I can drag and drop from one account to another and select any of the pre-defined amounts

• I can drag and drop from one account to another and type in any positive amount

• Once I confirm the details the amount is debited from the first account and credited to the second account

Options:

A.

The acceptance criteria is not testable

B.

The user story does not contain the customer.

C.

The user story does not contain the reason

D.

The user story does not contain the unique identifier.

Question 88

Which of the following statements correctly describes traceability?

Options:

A.

The capability of the software product to enable modified software to be tested.

B.

An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first.

C.

The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test design.

D.

The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs. software design

Question 89

Which of the following is a Black Box test design technique?

Options:

A.

Decision Coverage

B.

Error Guessing

C.

Statement Coverage

D.

Equivalence Partitioning

Question 90

as

The decision table above shows a company's fuel expenses structure.

Which of the following Test Cases based on the decision table are Valid?

Test Case 1:

An employee who is not a car or motorcycle driver attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim not allowed.

Test Case 2:

An employee who drives a 1700cc diesel car attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band C.

Test Case 3:

An employee who rides a motorcycle attempts to claim fuel expenses. Expected result: Expense claim accepted at band A.

Options:

A.

Test Cases 1 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 2 is Invalid.

B.

Test Cases 2 and 3 are Valid, Test Case 1 is Invalid

C.

Test Cases 1, 2 and 3 are all Valid.

D.

Test Cases 2 is Valid, Test Cases 1 and 3 are Invalid

Question 91

Which of the following is an approach that can be used for exploratory testing?

Options:

A.

Time-boxed test sessions are created, during which a tester uses a test charter containing test objectives to guide the testing.

B.

A tester methodically executes tests from a list of possible failures, based on experience, defect and failure data.

C.

A tester analyses, designs and implements tests based on external rules and standards.

D.

Tests are designed based on the guidance of stakeholders and experts outside the test team.

Question 92

During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Options:

A.

Test Execution.

B.

Test Planning.

C.

Test Design.

D.

Test Analysis.

Question 93

A QA manager of a start-up company needs to implement within a week a low cost incident management tool Which of the following is the best option?

Options:

A.

Manage the incidents through E-mails and phone calls

B.

Manage the incidents in a spreadsheet posted on the intranet

C.

Purchase and deploy an incident management tool

D.

Document incidents on a large board in the lab

Question 94

Which of the following approaches is/are used in Integration tests?

Options:

A.

Both functional and structural

B.

Usability

C.

Functional only

D.

Structural only

Question 95

Which of the following represents good testing practice for testers, irrespective of the software lifecycle model used?

Options:

A.

They should start test analysis when the corresponding development level is complete

B.

They should be involved in reviewing requirements or user stories as soon as drafts are available

C.

They should ensure that the same test objectives apply to each test level

D.

They should minimize the ratio of development levels to test levels to reduce project costs

Question 96

Which of the following is by definition a reactive test approach?

Options:

A.

Risk-based testing

B.

Automation of regression tests

C.

Exploratory testing

D.

Requirements-based testing

Question 97

What one of the following would be a typical objective of running a pilot project when introducing a new tool into an organisation?

Options:

A.

To establish whether the tool is available for a free trial period (and for how long).

B.

To provide training, coaching, and mentoring for users of the tool.

C.

To develop a clear set of requirements and objective criteria against which the tool can be evaluated.

D.

To evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices, and determining what would need to change.

Question 98

Which of the following test types are non-functional tests?

I) Acceptance test

II) Regression test

III) Stress test

IV) Component test

V) Reliability test

Options:

A.

I, III and V

B.

I. II and IV

C.

II. Ill and V

D.

III and V

Question 99

Which of the following BEST matches the attributes with a level of testing?

I. Stubs and drivers are often used

II The test environment should correspond to the production environment

III. Finding defects is not the main focus

IV Testing can be based on use cases

V. Testing is normally performed by testers

VI. Testing for functional and non-functional characteristics

Options:

A.

Component-V Integration - II System - IV Acceptance-VI

B.

Component -1 Integration - V System - II Acceptance - IV

C.

Component - IV Integration -1 System-VI Acceptance-V

D.

Component-VI Integration - IV System -1 Acceptance-III

Question 100

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyor belts, add raw materials to the flow, etc.)

Not all actions are possible at all times For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests. Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Branch Coverage

B.

Statement coverage

C.

Data flow coverage

D.

Code coverage

Question 101

Why is it important to select a test technique?

Options:

A.

Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule

B.

Selecting the right test technique in a given situation increases the effectiveness of the test process by creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.

C.

The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.

D.

There are usually too many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.

Question 102

You are testing an e-commerce system which sporadically fails to properly manage customers' shopping carts. You have stressed the urgency of this situation to the development manager and development team and they recognize the priority in getting this resolved. The development team is waiting for more information in your defect report in order to help resolve this failure.

Given the following items of information:

1. The expected results

2. The actual results

3. The urgency and priority to fix this

4. The date and author of the defect report

5. A description of the defect in order to reproduce, including screenshots and database dumps

Which of the items would be MOST useful to include in the defect report?

Options:

A.

1, 2, 5

B.

1,2, 3, 4, 5

C.

1, 2, 4

D.

3, 4

Question 103

Decision table testing is being performed on transactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4, which are shown below:

as

Given the following additional test cases:

as

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve fill coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules a and 4?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT2

B.

DT2, DT3

C.

DT3, DT4

D.

DT1, DT4

Question 104

A system is being enhanced to simplify screen navigation for users.

Which of the following does NOT reflect structural testing?

Options:

A.

To test all paths that users could take through the screen menu system

B.

To ensure that 100% decision testing is achieved for each system component

C.

To test all branches of component calls within the application call graph

D.

To ensure that users can navigate to all fields on the screen

Question 105

Which of the following options describe the causal chain in the correct sequence?

Options:

A.

Error, fault, failure

B.

Fault, bug, mistake

C.

Mistake, failure, fault

D.

Failure, bug, error

Question 106

When comparing Static and Dynamic test techniques, which of the following statements is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Static Testing finds failures, whilst Dynamic Testing only finds the cause of failures.

B.

Static Testing techniques, such as reviews, can be undertaken before Dynamic Testing, making defects cheaper to remove.

C.

Static Testing is based on the execution of code, whist Dynamic Testing relies on examination and analysis.

D.

Only Static Testing has the objective of identifying defects.

Question 107

Which of the following tasks Is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the tester?

Options:

A.

Develop a test strategy and test policy for the organization

B.

Introduce suitable metrics for measuring test progress

C.

Promote and advocate the test team within the organization

D.

Create the detailed test execution schedule

Question 108

Debugging and Testing are key activities in the software development lifecycle.

Which of the following are 'Debugging' activities?

a) Identifying, a failure

b) Locating the cause of failure

c) Fixing the defect

d) Checking the fix has resolved the failure

Options:

A.

a & d

B.

a & b

C.

b & c

D.

c & d

Question 109

Which of the following would be a good test technique to use when under severe time pressure?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Structure based testing

C.

Specification based testing

D.

Use Case testing

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Total 365 questions